govt policies for development in various sectors Flashcards

Question

Incentive schemes fr boosting large scale mfg of electronics in the country?

Answer 1

* **three** incentive schemes with a total outlay of about ₹48,000 crore. With the three new schemes, the government **aims to manufacture electronics worth ₹8 lakh cror**e, while generating employment for about **10 lakh people in the next five years.** 1. **Production Linked Incentive:** * Targeted at **mobile** phone manufacturing and specified **electronic components**. The government initially plans to **incentivise 10 firms — five global and five local.** * This Scheme shall extend an **incentive of 4% to 6% on incremental sales** (over base year) of goods manufactured in India and covered under the target segments, to eligible companies, for a period of five years subsequent to the base year. 2. **Scheme for Promotion of Manufacturing of Electronic Components and Semiconductors (SPECS):** * It shall provide financial incentive of **25% on capital expenditure** for the identified list of electronic goods, i.e., electronic components, semiconductor/ display fabrication units, Assembly, Test, Marking and Packaging (ATMP) units, specialized sub-assemblies and capital goods for manufacture of aforesaid goods. 3. **Modified Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMC 2.0) Scheme:** * It shall provide support for creation of world class infrastructure along with common facilities and amenities, including Ready Built Factory (RBF) sheds / Plug and Play facilities for attracting major global electronics manufacturers, along with their supply chains. * **Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMC2.0) Scheme** 1. EMC 2.0 is a scheme for development of world class infrastructure along with common facilities and amenities through Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMCs). 2. **EMC** scheme was notified by **MeiTY** in **2012**. The scheme provided grant assistance for setting up of both **Greenfield (assistance upto 50% of project cost upto max 50cr fr every 100 acres of land) and Brownfield EMCs (75% of cost of infrastr was provided uptomax 50cr)** across the country. Under the scheme, 20 Greenfield EMCs and 3 Common Facility Centres (CFCs) have been approved in 15 states across the country. 3. features similar to EMC. EMC 2.0 would also support setting up of Common Facility Centres (CFCs) in areas where a significant number of existing manufacturing units are located.

Answer 2

1. India has emerged as the second largest mobile manufacturer of the world. 2. In 2014-15, the value of mobiles produced was ₹18,992 crore with six crore units. 3. This increased to ₹1.7 lakh crore in value and 30 crore in terms of units in 2018-19. 4. We were one of the largest consumers of mobile phones in 2014. In 2014-15, our mobile phone imports exceeded $8 billion. Our electronics imports were threatening to exceed our oil imports. But a judicious mix of protection (levy of import duty/banning of finished goods) and incentives (PMP, PLI scheme, 100 per cent FDI) has been effective. Our mobile phone manufacturing value has jumped more than eight times from Rs 0.27 trillion in 2013-14 to Rs 2.2 trillion in 2020-21. [Samsung](https://indianexpress.com/about/samsung/) runs the world’s single-largest location mobile handset manufacturing plant in Uttar Pradesh. We have surpassed the US and South Korea to become the second-largest manufacturer globally.

Answer 3

1. Boost exports: India must aim for a significant increase in exports from the current $4 billion. China exports $200 billion, and Vietnam exports $60 billion worth of mobile phones. 2. INcrease value addition: 1. Our mobile phone exports are primarily limited to feature phones and low-value smartphones. 2. Our value addition in mobile phone manufacturing is currently limited to 15-20 per cent versus more than 40 per cent in China. 3. The scheme for promoting the manufacturing of electronic components and semiconductors (SPECS) is a step in the right direction. 4. Many parts like display panel assembly, camera modules, batteries, chargers, PCB assembly, etc, are being manufactured/proposed to be manufactured in India. 5. Global giants like [Foxconn](https://indianexpress.com/about/foxconn/), Samsung, Wistron, and domestic companies like Dixon committing investments augurs well for this. 3. We must focus on setting up a fabrication plant to manufacture semiconductor chips to facilitate complete vertical integration. We should leverage our common interests with Taiwan, a global leader in chip manufacturing, for a head start.

Answer 4

Growth on the lines of mobile phone sector * We imported RACs worth Rs 41 billion in 2017-18. * The government initiated multiple measures such as the PMP scheme, banning the import of refrigerant-filled ACs, increasing the import duty on RACs and critical components, and the PLI scheme. * From 2017-18, RAC imports have declined by 56 per cent to Rs 18 billion in 2020-21. * Our import of RACs has shifted from China to an FTA country like Thailand, where import duty isn’t applicable. * With the PLI scheme explicitly incentivising component manufacturing, several component manufacturing facilities, especially for compressors, PCBs, motors, etc, are being set up. * From importing 79 per cent of RACs, the value addition will move to 60-80 per cent in RACs in a few years.

Answer 5

1. in 2014-15, abt 58% of domestic consumption was sourced thru imports 2. India’s share in global electronics manufacturing has grown from 1.3% in 2012 to 3.0% in 2018 3. Electronic Products industry in India was valued at $ 61.8 bn in 2015, of which Electro-mechanical segment had the highest share at 30%. Opportunities: 1. India is one of largest electronics markets in the world anticipated reaching $ 400 bn by 2025 2. The electronics manufacturing sector accounts for 2.5% of India’s GDP, and employs over 13 million people are through directly and indirect jobs. 3. 100% FDI is allowed under the automatic route. In case of electronics items for defence, FDI up to 49% is allowed under automatic route and beyond 49% through the government approval.

Answer 6

Salient features: 1. Create eco-system for globally competitive ESDM sector: Promoting domestic manufacturing and export in the entire value-chain of ESDM. 2. Provide incentives and support for manufacturing of core electronic components. 3. Provide special package of incentives for mega projects which are extremely high-tech and entail huge investments, such as semiconductor facilities display fabrication, etc. 4. Special thrust on Fabless Chip Design Industry, Medical Electronic Devices Industry, Automotive Electronics Industry and Power Electronics for Mobility and Strategic Electronics Industry. 5. Create Sovereign Patent Fund (SPF) to promote the development and acquisition of IPs in ESDM sector. 6. policy has pitched for 2.0 version of the Electronics Manufacturing Cluster Scheme, under which infrastructure support will be provided for a group of industries that are part of the product supply chain rather than individual industries.

Answer 7

targets undr New policy: 1. Promote domestic manufacturing and export in the entire value-chain of ESDM for economic development to achieve a turnover of USD 400 billion (approximately INR 26,00,000 crore) by 2025. 2. Targeted production of 1.0 billion (100 crore) mobile handsets by 2025, valued at USD 190 billion (approximately INR 13,00,000 crore), including 600 million (60 crore) mobile handsets valued at USD 110 billion (approximately INR 7,00,000 crore) for export. 3. The policy has introduced “easier to implement” incentive schemes, including an interest subvention scheme and credit default guarantee, to replace some of the existing ones under the NEP2012. 4. It proposes to provide interest subsidy of 4% on loans up to ?1,000 crore on plants and machinery. Further, in case of larger loans, the subsidy would be limited to ?1,000 crore. 5. A fund will be created to provide default guarantee of up to 75% to banks for plant and machine loans of up to ?100 crore. The scheme will be on the pattern of credit guarantee being provided by SIDBI for the SME sector.

Answer 8

1. 100 per cent automatic FDI 2. levy of import duties to protect local manufacturers 3. the Phased Manufacturing Plan (PMP) 4. manufacturing clusters (EMC 2.0) and 5. the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme.

Answer 9

1. initiated by MeitY in 2015, *with the objective of strengthening the domestic manufacture of mobile handsets* 2. It incentivised the manufacture of low value accessories initially, and then moved on to the manufacture of higher value components. 3. This was done by **increasing the basic customs duty on the imports** of these accessories or components. 4. PMP is being rolled out in a phased manner. In the FY (2017-18), the PMP covered the domestic production of mechanical components, die cut parts, microphones and receivers, key pads and USB cables. In 2018-19, it will cover printed circuit board assemblies, camera modules and connectors. In 2019-20, the PMP will provide incentives for local production of display assemblies, touch panels/cover glass assemblies and vibrator motors or ringers.

Answer 10

notified by MoCA rules seek to regulate the production, import, trade, ownership and operation of unmanned aircraft systems or drones. They also create a framework for their use by businesses. * Who can sell drones? Only authorised entities. * Who can own or operate? Entities authorised by the Director General of Civil Aviation. * Permits for flying these also have to be sought online and a log has to be shared after the flight. * Applicability: The norms apply to all existing drones as well. * Exception: Nano-drones weighing 250 grams or less can be operated without a drone pilot license. * Insurance: No unmanned aircraft (UA) system shall be operated in India unless there is in existence a valid third party insurance policy to cover the liability that may arise on account of a mishap. * Rule number 36 and 38 in the Ministry’s draft state that no unmanned aircraft shall carry any payload, unless specified by the Director General of DGCA. Neither shall a person “drop or project or cause or permit to be dropped or projected from a UAS (unmanned aircraft system) in motion anything,” except when specified. * Eligibility: For owning and using a drone, one has to be at least 18 years old. In the case of companies, the requirement is that their main place of business has to be in India and the chairman and at least two thirds of directors have to be Indian citizens. Also, businesses operating drones have to be substantially owned and effectively controlled by Indian nationals.

Answer 11

* CG had in September 2021 approved **a production-linked incentive (PLI)** scheme for drones and drone components with an allocation of Rs 120 crore spread over three financial years. * The ministry had on August 25 notified [**the Drone Rules, 2021**](https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/08/27/indias-new-drone-rules/) that eased the regulation of drone operations in India by reducing the number of forms that need to be filled to operate them from 25 to five and decreasing the types of fees charged from the operator from 72 to four. * The government has banned the import of drones with immediate effect, except for research and development, defence and security purposes. The move aims to promote made in India drones.

Answer 12

* Recently, Drones were used for the first time to drop explosive devices, triggering blasts inside the Air Force Station’s technical area in Jammu. * Over the past two years, drones have been deployed regularly by Pakistan-based outfits to smuggle arms, ammunition and drugs into Indian territory. * According to government figures, 167 drone sightings were recorded along the border with Pakistan in 2019, and in 2020, there were 77 such sightings. * With the rapid proliferation of drone technology and exponential growth of its global market in recent years, the possibility of a drone attack cannot be ruled out even in the safest cities in the world. * Drones are becoming security threats particularly in conflict zones where non-state actors are active and have easy access to the technology.

Answer 13

1. **Digital sky platform** shall be developed as a business-friendly single-window online system. 2. **No flight permission required upto** 400 feet in green zones and upto 200 feet in the area between 8 and 12 km from the airport perimeter. 3. **No pilot licence required for** micro drones (for non-commercial use), nano drone and for R&D organisations. 4. **No restriction on drone operations by foreign-owned companies registered in India.** 5. Import of drones and drone components to be regulated by DGFT. 6. **No security clearance required** before any registration or licence issuance. 7. **No requirement of certificate of airworthiness,** unique identification number, prior permission and remote pilot licence for R&D entities. 8. **Coverage of drones under Drone Rules, 2021 increased from 300 kg to 500 kg.** This will cover drone taxis also. 9. **Issuance of Certificate of Airworthiness** delegated to Quality Council of India and certification entities authorised by it. 10. **Manufacturer may generate their drone’s unique identification number** on the digital sky platform through the self-certification route. 11. **Maximum penalty** under Drone Rules, 2021 reduced to INR 1 lakh. This shall, however, not apply to penalties in respect of violation of other laws. 12. **Drone corridors** will be developed for cargo deliveries. 13. **Drone promotion council** to be set up to facilitate a business-friendly regulatory regime.

Answer 14

1. **Public and private third-party service providers** will manage their movement in the **airspace under 1,000 feet.** 2. The framework **allows third-party service providers to give services** such as registration, flight planning, dynamic deconfliction and access to supplementary data like weather, terrain and position of manned aircraft. 3. Also, **a set of supplementary service providers will also be permitted** under the framework to provide services such as insurance and data analytics to support the UAS (unmanned aircraft system) Traffic Management (UTM) ecosystem. 4. **All drones (except Nano drones operating in the green zone)** shall be required to mandatorily share their real-time location through the network to the Centre either directly or through third-party service providers. 5. **Service providers will be permitted to charge drone operators a service fee** and a small portion of it might have to be shared with **the Airports Authority of India (AAI),** which manages the ATM.

Answer 15

1. Employment Visa: fr highly skilled Individuals intending to take up employment; 5 years/period of contract (Extendable in India) 2. Business Visa: Visiting India for a business purpose; 5 years (Extendable in India) 3. Project visa: For executing projects in the Power and Steel sectors; 1 year or for actual duration of the project/contract 4. “X”/ Entry visa: For accompanying families of foreign nationals; 5 years (Extendable in India) 5. Tourist vias: 30 days (NOT extendablein India) 6. Research Visa: in any field; 5 years (Extendable in India) 7. Transit Visa: Travellers passing through India; 15 days (Not extendable in India) 8. Conference Visa: International seminars/ seminars held by Govt./ PSUs/NGOs 9. Medical Visa: 1yr

Answer 16

Home Ministry

Answer 17

1. Foreign nationals granted any type of visa and Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) cardholders shall not be permitted to engage themselves in Tabligh work. 2. There will be no restriction in visiting religious places and attending normal religious activities like attending religious discourses. 3. However, preaching religious ideologies, making speeches in religious places, distribution of audio or visual display/pamphlets pertaining to religious ideologies, spreading conversion, etc. will not be allowed.

