haem Flashcards

(68 cards)

1
Q

chronic myeloid leukaemia is caused by what mutation?

A

(T9;22) philadelphia

BCR-ABL1 re-arrangement

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2
Q

what types of leukaemia’s have blocked differentiation/maturation

A

Acute leukaemia’s

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3
Q

define acute leukaemia

A

rapidly progressive clonal malignancy of the marrow/blood with maturation defect(S)

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4
Q

outline ALL

A
  • Malignant disease of primitive lymphoid cells
  • most common childhood cancer
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5
Q

ALL can involve areas outside bone marrow true/false

A

true

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6
Q

some patients with AML can present with what?

A

Coagulation defect (DIC)

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7
Q

what condition can Auer rods be seen

A

AML only

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8
Q

what investigation is needed for a definitive diagnosis of AML/ALL

A

immunophenotyping

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9
Q

how long can ALL treatment last

A

2-3 years (varying intensity)

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10
Q

outline AML treatment

A

intensive chemo (3-4 cycles)

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11
Q

what type of bacteria can cause fulminant life-threatening sespsis in neutropenic patients?

A

Gram negative bacteria

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12
Q

if there is a prolonged neutropenia and persisting fever unresponsive to anti- bacterial agents give ________

A

Anti- fungal

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13
Q

define CLL

A

A clonal (malignant) lymphoproliferative disorder of the mature B lymphocyte compartment

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14
Q

‘smudge/Smear Cell’

A

CLL

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15
Q

what is the difference between leukaemia and lymphoma

A

leukaemia - bone marrow and blood
lymphoma - lymph nodes

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16
Q

differential diagnosis for lymphadenopathy

A

‘reactive’
bacteria infection (regional)
viral infection (generalised)
metastatic malignancy
lymphoma

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17
Q

what IGM are associated with warm and cold AHA

A

COLD - IgM
WARM - IgG

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18
Q

what is the first line prophylactic antibiotic following splenectomy

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

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19
Q

smudge cells

A

CLL

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20
Q

reed-steernberg cells

A

hodgkins lymphoma

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21
Q

diagnosis of sickle cell anaemia involves

A

haemoglobin electrophoresis

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22
Q

teardrop poikilocytes

A

myelofibrosis

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23
Q

Which factors do protein C and S inhibit in the clotting cascade?

A

1985
10a
9
8
5

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24
Q

Normocytic anaemia with normal ferritin, in the presence of an inflammatory or malignant condition + treatment

A

anaemia of chronic disease
supportive treatment+ treat underlying cause

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25
prolonged PT, while aPTT and TT are normal
factor VII deficiency
26
the first type of white blood cell to reach areas of acute inflammation
neutrophils
27
CLL can transform into non-hodgins lymphoma what is this called (B-Cells)
richters transformation
28
first line treatment for immune thrombocytopenic purpura
cortico steroids - increase platelet production and decrease platelet destruction
29
what is a common cause of erythema infectiosum 'fifth disease'
parvovirus B19
30
dry tap on bone marrow aspiration
myelofibrosis
31
iron results due to anaemia of chronic disease
Low serum iron, high ferritin and low transferrin saturation
32
schistocytes
intravascular haemolysis
33
what virus is associated with burkitts lymphoma
EBV
33
Raised red cell mass, low serum erythropoetin, JAK2 mutation present
PCV
33
howell-jolly bodies
hyposplenism
34
typical history for g6pd deficiency
* Neonatal jaundice * Infection/drugs precipitate haemolysis * Gallstones
34
give the typical gender + ethnicity for g6pd deficiency
male (x-linked recessive) african + mediterranean descent
34
gender and ethnicity of hereditery spherocytosis
Male + female (autosomal dominant) northern European descent
34
typical history for hereditary spherocytosis
* Neonatal jaundice *aplastic crisis precipitated by parvovirus infection * Gallstones * Splenomegaly is common * MCHC elevated
35
blood film and diagnostic test for g6pd deficiency
heinz bodies, bite and blister cells Measure enzyme activity of G6PD
36
blood film and diagnostic test for hereditary spherocytosis
spherocytes EMA binding
37
give long term treatment for hereditery spherocytosis
folate replacement splenectomy
38
pathophysiology of g6pd deficiency
↓ G6PD → ↓ reduced NADPH → ↓ reduced glutathione → increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress
39
outline extrinsic pathway
tissue factor/factor VII - monitered by PTT
40
outline intinsic pathway
XII/XI => VIII/IX – monitored by APTT
41
sickle cell inheritance pattern
autosomal recessive
42
starry sky appearance
burkitts lymphoma (non-hodgkins)
43
tumour lysis investigationresults
ECG, U&E (potassium and phosphate, uric acid are typically raised), calcium (low),
44
Normal platelets; prolonged bleeding time; prolonged APTT, normal PT and TT
von willebrand
45
first-line clinical treatment for tumour lysis syndrome
Rasburicase - recombinant urate oxidase, meaning it metabolises uric acid to allantoin
46
which pathogen can cause a sickle-cell crises
strep. pneumoniae
47
burkitts lymphoma mutation
Translocation between chromosomes 8 and 14 is associated with Burkitt's lymphoma
48
CLL treatment and MOA
rimatunib - tyrosine kinase inhibitor
49
mylodyplastic syndrome can turn into
aml
50
what can polycythaemia vera turn into
AML or myelofibrosis
51
prosthetic heart valves may result in
haemolytic anaemia
52
Isolated rise in GGT in the context of a macrocytic anaemia suggests
alcohol excess
53
thalasseamia diagnosis
HPLC
54
burr cells
uraemia
55
Schistocytes or helmet cells
microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
56
Rouleaux formation
multiple myeloma
57
Drugs causing folate deficiency
phenytoin, methotrexate, trimethoprim
58
treatment for warm haemolytic anaemia
prednisolone, splenectomy
59
Widespread petechiae in child 2-week post infection
immune thrombocytopaenia
60
RAT FN (renal failure, anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, fever, neuro dysfunction)
TTP
61
treatment for TTP
plasma and prednisolone
62
increased basophils
CML
63
Most common Hodgkin’s lymphoma
nodular sclerosing