Gram Positive Bacteria + Flashcards

(88 cards)

1
Q

Staphylococcal characteristics

A

Aerobic cocci, catalase positive violent prolific toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does it mean to be catalase positive? Catalase negative?

A

Catalase positive - bubbling with H2O2
Catalase negative - no bubbling with H2O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What test determines Staph aureus? And how?

A

Coagulate test. Staph aureus is coagulate positive. This means there is clumping when mixed with plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Infections/Syndromes caused by Staph aureus (3)

A

Soft tissue infections
Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSST)
Staph Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of toxin is SSSST and what does it cause?

A

Exfoliative toxin
Generalized peeling of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the toxin of Staph aureus that is a super antigen? And what does it cause?

A

Enterotoxin
Causes quick onset food poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is MRSA and why is it bad?

A

Methicillin Resistant Staph aureus
It is penicillin resistant - produces beta lactamase which breaks up penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Resist phagocytes, hard

A

Capsules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Attaches to fibrinogen, plastic devices, fibrin; can choke a pathway

A

Clumping factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Coagulase

A

Produces clots in capillaries; clots fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Enterotoxin

A

Superantigens causing food poisoning if ingested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

exfoliatoxin

A

Separates layer of epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fibronectin binding protein

A

Attached to acceptors tissue substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Breaks down hyaluronic acid component of tissues

A

Hyaluronidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Kills neutrophils or causes them to release their enzymes

A

P-V Leucoidin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Breaks down fats; can break down the whole body if overreacted

A

Lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Degrade collagen and other tissue proteins

A

Proteases and nucleases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Makes holes in host cell membranes; unnecessary substances in, necessary out (messes up homeostasis)

A

Alpha toxin, beta toxin and delta toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Immunoglobulin binding protein

A

Protein A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Causes rash, diarrhea and shock

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Converts plasminogen to fibriolytic plasma

A

Staphylokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Streptococci characteristics

A

Gram positive, catalase negative, aerobic, M proteins and thick cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does being catalase negative mean?

A

Forms in chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the most common and most devastating groups of strep? (2)