Answer 18

1. A declared foreigner, or DF, is a person marked by any of the 100 Foreigners’ Tribunals (FTs) in Assam for allegedly failing to prove their citizenship after the State police’s Border wing marks him or her as an illegal immigrant. 2. There are a total of 802 declared foreigners in various detention centres of Assam. 3. Some people are declared foreigners on account of poor documentation or poor legal assistance and lack of resources. They have not been able to prove they are Indian citizens. Some are either too poor to pursue their cases in higher courts or have their appeals turned down. 4. 29 declared foreigners have died in detention due to various ailments since 2016, with ten of them having died between March 1, 2019 and February 20 this year. 5. In April this year, amid the coronavirus pandemic, the Supreme Court had directed the release of those detainees who were declared foreigners and have been lodged in the detention centres of Assam for two years or more.The Court had also lowered the personal bond amount from Rs 1 lakh to Rs 5,000.

Answer 19

1. struck down by the Supreme Court of India in 2005 in Sarbananda Sonowal v. UoI citing the low conviction rate as \<0.5% of cases initiated 2. it described the procedures to detect illegal immigrants (from Bangladesh) and expel them from Assam. The Act was pushed through mainly on the grounds that it provided special protections against undue harassment to the “minorities” affected by the Assam Agitation. 3. It was applicable to the state of Assam only whereas in other states, detection of foreigners is done under The Foreigners Act, 1946. 4. Also, under The Foreigners Act, 1946, the burden of proving one's citizenship lies on him rather than the accuser or govt. However, in IMDT, burden rested on accuser and police. 5. It excluded the migrants who entered India before March 25, 1971 from the illegal-migration accusation. And for post-1971 migrants too, the procedure for deporting were tough eg. a ration card couldwork as proof of citizenship

Answer 20

1. is an Act of the Imperial Legislative Assembly enacted to grant the certain powers to the Interim Government of India in matters of foreigners in India. The Act was enacted before India became independent. 2. The Act defines a foreigner as ”a person who is not a citizen of India”. 3. onus of proving whether a person is a foreigner or not, shall lie upon such person 4. ccording to the Foreigners (Report to the police) Order, 2001, made under the Foreigners Act 1946, where any person who has reason to believe that a foreigner has entered India without valid documents or is staying beyond authorized period, it shall be the duty of such a person to inform the nearest police station, within 24 hours of the presence of such foreigner 5. The Foreigners Act empowers the Indian government to detain a person until deportation back to their country of origin

Answer 21

India is the first country in world to develop such a document (ICAP), which addresses cooling requirement across sectors and lists out actions which can help reduce the cooling demand for the next two decades 2017-2037 The overarching goal is to provide sustainable cooling and thermal comfort for all while securing environmental and socio-economic benefits for the society. Need: ICAP predicts no. of room air conditioners to become about 4X in next 10 yrs and 10X in 20yrs, making India world's largest energy user for cooling. Plus, acc to IEA refrigeration and air conditioning (RAC) causes 10% of the global CO2 emissions Goals: * Reduction of cooling demand across sectors by 20% to 25 % by year 2037-38. * Reduction of refrigerant demand by 25% to 30% by year 2037-38. * Reduction of cooling energy requirements by 25% to 40% by year 2037-38. * Training and certification of 100,000 servicing sector technicians by the year 2022-23, in synergy with Skill India Mission. * Recognize “cooling and related areas” as a thrust area of research under the national S&T Programme.

Answer 22

1. T 2. T; Export and re-import of jewellery as per Trade Policy of Government of India — Jewellery for international exhibitions, jewellery for government-approved B2B domestic exhibitions; watches, fountain pens and special types of jewellery such as Kundan, Polki and Jadau 3. F; as of June 2021, only in 256 districts across the country 4. T; Jewellers with annual turnover up to Rs 40 lakh will be exempted from mandatory hallmarking.

Answer 23

government, through a notification issued on June 14, 2018, notified two categories—gold jewellery and gold artefacts; and silver jewellery and silver artefacts—under the purview of hallmarking. Need: India is the biggest consumer of gold. However,according to the ministry, at present, only 30% of Indian gold jewellery is hallmarked. as of June 2021. it is being implemented in a phased manner- in 256 districts, for all gold and silver jewelleries and artifacts save some categories and to all jewellers above 40L annual turnover. As per BIS standards, there are three categories of hallmarking based on purity of gold—22 carat, 18 carat and 14 carat. However, in june 2021, ministry announced that “Gold of Additional carats 20, 23 and 24 will also be allowed for Hallmarking.”

Answer 24

covered in GS-3 social media

Answer 25

1. a cooperative is an autonomous association of persons united voluntarily to meet their common socio-economic and cultural needs through a jointly owned and democratically controlled enterprise 2. The origin of the cooperative movement in India can be traced back to 1904 but it became effective around 1950. 3. The cooperatives in India range from financial to non-financial institutions. 4. In India there are 8.5 lakh cooperative credit societies with a total membership exceeding 28 crores. There are 55 types of cooperative societies that function in our country, 7-8 of them are the most significant ones: Primary milk cooperative societies (~1.5L), PACS (~1L), Credit Cooperative societies,Fisheries Cooperative societies, weavers cooperative societies, HOusing cooperative societies 5. Cooperatives form an integral part of rural credit. PACSs) formed by farmer associations are the best example of grassroots-level credit flow

Answer 26

1. board structure: lack of reprresentation or accountability 2. corruption: role of urban coop banks during monetisation 3. coop banks in rural sector is based on income pattern of 50 yrs ago when farming income was the major source of rural income. But now farming income forms only 35% of rurla income.This change requires a new financing structure 4. In milk cooperatives, the growth is not uniform and is usually limited to state sin western India 5. State laws vary widely and need to be upgraded 6. lack of aaccess to capital 7. women cooperatives form less than 3% of \>8L cooperatives in India

Answer 27

1. cooperation is in concurrent list 2. The 97th CAA, 2011 * added a new Part IXB right after Part IXA (Municipals) regarding the cooperatives working in India. * The word “cooperatives” was added after “unions and associations” in Article 19(1)(c) under Part III of the Constitution. This enables all the citizens to form cooperatives by giving it the status of fundamental right of citizens. * A new Article 43B was added in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) regarding the “promotion of cooperative societies”. 3. A majority of the cooperative societies are governed by laws in their respective states, with a Cooperation Commissioner and the Registrar of Societies as their governing office. 4. In 2002, the Centre passed a Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act that allowed for registration of societies with operations in more than one state. These are mostly banks, dairies and sugar mills. The Central Registrar of Societies is their controlling authority, but on the ground the State Registrar takes actions on his behalf.

Answer 28

1) National Indicator Framework (NIF) consisting of 306 statistical indictors has been prepared by MoSPI and will be dependent on a statistical system for flow of information 2) NIF will be the backbone of monitoring of SDGs at the national level and will give appropriate direction to the policy makers and the implementers of various schemes and programmes. 3) framework consists of nationally defined indicators responding to national priorities and needs. 4) Data sources and periodicity included. 5) High Level Steering Committee (HLSC) to periodically review and refinement of National Indicator Framework for monitoring SDGs.

Answer 29

1) official data shows, abt 2/3rd of LSMPsyet to select GPs under Phase-4 of the scheme 2) Phase-1: 703 MPs adopted GPs;Phase-2; 497;Phase-3: 301; Phase-4: only 252 as of dec 2019 3) All phases, together, hv covered only ~1750 GPs, way below expected figure 4) Nov 2019, a standing committee of Parliament also raised red-flag regarding efficacy of SAGY, and suggested DoRD to ensure that SAGY villages aren't left behind

Answer 30

1. Launched in 2014, it is a village development project under which **each MP** will take the responsibility of developing **physical and institutional infra**structure in **three villages by 2019.** 2. **goal is to develop three** Adarsh Grams or model villages **by March 2019**, of which **one** would be achieved **by 2016**. **Thereafter, five** such Adarsh Grams (one per year) will be selected and developed by 2024. 3. launched on the occasion of **birth anniversary of** Lok Nayak Jai Prakash Narayan. 4. scheme will be implemented through a **village development plan** that would be prepared for every identified GP with **special focus on poverty alleviation** 5. **MPLADS** can be used fr critical financing gaps; **NO SEPARATE FUNDING** PROVISION 6. **planning** process in each village will be a **participatory** exercise, coordinated by **Collector** with the MP playing an active role in this exercise. **District Collector will be the nodal officer** fr implementation of SAGY, while the MP will chair the monthly review meetings. 7. Adoption and adaptation of **technology and innovations** incl space app, remote sensing, mobile based tech fr monitoring , etc. 8. At **state level** there will be an **Empowered Committee headed by the Chief Secretary** consisting of the relevant Departments and including experts, as required with at least two Civil Society representatives. 9. Focus on **community participation** and social mobilization. 10. **AS of Dec 2019, Out of the total 790, only 252 MPs** have adopted GPs under phase-4 of SAGY. Since the launch of SAGY, **only 1750GPs** hv been selected across four phases,way below expected.

Answer 31

1. a **network of research & academic institutions working in the area of food & nutrition**. 2. It would comprise of **eight groups of institutions working in different areas** viz. biological, chemical, nutrition & labelling, food of animal origin, food of plant origin, water & beverages, food testing, and safer & sustainable packaging. 3. **FSSAI has identified eight Nodal Institutions** who **would develop a ‘Ready Reckoner’ that will have inventory of all research work**, experts and institutions and would carry out and facilitate research, survey and related activities. 4. It **would identify research gaps** in respective areas and collect, collate and develop database on food safety issues for risk assessment activities.

Answer 32

1. approved by PJ cabinet 2. aims to ensure EoDB fr MSMEs 3. Under the law, an MSME unit can be set up after ‘In-Principle’ approval from the District Bureau of Enterprise, headed by the Deputy Commissioner, working under the guidance of the State Nodal Agency 4. Approval for units in approved Industrial Parks will be given in three working days. For outside approved Industrial Parks, within 15 working days. 5. Unit owners will have three and a half years after setting up the unit to obtain seven approvals from three departments

Answer 33

1. Implemented by **NITI Aayog**. 2. **Aim**: To achieve **transformational**, sustained delivery of **infrastructure** projects with **state of art capacity** disseminated **at all levels of governance.** 3. The **key objective**: Creating **PPP success stories** and **rebooting infra**structure **project delivery models** so a **sustainable infrastructure creation cycle** is established. 4. How it works? The DSSS Infrastructure initiative **involves providing project level support from Concept plan till financial closure** to SGs/UTs

Answer 34

1. Centre likely to tighten its Drone regulations after two major global attacks involving unmanned aircraft systems- in Saudi A refineries and killing ofIran's Gen Qassem Soleimaani 1. 'Digital Sky platform': a live platform for regtn of manufactureres and operators of drones (micro and above categories). So far has issued UINs to 2 Mumbai basedcompanies 2. 'National counter Rogue Drone guidelines': seeks to lay down measures to be deployed in response to threats to vital installations frmunmanned aircraft systems, will be expedited 3. India has a 'No Permission No Takeoff (NPNT) policy' for aerial unmanned objects (AUO) 4. Pilot also needs certification, requiring a remote piloting licence or an Unmanned Aerial Operator Permit 5. Aug 18': first set of regulations on use of drones: -\> classified otbo total weight with cargo and fuel: nano(250g), micro(0.25-2kg), small(2-25kg), medium(25-150kg) and large(\>150kg) -\> ops limited to line-of-sight -\> Red , Yellow(requires air defence clearance or air traffic clearance) and Green zones(need clearance frm Digital Sky platform.) 6. Jan19' : A white paper on Drone policy 2.0, for wider application of drones like delivery of goods beyond visual range of ops 7. Subsequently, DGCA floated an expression of interest for conducting experimental BVLOS ops

Answer 35

1. **India is going to be possibly the first country in the world to implement a SSR policy on lines of CSR.** 2. draft of the new policy by **Deptt of S&T** 3. obj: * encourage S&T institutions and individuals to proactively engage in science outreach activities to connect science with the society. * To harness latent potential of the scientific community for making S&T ecosystem vibrant. 4. Key highlights: * Under the proposed policy, individual scientists or knowledge workers will be required to **devote at least 10 person-days of SSR per year for exchanging scientific knowledge to society.** * It also recognises the need to provide **incentives** for outreach activitieswith necessary **budgetary support.** * It has also been proposed to give credit to knowledge workers/scientists for individual SSR activities in their annual performance **appraisal and evaluation.** * **No institution would be allowed to outsource** or sub-contract their SSR activities and projects. * **A central agency will be established at DST to implement** the SSR. Other ministries would also be encouraged to make their own plans to implement SSR as per their mandate.

Answer 36

1. Three categories of common land in Punjab villages are: * ‘Shamlat’ land is owned by the village panchayat. * ‘Jumla mushtraka malkan’ is land in a common pool made with villagers’ personal contributions, and is managed by the panchayat. * ‘Gau charan’, too belongs to the panchayat, and is for cattle grazing. 2. Shamlat land is mainly used for cultivation, and is allotted for this through an open auction that is conducted by the Rural Development and Panchayat Department every year. 3. recently PJ cabinet approved amendment to the Village Common Land (Regulation) Rules, 1964, allowing panchayats to sell shamlat land to industrial houses, entrepreneurs, businessmen, and companies for setting up MSMEs. 4. However this move is protested by many. One-third of Punjab’s shamlat lands are reserved for Dalits. Around 25,000 to 26,000 families in the state, mostly Dalits, depend on this land for their livelihood. They fear unemployment because of this amendment

Answer 37

1. Rules in this regard have been issued by the government in **2017**. They aim at preventing disruptive behaviour by air travellers and lay down guidelines for a no-fly list. 2. As per the rules, a **complaint** of unruly behaviour needs to be **filed by the pilot-in-command**, and this is to be **probed by an internal committee to be set up by the airline.** 3. During the period of pendency of the inquiry, the rules empower the concerned **airline to impose a ban on the passenger.** 4. The committee is to decide the matter **within 30 days**, and also specify the ban duration. * The internal committee is to consist of a **retired district and sessions judge** as Chairman, along with a **representative from a different scheduled airline** and a **representative from a passengers association** or consumer association * The decision of the committee shall be **binding** on the airline concerned. In case the committee **fails to take a decision in 30 days**, the passenger will be free to fly. 5. Any aggrieved person, upon receipt of communication of a ban from the airline, **may appeal within 60 days** from the date of issue of the order, to an **Appellate Committee, constituted by MoCA**. It shall consist of a retired judge of a High Court as Chairman; a representative from a passengers’ association or a consumer association; and an airlines representative not below the rank of vice-president or equivalent. 6. The **decision of the appellate committee shall be final** and that any further appeal shall lie in a **High Court.** 7. The rules define three categories of unruly behaviour: * **Level 1** refers to behaviour that is **verbally unruly, and calls for debarment up to three months.** * **Level 2** indicates **physical unruliness** and can lead to the passenger being debarred from flying for up to **six months.** * **Level 3** indicates **life-threatening behaviour** for which the debarment would be for a minimum of **two years.**

Answer 38

1. Core strategy: Convergence (of Central & State Schemes), Collaboration (of Central, State level ‘Prabhari’ Officers & District Collectors), and Competition among districts. 2. States as main drivers, this programme will focus on the strength of each district, identify low-hanging fruits for immediate improvement, measure progress, and rank districts. 3. selection of districts: 115 districts identified, at least one frm each state, in a transparent manner, using a composite index of key data sets that included deprivation enumerated under the SECC, key health and education sector performance and state of basic infrastr. 4. NITI Aayog anchors the programme with support from Central Ministries and the SGs 5. NITI Aayog steers in 30 districts, 35 LWE districts by MHA and 50 other by various ministeries 6. Officers at the level of Joint Secretary / Additional Secretary have been nominated to become the ‘Central Prabhari Officers’ of each district 7. Core areas of focus: Health & Nutrition, Education, Agriculture & Water Resources, Financial Inclusion & Skill Development, and Basic Infrastructure 8. 49 key performance indicators have been chosen to measure progress of the districts. 9. Districts are aspiring to first catch-up with the best district within their State, and subsequently aspire to become one of the best in the country, by competing with, and learning from others in the spirit of competitive & cooperative federalism. 10. NITI Aayog published annual rankings , whose methodology is given in next slide.

Answer 39

1. bjective of the program is to **monitor the real-time progress** based on 49 indicators frm 5 thematic areas 2. Niti Aayog subsequently calculates the ‘distance to frontier’ – i.e. the distance of each district from the state’s and nation’s best. 3. Sectors: * Health and Nutrition (30%): 13 indiators like antenatal care, postnatal care, gender parity, health of new - borns, growth of children, contagious diseases, and health infrastructure. * Education (30%): 8 indicators covering learning outcome, infrastr and institutionla (eg. RTE manated pupil-teacher ratio) * Agri and water resources (20%): 10 indicators covering o/p, i/p and institutional support * Basic infrastr (10%): 7 indicators like availability of HH latrines, DW, electricity, GPs with CSCs etc. * Fin inclusion and Skill Development (10%): 6 indicators fr former and 5 in latter

Answer 40

1. types of arbitration in India 2. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and 2015 amendments 3. 2021 arbitration amendment bill 4. BN Srikrishna Committee recommendations 5. SC judgement in Amazon vs Future Retail case, 2021

Answer 41

1. Ad-Hoc Arbitration: a procedure of arbitration where a tribunal will conduct arbitration between the parties, following the rules which have been agreed by the parties beforehand or by following the rules which have been laid down by the tribunal, in case the parties do not have any agreement between them. * benefits * greater control over the process * flexibility * cost-effectiveness * issues: * tend to be protracted and costly in some cases in the absence of monitoring * only effective when both parties are cooperative 2. Institutional Arbitration: arbitration by an institution in accordance with its rules of procedure. The institution provides appointment of arbitrators, case management services including oversight of the arbitral process, venues for holding hearings, etc. * Presently there are over 35 arbitral institutions in India, which are domestic, international arbitral institutions, arbitration facilities by PSUs, trade and merchant associations, and city-specific chambers of commerce and industry. Many have their own rules and some follow the arbitration rules of the UNCITRAL.

Answer 42

1. applicability 1. 1996: Provisions only applied to matters where the place of arbitration was India. 2. 2015: Provisions also apply to international commercial arbitrations i.e. even if the place of arbitration is outside India 2. power of court to refer 1. 1996: If any matter is the subject of an arbitration agreement, parties will be referred to the arbitration 2. 2015: Court must refer the parties to arbitration unless it thinks that a valid arbitration agreement does not exist 3. interim order by court 1. 1996:Party to arbitration may apply to a court for interim relief before the arbitration is complete 2. 2015: proceedings must commence within 90 days from the making of the order. Further, the Court must not accept such an application, unless it thinks that the arbitral tribunal will not be able to provide a similar remedy. 4. courts can set aside an arbitral award if it is in coflict with the public policy of India. 2015 amendment expanded grounds for setting aside to fundamental policy of INdian Law and notions of morality or justice 5. appointment of arbitrators: 1. 1996: Parties to appoint arbitrators. If they are unable to appoint arbitrators within 30 days, the matter is referred to the court to make such appointments. 2. 2015: Court to confine itself to the examination of the existence of a valid arbitration agreement. 6. time period for arbitral awards: 1. 1996: no such time limit imposed 2. 2015;: within 12 months. This may be extended by a six month period. If an award is made within six months, the arbitral tribunal will receive additional fees. If it is delayed beyond the specified time because of the arbitral tribunal, the fees of the arbitrator will be reduced 7. time period for disposal of cases by court after award is presented before the court: 2015 adds the time limit of 1 yr for this purpose 8. 2015 amendment permits parties to choose to conduct arbitration proceedings in a fast track manner. The award would be granted within six months

Answer 43

1. wrt cases where the arbitration agreement or contract is induced by fraud r corruption * Seeks to ensure that stakeholder parties can seek an unconditional stay on enforcement of arbitral awards in such cases * Added a proviso in Section 36 of the Arbitration Act and will come into effect retrospectively from October 23, 2015. As per this amendment, if the Court is satisfied that a prima facie case is made out that the arbitration agreement or contract which is the basis of the award was induced or effected by fraud or corruption, it will stay the award unconditionally pending disposal of the challenge made to the award under Section 34. 2. does away with the 8th Schedule of the Act that contained the necessary qualifications for accreditation of arbitrators.

Answer 44

1. Set up an autonomous body, styled the Arbitration Promotion Council of India (APCI) with powers to recognize professional institutes providing for accreditation of arbitrators, hold training workshops and create a specialist arbitration bar 2. Creation of a specialist Arbitration Bench to deal with such commercial disputes, in the domain of the Courts. 3. Changes suggested in various provisions of the 2015 Amendments of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act with a view to making arbitration speedier and more efficacious and incorporate international best practices (immunity to arbitrators, confidentiality of arbitral proceedings, etc.). 4. the National Litigation Policy (NLP) must promote arbitration in government contracts. 5. the ICADR as an Institution of national importance and takeover of the institution by a statute as revamped ICADR has the potential be a globally competitive institution. * International Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution (ICADR) was established in 1995 for the promotion and development of ADR facilities and techniques to facilitate early resolution of disputes 6. India presently involved in 20-odd BIT disputes.In regards to these, * Create an Inter-Ministe * rial Committee (IMC) constituting officials from Ministries of finance, external affairs and law.Hire external lawyers having expertise in BIT alog with designated fud to fight BIT claims. * Create a post of international law adviser – responsible for day-to-day management of BIT arbitration. * Consider the possibility of establishing a BIT appellate mechanism and a multilateral investment court.

Answer 45

On the question of whether an emergency arbitrator’s award can be said to be within the contemplation of the Arbitration Act. Holding that such as award can be within the Arbitration Act, the court said such orders were an “important step in aid of decongesting the civil courts” and providing quick interim relief to parties in the arbitration.

Answer 46

To speed up dispute resolution, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced the setting up of an international arbitration centre at GIFT City. ● The Centre could be on the lines of the Singapore International Arbitration Centre, or the London Commercial Arbitration Centre. What is an IFSC? An IFSC caters to customers outside the jurisdiction of the domestic economy. ● Such centres deal with flows of finance, financial products and services across borders. Currently, GIFT-IFSC is the maiden international financial services centre in India. Regulation: ● The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA), headquartered at GIFT City, Gandhinagar Gujarat, has been established under the **International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019**. ● It works as a **unified authority for the development and regulation of financial products, financial services and financial institutions in the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC)** in India. Services an IFSC can provide: ● **Fund-raising** services for individuals, corporations and governments. ● **Asset management and global portfolio diversification** undertaken **by pension funds, insurance companies and mutual funds**. ● **Wealth management.** ● **Global tax management and cross-border tax liability optimization**, which provides a business opportunity for financial intermediaries, accountants and law firms. ● **Global and regional corporate treasury management operations** that involve fund-raising, liquidity investment and management and asset-liability matching. ● **Risk management operations such as insurance** and reinsurance. ● **Merger and acquisition activities** among trans-national corporations

Answer 47

***The bill seeks to setup an authority-*** The ***International Financial Services Centres Authority.*** ***Management of the Authority:*** Consisting of a Chairperson, one Member each to be nominated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI), the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) and the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), two members to be dominated by the Central Government and two other whole-time or full-time or part-time members. ***Functions of the Authority:*** * Regulate all such financial services, financial products and FIs in an IFSC which has already been permitted by the Financial Sector Regulators for IFSCs. * Regulate such other financial products, financial services or FIs as may be notified by the Central Government from time to time. * Recommend to the Central Government such other financial products, financial services and financial institutions which may be permitted in the IFSCs. ***Powers of the Authority:*** All powers exercisable by the respective financial sector regulatory (viz. RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, and PFRDA etc.) under the respective Acts shall be solely exercised by the Authority in the IFSCs in so far as the regulation of financial products, financial services and FIs that are permitted in the IFSC are concerned. ***Who is covered?*** The Bill will be ***applicable to all International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) set up under the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005.*** The first IFSC in India has been ***set up at the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) in Gandhinagar.*** ***Need for and the benefits of a unified authority:*** * ***Multiple regulators:*** Currently, the banking, capital markets and insurance sectors in IFSC are regulated by multiple regulators, i.e. RBI, SEBI and IRDAI. * The dynamic nature of business in the IFSCs necessitates a high degree of ***inter-regulatory coordination.*** It also requires regular clarifications and frequent amendments in the existing regulations governing financial activities in IFSCs. * The development of financial services and products in IFSCs would require ***focussed and dedicated regulatory interventions.*** Therefore, a unified financial regulator for IFSCs in India would provide world class regulatory environment to financial market participants. This also ***essential from an ease of doing business perspective.***

Answer 48

The SEZ Act 2005 allows setting up an IFSC in an SEZ or as an SEZ after approval from the central government

Answer 49

Labour is in concurrent list, before the new labour codes were passed, there were more than 40 central laws and more than 100 state laws on labour and related matters. The Second National Commission on Labour (2002) recommended that the central labour laws should be integrated into groups like: Industrial relations; Wages; Social security; Safety; and Welfare and working conditions CG consolidated 29 central laws into four codes * Code on Wages * Industrial Relations Code * Social Security Code * Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code All these were passed by Sept 2020

Answer 50

consolidates 13 labour laws relating to safety, health and working conditions including the Factories Act, 1948, the Mines Act, 1952, and the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970.

Answer 51

Definitions * Code expands the definition of a factory as a premise where at least 20 workers work for a process with power and 40 workers for a process without power * defines contract labour as a worker deemed to be employed in/in connection with an establishment through a contractor without having the knowledge of the principal employer * defines an inter-state migrant worker as someone who has come on his/her own from one state and received employment in another state and earns up to Rs.18000 per month Covers * organisations/establishments employing at least 10 workers, and to all mines and docks. * cover both employees and workers. Does not cover * does not apply to apprentices, or to offices of the central or state governments.

Answer 52

1) Apart from prescribing health and safety provisions that apply to all organisations special provisions for different types of organisations (such as factories and mines) and workers (such as beedi and cigar workers) eg. factories are required to get a license in addition to registering under the general provisions of the Code. 2) OSH Code removes the manpower limit on hazardous working conditions and makes the application of the Code obligatory for contractors recruiting 50 or more workers (earlier it was 20) 3) Similarly, the Code requires certain contractors to get licenses before hiring any contract labour. 4) Further, audio-visual workers can be hired after an agreement with employers registered with a govt autho. 5) factories obligation to notify authorities in case of an accident at the workplace that leads to death or serious bodily injury 6) To encourage formalisation in employment, the employer is required to issue an appointment letter. 7) Portability benefits for inter-state migrant workers: They can avail benefits in the destination state as regards ration and benefits of building and other construction worker cess.