A

Group A and Group B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
C5a peptidase
Inhibits attraction of phagocytes by destroying C5a strep virulence factor
26
Inhibits phagocytosis; aids in penetration of epithelium
Hyaluronic acid capsule
27
M protein
Interferes with phagocytosis by breakdown of C3b opsonin strep virulence factor
28
Protein F
Helps with attachment to host cells
29
Interferes with phagocytosis by binding Fc segment of Ig
Protein G
30
Superantigen responsible for scarlet fever and flesh eating fasciitis
Strep pyrogenic exotoxins
31
Streptolysin O and S
Lyse leukocytes and erythrocytes -> cause infection
32
Enhance spread of bacteria by breaking down DNA, proteins, blood clots, tissue, hyaluronic acid
Tissue degrading enzymes
33
What is alpha hemolysis?
Partial RBC hemolysis by alpha hemolysin
34
What are the 2 bacteria that are alpha hemolytic? How do you tell them apart?
S. pneumoniae and S. Viridans Optochin test
35
What are the results of the optichin test?
S. Pneumoniae - sensitive S. Viridans - resistant
36
Two bacteria under S. Viridans
S. mutans S. sanguis
37
What is beta hemolytic mean?
Complete RBC hemolysis
38
Which bacteria are Beta hemolytic? How do you tell them apart?
S. pyogenes (Group A) and S. agalactiae (Group B) Bacitracin test
39
What are the results of the bacitracin test?
S. pyogenes (Group A) - sensitive S. agalactiae (Group B) - resistant
40
What does Gamma hemolytic mean?
No hemolysis of RBC
41
What two bacteria are gamma hemolytic?
Enterococcus fecalis and Enterococcus faecium
42
What is present when S. pneumoniae is put through an optichin test? How big should it be?
A zone of inhibition 14 mm or greater from the disk
43
What type of plates are used for an optochin test
Blood agar plates
44
Streptococcus pneumoniae characteristics
Gram positive, encapsulated cocci, nonmotile, alpha hemolytic, catalase negative
45
What is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia?
Strep. pneumoniae
46
Pneumococcal pneumonia is a
Facultative anaerobe
47
4 diseases/conditions that S. pneumoniae causes
Adult bacterial meningitis Otitis media sinusitis Mastoiditis
48
What is most common S. Pneumoniae condition in children when they are growing?
Otitis media (middle ear)
49
Strep. pyogenes A characteristics
Beta hemolytic, cocci, catalase negative, gram positive, bacitracin sensitive
50
What does Strep. pyogenes A cause? (5)
Strep throat Necrotizing fasciitis (flesh eating disease) Scarlet fever (strawberry tongue) Strep. Toxic Shock Syndrome Glomerulonephritis
51
Why is flesh eating disease dangerous?
You can get infections in the open air due to exposure of skin IF it is very severe
52
Strep. agalactiae B characteristics
Beta hemolytic, gram positive, bacitracin resistant, catalase negative
53
The leading cause of meningitis and septicemia in neonates
Strep. agalactiae B
54
What can cause skin infections in people with compromised immune systems?
Micrococcus
55
Micrococcus characteristics
Gram positive cocci M. Lutes oxidizes carbohydrates to CO2 and water
56
C. tetani characteristics
Gram positive bacilli, spore forming, anaerobic, do not grow in aerobic, transported by retrograde neuronal flow or blood
57
C. tetani toxin and what type of toxin
Tetanospasmin (exotoxin)
58
What does C. tetani cause?
Tetanus (muscle tone loss) and Lockjaw
59
C. botulinum toxin and what type
botulinum toxin Exotoxin
60
What does C. botulinum cause?
Botulism (muscular paralysis and blurred vision) Botulism food poisoning
61
C. botulinum characteristics
Gram positive Bacilli, spore forming (spores can be airborne), found in soil, fish, meat)
62
What is added to can foods to prevent situation of botulism?
Nitrates/nitrites
63
What does C. perfringens cause?
Gas gangrene/myonecrosis
64
What happens if intestinal tissues necrotize due to C. perfringens?
Enterotoxin is released -> severe diarrhea
65
How does C. perfringens spread?
Food borne
66
Gas production from C. perfringens leads to
Bubbly deformation of infected tissue
67
C. difficile characteristics
GI microflora, in GI tract of children, can cause watery diarrhea
68
Clostridium characteristics
Motile, strictly anaerobic, prolific producers of exotoxins and enterotoxins
69
What is a good stain for Clostridium and why?
Gram stain Spore does not stain, good to identify
70
Actinomycetes characteristics
Fungus like filamentous bacteria, forms branches, pleomorphic, high G and C content, anaerobe
71
Who has mycolic acid in their cell walls?
Actinomycetes
72
Infections/diseases caused by Actinomycetes
Pulmonary infections (nocarditis), actinomycosis, forms abscesses and swelling at the site of infection
73
Propionibacterium characteristics
Gram positive, anaerobes (can grow in aerobic), propanoic acid
74
Cutaneous group and dairy group used in cheese
Propinoic acid
75
What is Propionibacterium linked to? (3)
Certain cases of endocarditis, wound infections, and abscesses
76
What does P. granulosium and S. epidermidis cause?
Acne vulgaris (pimples)
77
Bacillus anthracis characteristics
Gram positive, endospore forming, rod with unique capsule, two plasmid coded exotoxins, strict aerobes
78
Other than humans, Anthrax can be in
Cows, sheep, goats and horses
79
Humans contract anthrax via animal products/contaminated dusts and get (most common to very rare, 3)
Cutaneous infection, inhalation pulmonary anthrax or GI anthrax
80
What does Bacillus cereus cause?
Rice eating related food poisoning
81
What is used for polymyxin production?
Bacillus polymyxa
82
What does Corynebacterium diptheriae cause?
life threatening diseases diptheriae- URI
83
Corynebacterium characteristics
Anaerobic, nonmotile, rod shaped, normally saprophytic (expect for C. diptheriae)
84
Listeria monocytogenes characteristics
Motile, no spores, facultative anaerobe, normal inhabitant of GI tract
85
What does L. monocytogenes cause?
Listeriosis (inflammation of the brain) and severe food poisoning
86
Who is most vulnerable to L. monocytogenes? (4)
Pregnant woman (1/3 cases), newborns, elderly, and immunocompromised patients
87
Lactobacillus characteristics
gram pos, Aerotolerant anaerobes, common in the dairy industry, normal in GI and vagina, derives lactic acid from glucose
88
How does lactobacillus lead to infection?
It creates an acidic environment, inhibits growth of other bacteria, and then causes urogenital infections