Answer 53

1) Code fixes the daily work hour limit to a maximum of eight hours 2) Code permits female workers to work past 7 pm and before 6 am with their consent and the approval of the government. 3) Overtime work must be paid twice the rate of daily wages.

Answer 54

1) hygienic work environment with: (i) ventilation, (ii) comfortable temperature, (iii) sufficient space, (iv) clean drinking water, and (v) latrine and urinal accommodations. 2) government may specify certain other facilities such as, canteens, first aid boxes, and crèches that an employer must provide for. shift from the current legislation which provides for welfare facilities like canteens and crèches, in the law itself

Answer 55

1) Code states that no employee can be made to work for more than six days a week. exceptions could be provided for motor transport workers. 2) Annually, workers must receive one day off for every 20 days they have worked. 3) While calculating annual leave, maternity leave and periods of lay off will be counted as days spent on duty.

Answer 56

requires central and state governments to set up Occupational Safety and Health Advisory Boards: five rep for employers, five reps of employees, and five reputed persons from the fields related to occupational health and safety

Answer 57

1) Women: government can prohibit employment of women in certain organisations if working there may be dangerous to their health and safety. allows female workers to work night shifts with their consent and subject to approval of the government. 2) acknowledges transgender persons as a third gender by requiring separate urinal and latrine accommodations, rest rooms, washing spaces, and locker rooms for male, female, and transgender workers.

Answer 58

1. **shrinkage of the net for the inclusion of workers**: While the ISMA (one of the laws subsumed under OSH code) applied to establishments that employed 5 or more workers, the chapter on inter-state migrants applies to establishments that employ 10 or more workers. According to the Economic Census of 2016, establishments employing 10 or more workers accounted for only 1.66 per cent of the total establishments in the non-agricultural sector. Similarly, while the CLA applied to establishments that hired 20 or more contract workers, the Chapter on Contract Labour only applies to establishments hiring 50 or more workers. 2. **definition of migrant workers**: the Code also **introduces income as a criterion** for defining migrant workers by excluding those who earn more than Rs 18,000 from the scope of its protection. The rationale behind this income-based distinction is unclear and misses the point of vulnerability not necessarily being linked to earnings. 3. the OSH Code misses the opportunity to expand protection to **intra-state migrant workers**. The Census 2011 tells us that **88 per cent** of internal migration in India constituted movement within state boundaries. 4. OSH Code does away with the obligation of a contractor to pay inter-state migrant workers a **displacement allowance**. While it was there in the 2019 version of the bill, it was removed for the act. Displacement allowance was an important form of income support for workers who were always on the move for work. 5. OSH Code moves away from a critical principle of administrative law which requires that core policy positions must be reflected in the parent legislation and not in delegated legislation such as rules or regulations. under the OSH Code, the **duties of contractors are left to be prescribed by rules**. Each state can now whittle down the duties of contractors in the name of “ease of doing business”. This is a legitimate concern given the race to the bottom among states particularly wrt labour laws.

Answer 59

1. code proposes to **amalgamate** 1. The Trade Unions Act, 1926, 2. The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, and 3. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. 2. It is the **third out of four labour codes** 3. provisions: 1. Seeks to **allow** companies to hire workers on **fixed-term contract** of **any duration**. 2. Has **retained the threshold** on the worker count at **100** for **prior** **govt** **approval** before **retrenchment**, but it has a **provision for changing ‘such number of employees’ through notification**. 3. Provides setting up of a **two-member tribunal** (in place of one member) wherein **important** **cases** will be adjudicated jointly and the **rest by a single member**, resulting speedier disposal of cases. 4. Has vested **powers with the government officers** for adjudication of **disputes involving penalty** as fines. 5. Introduces a feature of **‘recognition of negotiating union’** under which a trade union will be recognized as **sole ‘negotiating union’** if it has the support of **75%** or more of the workers on the rolls of an establishment. 6. As several trade unions are active in companies (any \<75% support), a **negotiating council** will be constituted for negotiation. 7. Underlines that **fixed-term employees** will get **all statutory benefits** on a **par with the regular** employees who are doing work of the same or similar nature. 8. Under the code, **termination** of service of a worker **on completion of tenure** in a fixed-term employment will **not** be considered as **retrenchment**. 9. Proposes setting up of a **“re-skilling fund” for training of retrenched** employees. The retrenched employee would be **paid 15 days’ wages from the fund within 45 days** of retrenchment.

Answer 60

1. Coverage: **apply to all employees**. The central government will make wage-related decisions for employments such as railways, mines, and oil fields, among others. State governments will make decisions for all other employments. 2. Wages include salary, allowance, or any other component expressed in monetary terms. This does not include bonus payable to employees or any travelling allowance, among others. 3. **Floor wage**:According to the Code, the central government will fix a floor wage, taking into account living standards of workers. Further, it may set different floor wages for different geographical areas. the central government may obtain the advice of the Central Advisory Board and may consult with state governments. * This law mandates a universal minimum payment of ₹178 a day. * The wage prescribed is less than half the ₹375 a day recommended by a high-powered labour ministry panel. * It is also miles away from the ₹700 fair wage that the 7th Central Pay Commission had arrived at. * Need: **According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey 2017-18, 45% of regular workers (those who are in the relatively stable, formal sector) are paid less than the minimum wage.** 4. The **minimum wages decided by the central/state govts must be higher than the floor wage**. In case the existing minimum wages are higher than the floor wage, they cannot reduce them 5. Payment of wages:Wages will be paid in (i) coins, (ii) currency notes, (iii) by cheque, (iv) by crediting to the bank account, or (v) through electronic mode. The wage period will be fixed by the employer as either: (i) daily, (ii) weekly, (iii) fortnightly, or (iv) monthly. 6. Deductions: Under the Code, an employee’s wages may be deducted on certain grounds. These deductions should not exceed 50% of the employee’s total wage. 7. Gender discrimination: prohibits gender discrimination in wages and recruitment 8. Advisory boards: The central and state governments will constitute advisory boards. The Central Advisory Board will consist of: (i) employers, (ii) employees (in equal number as employers), (iii) independent persons, and (iv) five representatives of state governments. State Advisory Boards will consist of employers, employees, and independent persons. 9. Further, one-third of the total members on both the central and state Boards will be women. 10. Overtime at least 2X normal wage

Answer 61

1. Payment of Wages Act, 1936 2. the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 3. the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 4. the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976

Answer 62

1. effectively reduce the number of minimum wage rates across the country to 300 from about 2,500 minimum wage 2. will remove the multiplicity of definitions and authorities, leading to ease of compliance 3. provide for an appellate authority between the claim authority and the judicial forum which will lead to speedy, cheaper and efficient redressal of grievances LIMITATIONS 1. The wage prescribed (178 Rs/day) is less than half the ₹375 a day recommended by a high-powered labour ministry panel or the ₹700 fair wage that the 7th Central Pay Commission had arrived at 2. Compliance: According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey 2017-18, 45% of regular workers (those who are in the relatively stable, formal sector) are paid less than the minimum wage. 3. 50% of the workforce is self-employed. Nearly 30% work on a causal basis, approaching the labour market in bursts and spurts. The new code therefore will actually only work for 20% of the total workforce. Even within this, more than half belong to very small enterprises that hire between one and five people. Making these tiny enterprises comply with new laws is, in any case, a tall order.

Answer 63

1. The definition of employees has been widened to include inter-state migrant workers, construction workers, film industry workers and platform workers. 2. The gratuity period for working journalists has been reduced from 5 years to 3 years. 3. The Code talks about setting up social security funds for unorganized workers, platform workers, and gig workers. 4. There is a provision for the central government to decrease or defer the employer’s or employee’s contribution towards the PF or ESI for up to 3 months in the event of a pandemic, national disaster or an epidemic. 5. The Code proposes the establishment of a National Social Security Board for recommending to the central government the formulation of schemes for the various sections of unorganised, gig and platform workers.

Answer 64

* FM has launched Rs 250 crore worth Alternative Investment Fund for export-oriented MSMEs * obj: To Identify Indian enterprises with potential advantages by way of technology, products or processes along with export potential, but which are currently underperforming or unable to tap their latent potential to grow. * Key Features: * Fund has been set up by Exim Bank and SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India). * The fund is a mix of structured support, both financial and advisory services. * It will also have a Greenshoe Option of Rs 250 crore. (*It is an over-allotment option. In the context of an initial public offering (IPO), it is a provision in an underwriting agreement that grants the underwriter the right to sell investors more shares than initially planned by the issuer if the demand for a security issue proves higher than expected*) * The Fund covers potential companies, across various sectors such as pharma, auto components, engineering solutions, agriculture, and software etc.

Answer 65

* **spectrum related reforms:** * Spectrum auctions will be normally held in the last quarter of every financial year. A fixed calender for auctions will obviate the need for bank guarantees * future spectrum auctions will be done for a period of 30 years instead of the current 20 years. * A telco will be allowed to surrender its spectrum after completing a 10-year lock-in period from the date of purchase. * Spectrum sharing is being encouraged and the additional SUC (Spectrum Usage Charges) of 0.5% for spectrum sharing is removed. * **AGR Rationalization** AGR was previously interpreted as being based on all revenue, rather than just that associated with a company’s core telecom business. Telecom companies will now have to pay a pre-fixed percentage of AGR (excluding non-telecom revenues) to the government as statutory levies but this will apply prospectively. **Moratorium on AGR Dues** * earlier definition of AGR, backed by the Telecom Department and upheld by the Supreme Court in 2019, had made telcos liable to pay Rs. 1.6 lakh crore. * led to the losses of business to telecom companies like Vodafone and established a duopoly (reliance Jio and Bharti Airtel). * to revive the telecom sector, a four-year moratorium on all spectrum and AGR dues has been approved. * However, those TSPs opting for the moratorium will be required to pay interest on the amount availed under the benefit. * Further, Telecos can opt for converting the interest amt pertaining to the moratorium period into equity * Moratorium on AGR dues provides annual cash flow respite of 14000 Cr while that on spectrum dues gives another 32000 Cr of annual cash flow relief for the industry as a whole **INterest rates rationalized and Penalties removed**: interest which is compounded monthly on the Spectrum Usage Charges (SUC) will now be compounded annually and also the interest rate will be lowered, based on MCLR + 2% instead of MCLR + 4%. **FDI in the sector has also been allowed up to 100%** under the automatic route, from the existing limit of 49%.

Answer 66

* It is a document required by non- natives to visit or stay in a state that is protected under the ILP system. * At present, four Northeastern states are covered, namely, **Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur (added in 2020) and Nagaland.** [**Inner line permit**](https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j&url=https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/02/inner-line-permit-ilp-2/&ved=2ahUKEwjpo8idhLDzAhUxIbcAHSl_BjUQFnoECAcQAQ&usg=AOvVaw3aDhrmXK0MBbHxh3pGxDA4) is also mandatory for entering into **Lakshadweep. Was also required in Leh for some time** * Both the duration of stay and the areas allowed to be accessed for any non native are determined by the ILP. * The ILP is issued by the concerned state government and can be availed both by applying online or in person. * An ILP is **only valid for domestic tourists.** * **ILP** is an extension of [**the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act 1873**](https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j&url=https://www.insightsonindia.com/tag/the-bengal-eastern-frontier-regulation-act-of-1873/&ved=2ahUKEwiC4c68hLDzAhVc7XMBHT95BNsQFnoECAkQAQ&usg=AOvVaw365iSal452SzYp1dCZWeZq)**.** After the British occupied the Northeast, the colonisers started exploiting the region and its resources for economic benefits. They first started tea plantations and oil industries in Brahmaputra Valley. * The indigenous tribes living in the hill areas would regularly conduct raids into the plains to loot and plunder, marauding the tea gardens, oil rigs and trading posts set up by the British East India Company. * It was in this context that the BEFR 1873 was promulgated.

Answer 67

The Foreigners (Protected Areas) Order 1958 stipulates that a Protected Area Permit (PAP) is required for foreigners to visit certain areas of Northeast India. Indian citizens who are not residents of these areas need an Inner Line Permit (ILP) to enter these places.

Answer 68

* JJM envisages supply of **55 litres of water per person per day to every rural household** through **Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2024.** * It is under **the Ministry of Jal Shakti.** * It was launched in 2019. * features: 1. Functionality of existing water supply systems and water connections. 2. Water quality monitoring and testing as well as sustainable agriculture. 3. Conjunctive use of conserved water. 4. Drinking water source augmentation. 5. Drinking water supply system, grey water treatment and its reuse. 6. Prioritizing provision of FHTCs in quality affected areas, villages in drought prone and desert areas, Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) villages, etc. 7. Providing functional tap connection to Schools, Anganwadi centres, Gram Panchayat buildings, Health centres, wellness centres and community buildings. 8. Technological interventions for removal of contaminants where water quality is an issue. * Mission is based on **a community approach and** looks to create **a jan andolan for water** * The fund sharing pattern between the Centre and states is 90:10 for Himalayan and North-Eastern States, 50:50 for other states, and 100% for Union Territories. * Performance: As on date, tap water supply has been provided in 772,000 (76 per cent) schools and 748,000 (67.5 per cent) anganwadi centres.

Answer 69

Launched in 2019. Nodal Agency: Ministry of Jal Shakti ● Aim: To provide piped drinking water to every rural home by 2024 ● It is a component of the government’s Jal Jivan Mission. Implementation: ● The scheme is based on a unique model where paani samitis (water committee) comprising villagers will decide what they will pay for the water they consume. ● The tariff they fix will not be the same for everyone in the village. Those who have large households will pay more, while poor households or households where there is no earning member, will be exempted. Need for: ● According to a 2018 NITI Aayog report, 600 million Indians face high to extreme water stress and about two lakh people die every year due to inadequate access to safe water. ● By 2030, the country’s water demand is projected to be twice the available supply, implying severe water scarcity for hundreds of millions of people and an eventual ~6% loss in the country’s GDP. ● Studies also show that 84% of rural homes have no access to piped water, with more than 70% of the country’s water contaminated.

Answer 70

* **Establishment of state level regulatory authorities- RERA:** The Act provides for SGs to establish more than one regulatory authority with the following mandate: * Register and maintain a database of real estate projects; publish it on its website for public viewing, * Protection of interest of promoters, buyers and real estate agents * Development of sustainable and affordable housing, * Render advice to the govt and ensure compliance with its Regulations and the Act. * A requirement for developers to now register projects with RERA prior to any advertisement and sale. * **Establishment of Real Estate Appellate Tribunal-** Decisions of RERAs can be appealed in these tribunals. * **Mandatory Registration:** All projects with **plot size of minimum 500 sq.mt or eight apartments** need to be registered with Regulatory Authorities. * **Deposits:** Depositing 70% of the funds collected from buyers in a separate escrow bank account for construction of that project only. * **Liability:** Developer’s liability to repair structural defects for five years. * **Penal interest in case of default:** Both promoter and buyer are liable to pay an equal rate of interest in case of any default from either side. * **Cap on Advance Payments:** A promoter cannot accept more than 10% of the cost of the plot, apartment or building as an advance payment or an application fee from a person without first entering into an agreement for sale. * Defines **Carpet Area** as net usable floor area of flat. Buyers will be charged for the carpet area and not super built-up area. * **Punishment:** Imprisonment of up to three years for developers and up to one year in case of agents and buyers for violation of orders of Appellate Tribunals and Regulatory Authorities.

Answer 71

1. **Timely delivery of flats:** Strict regulations will be enforced on builders to ensure that construction runs on time . If the builder is not able to deliver the flats on time, he/she will have to refund the purchaser with interest. Act ambitiously stipulates an electronic system, maintained on the website of RERA, where developers are expected to update on a quarterly basis the status of their projects, and submit regular audits and architectural reports. 2. **Furnishing of accurate project details:** As per the Act, there can't be any changes to a plan. And if a builder is found guilty of this, he/she will be penalized 10% of the project’s costs or face jail time of up to three years. Subsequent changes have to be approved by a majority of buyers and the regulator. 3. Specifying Carpet areas: Generally, builders sell flats on the basis of built-in area, which includes a common passage area, stairs and other spaces which are 20-30% more than the actual flat’s area. With this Act it will become mandatory to declare the actual carpet area. 4. All clearaces are mandatory before beginning a project 5. Each project should have a separate bank account 6. After sales service 7. Act also attempts to establish an adjudicatory mechanism for the speedy redressal of disputes. RERA and the Appellate Tribunal are expected to decide on complaints within an ambitious period of 60 days.

Answer 72

Mega Integrated Textile Region &Apparel (MITRA) * In line with [**Aatmanirbhar Bharat**](https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j&url=https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/05/16/atmanirbhar-bharat-abhiyan/&ved=2ahUKEwj33L7BhLrzAhVHSX0KHWm3BoYQFnoECAQQAQ&usg=AOvVaw3eXPuyNG0Ff-JdwWDecxiG) by positioning India strongly on the Global textiles map. * Basically to set up Mega Textile Parks. Recently 7 MITRA Parks were approved. * It is inspired by **the 5F vision** of Hon’ble Prime Minister **–Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign.** * **obj:** * The scheme intended to generate approximately 1 lakh direct and 2 lakh indirect employment per park. * The Scheme will offer an opportunity to create an integrated textiles value chain right from spinning, weaving, processing/dyeing and printing to garment manufacturing at one location that would ease business and will reduce logistics costs of the Industry. * Sites for the scheme will be selected by a Challenge Method, based on objective criteria for **Greenfield / Brownfield sites.** * PM MITRA park will be developed by a **SPV** which will be **owned by the CG and SG and in PPP Mode.** * Each MITRA Park will have an incubation centre, common processing house and a common effluent treatment plant and other textile related facilities such as design centres and testing centres. * Under the scheme, the centre will provide development capital support for the development of common infrastructure of **Rs 500 crore for each greenfield MITRA park and upto Rs 200 crore for each brownfield park.** * An additional Rs 300 crore will be provided as Competitiveness Incentive Support for the early establishment of textiles manufacturing units in each of these parks. * Investors who set up “anchor plants” that employ at least 100 people will be eligible for incentives of upto Rs 10 crore every year for upto three years.

Answer 73

for man-made fibre (MMF) Apparel, MMF Fabrics and 10 segments/ products of Technical Textiles

Answer 74

services an IFSC can provide: 1. Fund-raising services for individuals, corporations and governments. 2. Asset management and global portfolio diversification undertaken by pension funds, insurance companies and mutual funds. 3. Wealth management. 4. Global tax management and cross-border tax liability optimization, which provides a business opportunity for financial intermediaries, accountants and law firms. 5. Global and regional corporate treasury management operations that involve fund-raising, liquidity investment and management and asset-liability matching. 6. Risk management operations such as insurance and reinsurance. 7. Merger and acquisition activities among trans-national corporations. The first IFSC in India has been set up at the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) in Gandhinagar.

Answer 75

The **SEZ Act 2005** allows setting up **an IFSC in an SEZ or as an SEZ** after approval from the central government.

Answer 76

* The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA), headquartered at GIFT City, Gandhinagar Gujarat, has been established under [**the International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019**](https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j&url=https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/12/09/international-financial-services-centres-authority-bill-2019/&ved=2ahUKEwiLrKWcksT0AhWbMd4KHTA7CFwQFnoECAQQAQ&usg=AOvVaw0JgK5OCuPUWjujJnZ6mhmJ)**.** * It works as a unified authority for the development and regulation of financial products, financial services and financial institutions in the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in India.

Answer 77

1)seeks to setup an authority- The International Financial Services Centres Authority 1.1) Chairperson, one Member each to be nominated by RBI, SEBI, IRDAI nd PFRDA, two members to be nominated by CG nd 2 other members 1.2) it will Regulate all fin services, financial products and FIs in an IFSC 1.3) All powers exercisable by the respective financial sector regulatory like RBI, SEBI etc. under the respective Acts shall be solely exercised by the Authority in the IFSCs 2) The Bill will be applicable to all International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) set up under the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005.

Answer 78

1. **Digital sky platform** shall be developed as a business-friendly single-window online system. 2. **No flight permission required upto** 400 feet in green zones and upto 200 feet in the area between 8 and 12 km from the airport perimeter. 3. **No pilot licence required for** micro drones (for non-commercial use), nano drone and for R&D organisations. 4. **No restriction on drone operations by foreign-owned companies registered in India.** 5. Import of drones and drone components to be regulated by DGFT. 6. **No security clearance required** before any registration or licence issuance. 7. **No requirement of certificate of airworthiness,** unique identification number, prior permission and remote pilot licence for R&D entities. 8. **Coverage of drones under Drone Rules, 2021 increased from 300 kg to 500 kg.** This will cover drone taxis also. 9. **Issuance of Certificate of Airworthiness** delegated to Quality Council of India and certification entities authorised by it. 10. **Manufacturer may generate their drone’s unique identification number** on the digital sky platform through the self-certification route. 11. **Maximum penalty** under Drone Rules, 2021 reduced to INR 1 lakh. This shall, however, not apply to penalties in respect of violation of other laws. 12. **Drone corridors** will be developed for cargo deliveries. 13. **Drone promotion council** to be set up to facilitate a business-friendly regulatory regime.

Answer 79

aimed at **“equitable distribution” of parental property among siblings in the Khasi community.** If implemented, the proposed Bill would modify an age-old customary practice of **inheritance of the matrilineal Khasi tribe.** **Aims and Objectives of the Bill:** 1. Equitable distribution” of parental property among siblings – both male and female. 2. Let parents decide who they want their property to inherit. 3. Prevent a sibling from getting parental property if they marry a non-Khasi and accept the spouse’s customs and culture. **Need for this Bill:** Many times, boys are not able to take loans because there is no collateral to show. Sometimes, when a couple has no children, and there is no genuine heir, the clan takes over the property, as per custom. It leads to a number of litigations by children against their parents.

Answer 80

**the Jammu and Kashmir States Land (vesting of ownership to the occupants) Act,** also known as **Roshini Act** **Owing to the** allegations related to irregularities in its implementation, it was declared null and void by J&K HC in 2020. Enacted in 2001, the law sought to regularise unauthorised land. The Act envisaged **the transfer of ownership rights of state land** to its occupants, subject to the payment of a cost, as determined by the government. * The government said **the revenue generated would be spent on commissioning hydroelectric power projects,** hence the name **“Roshni”.** * Further, through amendments, the government also gave **ownership rights of agricultural land to farmers occupying it for free,** charging them only Rs 100 per kanal as documentation fee. **Why it was scrapped?** * In 2009, the State Vigilance Organisation registered an FIR against several government officials for alleged criminal conspiracy to illegally possess and vest ownership of state land to occupants who did not satisfy criteria under the Roshni Act. * In 2014, a report by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) estimated that against the targeted Rs 25,000 crore, only Rs 76 crore had been realised from the transfer of encroached land between 2007 and 2013, thus defeating the purpose of the legislation. * The report blamed irregularities including arbitrary reduction in prices fixed by a standing committee, and said this was done to benefit politicians and affluent people.

Answer 81

launched by Min of Labour and Employment * **Aim:** To **register 38 crore unorganised workers** such as construction labourers, migrant workforce, street vendors, and domestic workers, among others. * The workers will be issued **an e-Shram card** containing a **12 digit unique number.** * If a worker is registered on the eSHRAM portal and meets with an accident, he will be **eligible for Rs 2.0 Lakh on death or permanent disability and Rs 1.0 lakh on partial disability.** * **Background:** * The formation of e-Shram portal came after the SC [**directed the Government to complete the registration process of unorganized workers**](https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-analysis/registration-of-unorganised-workers) so that they can avail the welfare benefits given under various government schemes. * although registration had been recommended by the National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganised Sector (NCEUS), and was already mandated by the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act more than a dozen years ago. * **Implementation: Government in States/UTs** will conduct registration of unorganised workers across the country. *

Answer 82

announced in the Interim Budget-2019; * PM-SYM is a[**Central Sector Scheme**](https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-analysis/proposal-to-hike-monthly-pensions) administered by the **Ministry of Labour and Employment and implemented through Life Insurance Corporation of India and Community Service Centers (CSCs)**. **LIC will be the Pension Fund Manager and responsible for Pension pay out.** * This scheme seeks to benefit around 42 crore workers from the **unorganized sector** of the country. * eligibility: * The unorganised workers (home based workers, street vendors, mid-day meal workers, head loaders, landless labourers and similar other occupations) whose **monthly income is Rs 15,000/ per month or less.** * The Subscriber should belong to the **entry age group of 18-40 years.** * The subscriber will be required to have a **mobile phone, savings bank account and Aadhaar number.** * They should not be covered under **New Pension Scheme (NPS), Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) scheme or Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO).** * He/She should **not be an income tax payer.** * **Minimum Assured Pension:** Each subscriber shall receive **minimum assured pension of Rs 3000/- per month** after attaining the **age of 60 years.** * **Family Pension:** During the receipt of pension, if the subscriber dies, the spouse of the beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension received by the beneficiary as family pension. Family pension is applicable only to spouse. * If a beneficiary has given regular contribution and died due to any cause (before age of 60 years), his/her spouse will be entitled to join and continue the scheme subsequently by payment of regular contribution or exit the scheme as per provisions of exit and withdrawal. * **Contribution:** The subscriber’s contributions shall be made through **‘auto-debit’ facility** from **his/ her savings bank account/ Jan- Dhan account.** * PM-SYM functions on a **50:50 basis** where prescribed age-specific contribution shall be made by the **beneficiary and the matching contribution by the Central Government.**

Answer 83

* PMRPY was announced in 2016 and is being implemented by the **Ministry of Labour and Employment through EPFO.** * Under the scheme, **the government incentivizes employers for generation of new employment.** * The Government of **India pays the full employer's contribution of 12% (towards Employees’ Provident Fund and Employees’ Pension Scheme)**, for the new employment generated with salary up to Rs. 15,000 per month. The employers will continue to get the 12 % contribution paid by the Government for these eligible new employees for the next 3 years, provided they continue in employment by the same employer. * The entire system of PMRPY is online and AADHAAR based with no human interface in the implementation of the scheme. * A direct benefit of this scheme is that workers have access to social security benefit through Provident Fund, Pension and Death Linked Insurance. * scheme ran for 3 yrs. The total number of establishments who benefitted during the implementation of the scheme is 1.24 lakh.

Answer 84

* aimed at incentivising the creation of new employment opportunities during the [**Covid-19**](https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-analysis/coronavirus-disease-named-covid-19#:~:text=The%20World%20Health%20Organisation%20(WHO,31st%20December%2C%202019).) economic recovery phase. * **Government Contribution:** It will provide **subsidy** for [**provident fund**](https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-analysis/epfo-disbursed-claims) contribution for adding new employees to establishments registered with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO). * The **organisations of up to 1000 employees** would receive **employee’s contribution (12% of wages) & employer’s contributions (12% of wages),** totalling 24% of wages, for **two years.** * Employers with **over 1,000 employees** will get **employees’ contribution** of 12%, for **two years.** * The subsidy amount under the scheme will be **credited upfront only in Aadhaar-seeded EPFO accounts (UAN)** of new employees. * **Eligibility Criteria for Establishments:** Establishments registered with EPFO will be eligible for the benefits if they **add new employees compared to the reference base of employees as in September 2020.** * Establishments, with **up to 50 employees,** would have to add a minimum of two new employees. * The organisations, with **more than 50 employees,** would have to add at least **five employees.** * **Target Beneficiaries:** * Any new employee joining employment in EPFO registered establishments on **monthly wages less than Rs. 15,000.** * Those who left their job between 1^st March to 30^th September and are employed on or after 1^st October. * **Time Period:** The scheme will be effective from **1^st October, 2020 and operational till 30^th June 2021.**

Answer 85

Announced in April 2020, **three schemes** involving total incentives of around **Rs 48,000 crore** for electronics manufacturing, * The Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) for large scale electronics manufacturing. * The scheme for Promotion of Manufacturing of Electronic Components and Semiconductors (SPECS). * The modified [**Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMC 2.0) Scheme.**](https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-analysis/electronics-manufacturing-clusters-emc2-0-scheme) The schemes are expected to * Attract Rs 1 lakh crore investment in the sector. * Boost local electronics manufacturing and generate manufacturing revenue potential of Rs 10 lakh crore by 2025. * Create 20 lakh direct and indirect jobs by 2025.

Answer 86

To attract large investments in the electronics value chain including **electronic components and semiconductor packaging.** * Under the scheme, electronic manufacturing companies will get an **incentive of 4 to 6% on incremental sales (over base year) of goods manufactured in India** and covered under target segments, to **eligible companies over a period of next 5 years.** * The scheme shall only be applicable for target segments namely mobile phones and specified electronic components. * The government estimates that with the PLI scheme, domestic value addition for mobile phones is expected to rise to 35-40% by 2025 from the current level of 20-25% and generate additional 8 lakh jobs, both direct and indirect. * The production of mobile phones in the country has surged eight-times in the last four years from around Rs 18,900 crore in 2014-15 to Rs 1.7 lakh crore in 2018-19 .

Answer 87

* Under the scheme, **a financial incentive of 25% of capital expenditure** has been approved by the Union Cabinet for the **manufacturing of goods that constitute the supply chain of an electronic product.** * The SPECS notified for manufacturing of electronics components and semiconductors has a budget outlay of Rs 3,285 crore spread over a period of eight years. * The government estimates that push for manufacturing of electronics components and electronic chips will create around **6 lakh direct and indirect jobs.**

Answer 88

* The EMC 2.0 has a total incentive outlay of Rs 3,762.25 crore spread over a period of 8 years with an objective to create 10 lakh direct and indirect jobs under the scheme. * The EMC 2.0 scheme will provide **financial assistance up to 50% of the project cost** subject to a ceiling of Rs 70 crore per 100 acres of land for setting up of Electronics Manufacturing Cluster projects. * Electronic manufacturing clusters to be set up under the scheme will be spread in an **area of 200 acres across India and 100 acres in North East part of the country.**

Answer 89

A digital public good is defined by the UN Secretary-General’s Roadmap for Digital Cooperation, as: “open source software, open data, open AI models, open standards and open content that adhere to privacy and other applicable laws and best practices, do no harm, and help attain the SDGs.” The nondepletable, nonexclusive, and nonrivalrous nature of digital public goods means the rules and norms for managing them can be different from how physical public goods are managed. Digital public goods can be infinitely stored, copied, and distributed without becoming depleted, and at close to zero cost. Abundance rather than scarcity is an inherent characteristic of digital resources in the digital commons. Digital public goods share some traits with [public goods](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Public_goods) including [non-rivalry](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rivalry_(economics)) and [non-excludability](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Excludability). India is Pioneering the concept of digital public goods and using it for transforming itus approach to attain * Built on the foundation of [Aadhaar](https://indianexpress.com/article/what-is/what-is-aadhaar-card-and-where-is-it-mandatory-4587547/) and India Stack, modular applications, big and small, are transforming the way we make payments, withdraw our PF, get our passport and driving licence and check land records etc. * Children have access to QR-coded textbooks across state boards and languages * the economically disadvantaged have access to the PDS and beneficiaries of government schemes have money transferred directly into their bank accounts * Digital infrastructure plugs leaks. It eliminates ghost beneficiaries of government services, removes touts collecting rent, creates an audit trail, makes the individual-government-market interface transparent and provides efficiencies that help recoup the investments quickly. Processes get streamlined and wait times for any service come down dramatically. Issuances of passports, PAN cards and driving licences are such examples. * Above all, the digital public goods infrastructure compounds while physical infrastructure depreciates. Compounding happens for three reasons. * One, of course, is the growth of technology itself. * The second reason is the network effect. As more and more people use the same technology, the number of “transactions” using that technology increase exponentially. * And the third reason is the rapid creation of new layers of technology. For example, the hypertext protocol created the worldwide web. Then the browser was built on top of it, which made the worldwide web easier to navigate and more popular. Thousands of new layers were added to make it what it is today. To give an example, consider the surge in UPI-based payments in India. * The use of Diksha, the school education platform built on the open-source platform Sunbird, has followed the same trajectory — today close to 500 million schoolchildren are using it. Taken together, compounding ensures that the digital divide gets bridged. can also be an effective diplomatic export * The cost of setting up an open source-based high school online educational infrastructure, to supplement the physical infrastructure, for an entire country is less than laying two kilometres of high-quality road. * Unlike physical infrastructure such as ports and roads, digital public goods have short gestation periods and immediate, and visible impact and benefits. * Emerging economies are characterised by gross inefficiencies in the delivery of government services and a consequent trust deficit. Digital public goods spread speed, transparency, ease and productivity across the individual-government-market ecosystem and enhance inclusivity, equity and development at scale.

Answer 90

1. The average time spent on online gaming has gone up almost 65 per cent from pre-Covid levels. More than 43 crore people have spent time on virtual gaming. 2. Three types of online gaming: 1. e-sports: hese are video games which, in the 1990s, were played privately or on consoles in video game shops but are now played online in an organised way between professional players, individually or as teams. 2. fantasy sports 3. online casal games which could be skill-based — where the outcome is predominantly influenced by mental or physical skill — or based on chance, where the result is strongly determined by some randomised activity, such as rolling a dice. 3. Online gaming falls in a regulatory grey area and there is no comprehensive legislation with respect to its legality, or its boundaries with gambling and betting even as the applicable tax rate is being debated in relevant circles. 4. Legality: 1. Games based on skills are allowed in most parts of the country while games of chance are in the ambit of gambling, treated as immoral and prohibited in most parts of the country. 2. As betting and gambling is a state subject, different states have their own legislation. 3. Every state in India, except Goa, Sikkim, and the Union Territory of Daman explicitly prohibits any sort of gambling, betting or wagering on games of chance. 4. Assam, Andhra Pradesh, Nagaland, Odisha, Tamil Nadu and Telangana have placed restrictions on games of skill as well. 5. a large number of people are developing a strong dependence on online gaming. This addiction is destroying lives and devastating families. 1. Psychologists have opined that the opportunity cost of this is immense as the impact on health is growing with each passing day. 2. Online games like [PUBG](https://indianexpress.com/about/pubg/) and the [Blue Whale Challenge](https://indianexpress.com/article/what-is/what-is-the-blue-whale-challenge/) were banned after incidents of violence and suicide. 3. This addiction is also said to be causing near-sightedness in our youth. 4. Further, inadvertent sharing of personal information can lead to cases of cheating, privacy violations, abuse, and bullying. 6. Various high courts have nudged state governments to regulate the virtual gaming landscape. The Centre, in a recent advisory to states, has laid out useful dos and don’ts to educate parents and teachers. 7. China has announced rules to limit online video games for those under 18 to three hours a week. The Chinese state media has called online gaming the “opium of the mind.” 8. A well-regulated online gaming industry presents compelling advantages in terms of economic benefits too. 1. This industry is expected to generate revenues in excess of Rs 29,000 crore in 2025 with over 65.7 crore users. 2. It is estimated that more than 15,000 direct and indirect jobs will be created. 3. This sector has the potential to attract significant global investments — current investments in gaming companies like Dream11 are good indicators. 9. suggestions 1. The government should ensure that KYC norms are strengthened. 2. Each game should follow a well-established age-rating mechanism and minors should be allowed to proceed only with the consent of their parents — OTP verification on [Aadhaar](https://indianexpress.com/article/what-is/what-is-aadhaar-card-and-where-is-it-mandatory-4587547/) could potentially resolve this. 3. No in-game purchases should be allowed without adult consent and wherever possible, the in-game chat option should be disabled. 4. Gaming companies should proactively educate users about potential risks and how to identify likely situations of cheating and abuse. 5. They should remove the anonymity of participants and build a robust grievance handling mechanism. 6. A Gaming Authority at the central government should be created while various forms of self-regulation are encouraged for the industry.

Answer 91

* As of 2022, INdia had more than 60000 officially-recognised start-ups and is the third-largest tech start-up hub globally. * India's startups are now working in 55 different industries. * INdia is rapidly moving towards a century of unicorns which are the hallmarks of self-reliant and self-confident INdia. 42 unicorns (startups valued at over 1 Bn$) came up in India in 2020, up from 11 in 2020. India, at present has almost 83 unicorns. India is the third-largest base for unicorns in the world after the US which has close to 487 unicorns, and China which is home to 301 unicorn startups * In 2021, India granted 28,000 patents, compared to 4,000 in 2013-14, while 2.5 lakh trademarks were registered in 2020-21 compared to 70,000 in 2013-14 * 2021 also saw a record number of Indian startups make their debut on the public exchanges, with some eight startups having raised a total of $2.5 billion from public investors. * India’s software services industry and tech startups are each estimated to be worth about $400 billion today. By 2025, we expect India’s startup universe value to grow to $1 trillion.

Answer 92

1. SAMRIDH scheme 2. Startup India Seed Fund 3. Startup India initiative 4. ASPIRE 5. MUDRA bank and loans 6. AIM 7. Standup India Scheme 8. Other schemes 1. Dairy Processing and INfrastr Development Fund (DIDF) 2. Support for International Patent Protection in Electronics & Information Technology (SIP-EIT) 3. Software Tech Park 4. Venture Capital Assistance Scheme 5. Single POint Registration Scheme and e-Biz portal 6. Dairy Entrepreneurship Development scheme 7. High Risk - High Reward Research 8. Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme (DEDS)

Answer 93

* flagship scheme of INdian Govt launched in 2016 * focussing on three areas: * Simplification and Handholding. * Funding Support and Incentives. * Industry-Academia Partnership and Incubation. * A startup defined as an entity that is headquartered in [India](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/India), which was opened less than 10 years ago, and has an annual turnover less than ₹100 crore * Benefits * 10,000 crore startup funding pool. * Reduction in patent registration fees. * Improved Bankruptcy Code, to ensure a 90-day exit window. * Freedom from inspections for the first 3 years of operation. * Freedom from Capital Gain Tax for first 3 years of operation. * Freedom from tax for the first 3 years of operation. * Self-certification compliance. * New schemes to provide IPR protection to startup firms. * Built Startup Oasis as Rajasthan Incubation Center.

Answer 94

Startup Accelerators of MeitY for pRoduct Innovation, Development, and growtH * launched in 2021 * designed to provide funding support to startups along with helping them bring skill sets together which will help them grow successful. * aims to focus on the acceleration of around 300 start-ups by extending them with customer connect, investor connect, and other opportunities for international expansion in the upcoming three years that will follow.

Answer 95

launched in 2021 'Startup India Seed Fund' — worth INR 1,000 crores — to help startups and support ideas from aspiring entrepreneurs. aims to provide financial assistance to startups for proof of concept, prototype development, product trials, market entry and commercialisation. * Seed Fund to an eligible startup by the incubator shall be disbursed as follows: * Up to Rs. 20 Lakhs as a grant for validation of Proof of Concept, or prototype development, or product trials * Up to Rs. 50 Lakhs of investment for market entry, commercialisation, or scaling up through convertible debentures or debt or debt-linked instruments * The startup must have incorporated not more than 2 years ago at the time of application * Preference would be given to startups creating innovative solutions in sectors such as social impact, waste management, water management, financial inclusion, education, agriculture, food processing, biotechnology, healthcare, energy, mobility, defence, space, railways, oil and gas, textiles, etc. As of Dec 2020, ` 1270.46 crores have been drawn from the FFS and ` 4509.16 crores have been invested into 384 startups.

Answer 96

A Scheme for Promotion of Innovation, Rural Industries and Entrepreneurship (ASPIRE) ## Footnote launched in 2015 by Min of MSMEs to offer proper knowledge to the entrepreneurs to start with their business and emerge as employers. The ASPIRE scheme aims at increasing employment, reducing poverty, and encouraging innovation in rural India. However, the main idea is to promote the agro-business industry.

Answer 97

Micro Units Development Refinance Agency (MUDRA) banks has been created to enhance credit facility and boost the growth of small business in rural areas. The MUDRA banks provides startup loans of up to INR 10 lakhs to small enterprises, business which are non-corporate, and non-farm small/micro enterprises. The loans have been categorized as Tarun, Kishore, and Shishu. The assets are created through the bank’s finance and there is no collateral security.

Answer 98

launched in 2015, Atal Innovation Mission is a flagship initiative launched to promote the culture of innovation and entrepreneurship in the country. Atal Innovation Mission was established to create a promotional platform involving academicians and draw upon national and international experiences to foster a culture of innovation, research, and development. AIM – to promote Entrepreneurship through Self-Employment and Talent Utilization (SETU), wherein innovators would be supported and mentored to become successful entrepreneurs. INitiatives of AIM: 1. Atal Tinkering Lab 2. Atal Incubatio Centre 3. Mentor INdia 4. Atal New INdia Challenge 5. Atal Community Innovation Centre

Answer 99

* for financing SC/ST and/or women entrepreneurs. * According to the scheme, bank loans between 10 lakhs to 1 crore can be borrowed by at least one Scheduled Cast (SC) or Scheduled Tribe (ST) borrower and at least one woman per bank brand to set up a greenfield enterprise. * The greenfield enterprise may be based out of manufacturing, services or the trading sector. * In case of non-individual enterprises, it is mandatory that an SC/ST or a woman entrepreneur holds at least 51% of the shareholding and controlling stakes.

Answer 100

1. dedicating an entire ministry for entrepreneurship and skill development- MSDE 2. e-Biz portal: was the first electronic government-to-business(G2B) portal, which was founded in January 2013. The main purpose of the portal was to transform and develop a conducive business environment in the country. 3. Dairy Processing and INfrastr Development Fund: Milk Unions, multi-state milk cooperatives, state dairy federations, milk producing companies, and NDDB subsidiaries meeting the eligibility criteria under the project can borrow loan from NABARD. 4. Support for International Patent Protection in Electronics & Information Technology (SIP-EIT) 5. Multiplier Grants scheme: aims to encourage collaborative Research & Development (R&D) between industry and academics/institutions for the development of products and packages. Under the scheme, if the industry supports the R&D of products that can be commercialized at the institutional level, the government shall provide financial support which will be up to twice the amount provided by industry. 6. **Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises** (CGTMSE ), in effect from2000, to provide business loans to micro-level businesses, small-scale industries, and startups with zero collateral. 7. Venture capital Assistance scheme: Small Farmer’s Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC) has launched the Venture Capital Assistance (VCA) scheme for the welfare of farmer-entrepreneurs and to develop their agri-business. It intends to provide assistance in the form of term loans to farmers so that the latter can meet the capital requirements for their project's implementation. VCA promotes the training and nurturing of agri-entrepreneurs. 8. NewGen IEDC: ims to inculcate the spirit of innovation and entrepreneurship among the Indian youth. It also endeavors to support and encourage entrepreneurship through guidance, mentorship, and support. 9. Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme (DEDS) 10. High Risk and High Reward Research: to support and invite new proposals and ideas that have the potential to usher a paradigm shifting influence on the Science and Technology domains. This funding focuses on the new proposals, which might be conceptually new and risky but are expected to have a paradigm shifting influence on the S&T 11. incubators set up in public institutions 12. to further women-led entrepreneurship, the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) will reserve 10% of the Fund of Funds for women-led startups, while all the Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) where SIDBI takes equity have been mandated to contribute 20% in businesses which are women led, women influenced or employ women or are women consumption centric. 13. Aug 2019: removal of ‘angel tax’ 14. allowing self-certification for nine labour and three environment laws, and doing away with more than 25 thousand compliances 15. Startups INtellectual Property Protection (SIPP) scheme: enables a start-up to seek assistance from any empanelled facilitator to file and prosecute their application. The facilitator can claim payment for the services given to the start up from the Office of CGPDTM.

Answer 101

replacing **the earlier Consumer Protection Act, 1986.** 1. **Definition of consumer** 1. A consumer is defined as **a person who buys any good or avails a service for a consideration.** 2. It **does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purpose.** 3. It **covers transactions through all modes including** offline, and online through electronic means, teleshopping, multi-level marketing or direct selling. 2. **Six consumer Rights** 1. Right to Safety. 2. Right to be Informed. 3. Right to Choose. 4. Right to be heard. 5. Right to seek Redressal. 6. Right to Consumer Education. 3. **Central Consumer Protection Authority** 1. **to be set up by CG** 2. **No separate regulator was under CPA 1986** 3. It will **regulate matters related to violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and misleading advertisements.** 4. **The CCPA will have an investigation wing,** headed by a Director-General, which may conduct inquiry or investigation into such violations. 4. **Increased compensation** 1. The CCPA may impose a penalty on a manufacturer or an endorser of up to Rs 10 lakh and imprisonment for up to two years for a false or misleading advertisement. 2. In case of a subsequent offence, the fine may extend to Rs 50 lakh and imprisonment of up to five years. 5. **Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission:** CDRCs will be set up at the district, state, and national levels. A consumer can file a complaint with CDRCs in relation to: 1. Unfair or restrictive trade practices; 2. Defective goods or services; 3. Overcharging or deceptive charging; and 4. The offering of goods or services for sale which may be hazardous to life and safety. While under the 1986 act, complaint could be filed in a consumer court where the seller's office is located, the new act allows complaint filing in a consumer court where the complainant resides or works The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 provides consumers the option of **filing complaint electronically**. To facilitate consumers in filing their complaint online, the Central Government has set up the **E-Daakhil Portal**. 6. **Appeals** 1. Complaints against an unfair contract can be filed only at the State and National levels. 2. Appeals from a District CDRC will be heard by the State CDRC. Appeals from the State CDRC will be heard by the National CDRC. 3. **Final appeal will lie before the Supreme Court.** 7. **Jurisdiction of CDRCs:** The District CDRC will entertain complaints where value of goods and services does not exceed Rs 50 L (Originally 1 Cr in the act but chnaged via Consumer Protetcion Rules 2021) (20 L under 1986 act). State CDRC for upto 2 cr (Originally 10 Cr in the act but changed via Consumer Protetcion Rules 2021)(1 Cr under 1986 act) and National CDRC for beyond 8. **Mediation** 1. The act provides for reference to **mediation by Consumer Commissions** wherever scope for early settlement exists and parties agree for it. 2. Mediation Cells to be attached to Consumer Commissions. Mediation to be held in consumer mediation cells. 3. Panel of mediators to be selected by **a selection committee consisting of the President and a member of Consumer Commission.** 4. **No appeal against settlement through mediation.** 9. **e-commerce platforms** 1. The e-commerce portals will have to set up a robust **consumer redressal mechanism** as part of the rules under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. 2. They will also have to mention **the country of origin**which are necessary for enabling the consumer to make an informed decision at the pre-purchase stage on its platform. 3. The e-commerce platforms also have **to acknowledge the receipt of any consumer complaint within forty-eight hours** and redress the complaint within one month from the date of receipt under this Act. 10. **Product LIability:** A manufacturer or product service provider or product seller will be held responsible to compensate for injury or damage caused by defective product or deficiency in services. such a provision did not exist under 1986 act 11. **Time period for disposal of complaints**: The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 stipulates that “every complaint shall be disposed of as expeditiously as possible and endeavour shall be made to decide the complaint within a period of three months from the date of receipt of notice by opposite party where the complaint does not require analysis or testing of commodities and within 5 months if it requires analysis or testing of commodities."

Answer 102

* One District One Product (ODOP) is an initiative that is seen as a transformational step forward towards realizing the **goal of AtmaNirbhar Bharat**. * **Mandate:** One District One Product (ODOP) scheme aims to realize the true potential of a district, fuel economic growth and generate employment and rural entrepreneurship. * **Implementation:** ODOP initiative is being implemented by DGFT, DPIIT as a major stakeholder. * The Department of Commerce through DGFT is engaging with State and Central Government agencies to promote the initiative of One District One Product. * State Export Promotion Committee (SPEC) and District Export Promotion Committee (DEPC) have been constituted in states under the ODOP initiative. * DEPC is constituted in all districts of India, except districts of the state of West Bengal. * **Marketing Avenues:** All the products under ODOP scheme will be available at NAFED Bazaars, E-commerce platforms, and prominent retail stores across India. * Obj: * **Transforming Districts into Export Hubs** * Identifying products with export potential in the district, * Addressing bottlenecks for exporting these products, * Supporting local exporters/manufacturers to scale up manufacturing, and find potential buyers outside India. * **Promoting Industry and Export:** One District One Product (ODOP) initiative aims to promote the manufacturing & services industry in the District, along with promoting exports of identified products. O**ne District One Product (ODOP) initiative is operationally merged with the ‘Districts as Export Hub’ initiative.** * employment generation

Answer 103

Launched in 2020, the scheme will be implemented for five years until 2024-25. It is **for the Unorganized Sector** on All India basis. Objectives: 1. Increase in access to finance by micro food processing units. 2. Increase in revenues of target enterprises. 3. Enhanced compliance with food quality and safety standards. 4. Strengthening capacities of support systems. 5. Transition from the unorganized sector to the formal sector. 6. Special focus on women entrepreneurs and Aspirational districts. 7. Encourage Waste to Wealth activities. 8. Focus on minor forest produce in Tribal Districts. Administrative and Implementation Mechanisms: ● The Scheme would be monitored at Centre by an Inter-Ministerial Empowered Committee (IMEC) under the Chairmanship of Minister, FPI. ● A State/ UT Level Committee (SLC) chaired by the Chief Secretary will monitor and sanction/ recommend proposals for expansion of micro units and setting up of new units by the SHGs/ FPOs/ Cooperatives. ● The States/ UTs will prepare Annual Action Plans covering various activities for implementation of the scheme, which will be approved by Government of India. ● A third party evaluation and mid-term review mechanism would be built in the programme. ● National level portal would be set-up wherein the applicants/ individual enterprise could apply to participate in the Scheme. All the scheme activities would be undertaken on the National portal.

Answer 104

1. Centrally Sponsored Expenditure to be shared by Government of India and States at 60:40. 2. 2,00,000 micro-enterprises are to be assisted with credit linked subsidy. Micro enterprises will get credit linked subsidy at 35 per cent of the eligible project cost with ceiling of Rs. 10 lakh. 3. Beneficiary contribution will be minimum 10 per cent and balance from loan. Seed capital will be given to SHGs (Rs. four lakh per SHG) for loan to members for working capital and small tools. 4. Cluster approach. 5. Focus on perishables.

Answer 105

● Nearly eight lakh micro- enterprises will benefit through access to information, better exposure and formalization. ● It will enable them to formalize, grow and become competitive. ● The project is likely to generate nine lakh skilled and semi-skilled jobs. ● Scheme envisages increased access to credit by existing micro food processing entrepreneurs, women entrepreneurs and entrepreneurs in the Aspirational Districts. ● Better integration with organized markets. ● Increased access to common services like sorting, grading, processing, packaging, storage etc. need ● There are about 25 lakh unregistered food processing enterprises which constitute 98% of the sector and are unorganized and informal. Nearly 66 % of these units are located in rural areas and about 80% of them are family-based enterprises. ● This sector faces a number of challenges including the inability to access credit, high cost of institutional credit, lack of access to modern technology, inability to integrate with the food supply chain and compliance with the health &safety standards. Strengthening this segment will lead to reduction in wastage, creation of off-farm job opportunities and aid in achieving the overarching Government objective of doubling farmers’ income.

Answer 106

* The Uttarakhand government in December 2019 introduced Chardham Shrine mgmt bill 2019, aimed at bringing the Char Dham of Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri and Yamunotri and 49 other temples under the purview of a proposed shrine board. The bill was passed in the Assembly and became the Uttarakhand Char Dham Devasthanam Management Act, 2019. As a result, the Uttarakhand Char Dham Devasthanam Board on January 15, 2020. the Chief Minister is the chairman whereas the minister for religious affairs is the vice-chairman of the board. Two MLAs of Gangotri and Yamunotri are members on the board along with the Chief Secretary. A senior IAS officer is the Chief Executive Officer. * Before the constitution of the Board, the Shri Badrinath-Shri Kedarnath Act, 1939 was in place for the management of two shrines – Badrinath and Kedarnath – and Shri Badrinath- Shri Kedarnath Mandir Samiti for 45 temples. The Samiti was chaired by a government-appointed person whereas an official of all India service used to be the CEO. In Gangotri and Yamunotri, management of the shrines was earlier in the control of local trusts and the government was not getting any share from the donations made by devotees. * Protests: by priests * finally rescinded by UK govt

Answer 107

covered in mindmaps

Answer 108

To tap the huge potential of tourism, the Railways announced the ‘Bharat Gaurav’ scheme, under which theme-based tourist circuit trains, on the lines of the Ramayana Express, can be run either by private or State-owned operators. Till now, the Railways had passenger segments and goods segments. Now, we will have a third segment for tourism — ‘Bharat Gaurav’ train. About 3,033 coaches or about 150 trains have been earmarked. Through this policy, which offers operators the “Right of Use” of its rakes and infrastructure, the Railways has liberalised and simplified a part of operations that was otherwise carried out mostly by the Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC).

Answer 109

C ## Footnote • MPLAD is a central government scheme, under which MPs can recommend development programmes involving spending of Rs 5 crore every year in their respective constituencies. • MPs from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, including nominated ones, can do so. • States have their version of this scheme with varying amounts per MLA. Delhi has the highest allocation under MLALAD; each MLA can recommend works for up to Rs 10 crore each year. How does the scheme work? • The government transfers it directly to the respective local authorities. The legislators can only recommend works in their constituencies based on a set of guidelines. • For the MPLAD Scheme, the guidelines focus on the creation of durable community assets like roads, school buildings etc. • Recommendations for non-durable assets can be made only under limited circumstances. For example, recently the government allowed use of MPLAD funds for the purchase of personal protection equipment, coronavirus testing kits etc. • The guidelines for use of MLALAD funds differ across states. For example, Delhi MLAs can recommend the operation of fogging machines (to contain dengue mosquitoes), installation of CCTV cameras etc. • After the legislators give the list of developmental works, they are executed by the district authorities as per the governments financial, technical and administrative rules.

Answer 110

* Madhav Menon Committee: It submitted its report in 2007, suggesting various recommendations on reforms in the Criminal Justice System of India (CJSI). * Malimath Committee Report: It submitted its report in 2003 on the Criminal Justice System of India (CJSI). * 2021: MHA has constituteed a national level committee for redorm in criminal law under Ranbir Singh

Answer 111

The SMA is a law which **allows solemnization of marriages without going through any religious customs or rituals.** People from different castes or religions or states get married under SMA in which marriage is solemnized by way of registration. * The prime purpose of the Act was to **address Inter-religious marriages and to establish marriage as a secular institution bereft of all religious formalities,** which required registration alone. **Procedure mentioned:** The SMA prescribes an elaborate procedure to get the marriage registered. 1. One of the parties to the marriage has to give a notice of the intended marriage to the marriage officer of the district where at least one of the parties to the marriage has resided for at least 30 days immediately prior to the date on which such notice is given. 2. Such notice is then entered in the marriage notice book and the marriage officer publishes a notice of marriage at some conspicuous place in his office. 3. The notice of marriage published by the marriage officer includes details of the parties like names, date of birth, age, occupation, parents’ names and details, address, pin code, identity information, phone number etc. 4. Anybody can then raise objections to the marriage on various grounds provided under the Act. If no objection is raised within the 30 day period, then marriage can be solemnized. If objections are raised, then the marriage officer has to inquire into the objections after which he will decide whether or not to solemnize the marriage. 5. **Sections6(2) and 6(3):** The provisions under the Act require parties to an intended marriage **to publish their private details for public scrutiny 30 days prior to the intended marriage.** * This provision violates **the right to privacy of the parties.** The right to privacy is held to be an aspect of the right to life under **Article 21 of the Constitution.** * The requirement is also in violation of **right to equality under Article 14** of the Constitution since no other laws prescribe such a requirement.

Answer 112

* * Swadesh Darshan, a[**Central Sector Scheme,**](https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-analysis/proposal-to-hike-monthly-pensions) was **launched in 2014 -15** for integrated development of theme based tourist circuits in the country. * This scheme is envisioned to synergise with other schemes like [**Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, Skill India, Make in India**](https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-editorials/assessment-of-make-in-india) etc. * Under the scheme, the **Ministry of Tourism provides Central Financial Assistance (CFA)** to State Governments/Union Territory Administrations for infrastructure development of circuits. * One of the objectives of the scheme is to **develop theme-based tourist circuits** on the principles of **high tourist value, competitiveness and sustainability** in an integrated manner. * **Tourism Circuits:** * Under the scheme, **fifteen thematic circuits have been identified-** Buddhist Circuit, Coastal Circuit, Desert Circuit, Eco Circuit, Heritage Circuit, Himalayan Circuit, Krishna Circuit, North East Circuit, Ramayana Circuit, Rural Circuit, Spiritual Circuit, Sufi Circuit, Tirthankar Circuit, Tribal Circuit, Wildlife Circuit.

Answer 113

* The ‘National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Augmentation Drive (PRASAD)’ was **launched by the Ministry of Tourism in the year 2014-15** with the objective of holistic development of identified pilgrimage destinations. * The **name of the scheme was changed** from PRASAD to “National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Heritage Augmentation Drive (PRASHAD)” in October 2017. * **Implementing Agency:** * The projects identified under this scheme shall be implemented through the identified agencies by the respective State/ Union Territory Government. * **Objective:** * **Rejuvenation and spiritual augmentation of important national/ global pilgrimage and heritage sites**. * Follow **community-based development** and create awareness among the local communities. * Integrated tourism development of heritage city, local arts, culture, handicrafts, cuisine, etc., to generate livelihood. * Strengthen the mechanism for bridging the infrastructural gaps. * **Funding:** * Under it, the Ministry of Tourism provides **Central Financial Assistance (CFA) to State Governments for promoting tourism** at identified destinations. * For components within public funding under this scheme, the Central Government will provide a 100% fund. * For improved sustainability of the project, it also seeks to involve [**Public Private Partnership (PPP)**](https://www.drishtiias.com/to-the-points/paper3/ppp-investment-model) and [**Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)**](https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-analysis/corporate-social-responsibility-csr-expenditure) as well.

Answer 114

The government will develop **17 “Iconic Tourist Sites”** in the country as a world **class tourist destinations** which in turn would serve as a model for other tourism sites. “Iconic Tourist Sites” Initiative * **The Tourism Ministry is the nodal ministry** for the implementation of the initiative. * The **17 sites** identified by the Ministry are: * [**Taj Mahal**](https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-analysis/asi-plan-to-conserve-taj-mahal) and Fatehpur Sikri (Uttar Pradesh), * Ajanta & Ellora (Maharashtra), * Humayun’s Tomb, Red Fort and Qutub Minar (Delhi), * Colva (Goa), * Amer Fort (Rajasthan), * Somnath and [**Dholavira**](https://www.drishtiias.com/to-the-points/paper1/indus-valley-civilization) (Gujarat), * [**Khajuraho**](https://www.drishtiias.com/to-the-points/paper1/temple-architecture) (Madhya Pradesh), * [**Hampi**](https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-analysis/world-heritage-committee-s-concerns) (Karnataka), * Mahabalipuram (Tamil Nadu), * [**Kaziranga**](https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-analysis/Important%20Facts%20for%20Prelims%20(13th%20October%202018)) (Assam), * Kumarakom (Kerala) and * The Mahabodhi Temple (Bihar) * The initiative is aimed at **enhancing India’s** [**soft power.**](https://www.drishtiias.com/to-the-points/Paper2/india-pakistan-scope-of-soft-diplomacy) * **Vision:** The Ministry shall be developing the sites in a holistic manner with a focus on issues concerning connectivity to the destination, better facilities/experience for the tourists at the site, skill development, involvement of local community, promotion & branding and by **bringing in private investment.** * **Execution:** The monuments taken up for development under the initiative fall under the jurisdiction of [**Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)**](https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-analysis/monuments-of-national-importance) and State Archaeology Departments.

Answer 115

* The Ministry of Tourism, Government of India, has been organizing the International Buddhist Conclave biennially since 2004. * The earlier International Buddhist Conclaves were organized in New Delhi and Bodhgaya (February 2004), Nalanda and Bodhgaya (February 2010), Varanasi and Bodhgaya (2012 and 2014) and in Sarnath/Varanasi and Bodhgaya (October 2016).

Answer 116

Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) Garib Kalyan Rozgar Abhiyaan (GKRA) Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana (ABRY) Pt Deen Dayal Upadhyay Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) and Deen Dayal Antyoday Yojana-National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM) Mudra loans Stand Up India scheme

Answer 117

* The Union Budget for 2022-23 estimated the strength of central government employees at 34.65 lakh as on March 1, 2022 * The Indian Railways are the biggest government employer — with 12.52 lakh employees as of March 1, 2020, and estimated strengths of 12.03 lakh and 12.01 lakh as on March 1, 2021 and 2022 respectively. * Almost 92% of the central government’s manpower is employed by the five ministries/ departments of Railways (almost 40%), Home Affairs (almost 30%), Defence (Civil) (nearly 12%), Department of Posts (almost 5.50%), and Department of Revenue (more than 3%). * According to the latest available (2019-20) Annual Report of the Department of Expenditure, approximately 21.75% of the 40.78 lakh sanctioned posts were vacant as on March 1, 2020. * A very large number of employees have been hired by central government ministries and departments on contract as per the recommendations especially of the last two Pay Commissions. * as of 2021, there were 24.30 lakh contract labourers/ workers/ employees in the “Central Sphere”. This number was 13.24 lakh in 2020 and 13.64 lakh in 2019. Central government employees in this category are mainly Multi-tasking Staff (MTS), and some retired employees, among others. * MTS basically work as Group D staff, recruitments for which have been all but stopped — and the group itself was merged with Group C on April 30, 2020, based on the recommendation of the 6th Pay Commission. * Recruitments such as those of drivers too have almost ceased as several departments use hired taxis in bulk. * as on March 1, 2020, as many as 8,72,243 positions were vacant in the central government: Group A, 21,255; Group B, 94,842; Group C, 7,56,146. * In the elite IAS, 1,515 posts were vacant as on January 1, 2021 — DoPT’s annual report for 2020-21 states the sanctioned strength of the IAS is 6,746, but the actual strength is 5,231. * 6,558 and 15,227 teaching and non-teaching posts were vacant in the central universities. A large number of employees superannuate at the end of every month, and if no recruitments are made, the posts lie vacant or are filled by contractual staff or by re-hiring retired staff. * 2.65 lakh were recruited in 2020-21 —13,238 by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), 1,00,330 by the Staff Selection Commission (SSC), and 1,51,900 by the Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs). * large backlog of vacancies as on January 1, 2021 in the reserved (SC/ ST/ OBC) categories in 10 “major Ministries/Departments having more than 90 per cent of the employees of the Central Government”.

Answer 118

* **ONDC**, is a private [non-profit](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nonprofit_organization) [Section 8 company](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Non-profit_laws_of_India#Section-8_Company) established by DPIIT to develop open e-commerce * It was incorporated on 31 December 2021 with initial investment from [Quality Council of India](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quality_Council_of_India) and Protean eGov Technologies Limited (formerly NSDL e-Governance Infrastructure Limited) * ONDC is not an application, an intermediary, or software, but a set of specifications designed to foster open interchange and connections between shoppers, technology platforms, and retailers * Designed to keep check on [Big Tech](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_Tech) companies from violating Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2021 due to concentration of market power by integrating them into an open-source decentralised network where data portability will break data silos while data interoperability will allow innovation * Implementation of ONDC, which is expected to be on the **lines of** [**Unified Payments Interface (UPI)**](https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-analysis/upi-transactions) could bring various operational aspects put in place by e-commerce platforms to the same level. * On ONDC, buyers and sellers may transact irrespective of the fact that they are attached to one specific e-commerce portal. * Significance * If the ONDC gets implemented and mandated, it would mean that **all e-commerce companies** will have to operate **using the same processes** (like Android Based Mobile Devices). This could give a huge booster shot to smaller online retailers and new entrants. * If mandated, this **could be problematic for larger e-commerce companies, which have their own processes and technology deployed** for these segments of operations. * ONDC is expected to **digitise the entire value chain, standardise operations, promote inclusion** of suppliers, derive **efficiency in logistics** and enhance **value for consumers.**

Answer 119

1. B2C: General merchandiser that sells consumer products to retail consumers eg. Amazon, Flipkart 1. Inventory based model: an e-commerce activity where inventory of goods and services is owned by the e-commerce entity and is sold to the consumers directly eg. Grofers (now Blinkit) 2. Market Place based model: provides an IT platform on a digital and electronic network to act as facilititator betn buyer and seller 2. B2B: creates an electronic mkt for business producers and users. eg. eSteel 3. C2C: eBay 4. P2P (Peer to Peer): software application that permits consumers to share product like music with ne another directly, without the intervention of a market maker as is the case in C2C

Answer 120

1. Predatory Pricing: a **short-term strategy,** adopted by some of the market giants, may lead to wiping out competition from the market and could be **detrimental to the consumers in the long run.** 2. **Unfair practices:** There are increasing cases of **fake reviews** and **unfair favouritism** in the display of goods. 1. Clearly define **‘drip pricing’** wherein the final cost of the product goes up due to additional charges 2. a more clear-cut definition of what constitutes **Unfair Trade Practice** and **practical legal remedy** to tackle such 3.

Answer 121

* **Apply to all e-commerce retailers,** whether registered in India or abroad, offering goods and services to Indian consumers. * E-commerce entities need to appoint a nodal person, resident in India **to ensure compliance with the provisions of the act or rules.** * The sellers through the e-commerce entities will have to **display the total price of goods and services offered for sale along with the break-up of other charges.** * **Expiry date** of the good needs to be separately displayed. * All relevant details about the goods and services offered for sale by the Seller including **country of origin** and in case of imported goods the **name and details of the importer, and guarantees related to the authenticity or genuineness of the imported products** need to be provided * **Marketplaces,** as well as **sellers,** need to appoint a **grievance officer.** * **No e-commerce entity shall manipulate the price of goods or services to gain unreasonable profit** or **discriminate between consumers** of the same class or make any arbitrary classification of consumers affecting their rights. * **Should not Post Fake Reviews or Mislead** * No e-commerce entity shall impose cancellation charges on consumers.

Answer 122

FDI is allowed under the automatic route in full under the marketplace model of e-commerce but not under the inventory-based model. Further, FDI up to 100% under automatic route is permitted in Business to Business (B2B) e-commerce. .

govt policies for development in various sectors Flashcards

(146 cards)