repro Flashcards by Finlay Cormack

PID can increase the risk of?

ectopic pregnancy

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what cancers does COC prevent

Ovarian endometrial

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what cancers does COC cause

cerical and boob

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first line treatment for urge incontinence

bladder re-training

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1st line treatment for stress incontinence

pelvic floor muscle re-training

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whirpool sign

ovarian torsion

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snowstorm appearance

trophoblastic disease

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investigation for endometriosis

transvaginal us

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high AFP

neural tube defects (meningocele, myelomeningocele and anencephaly)
Abdominal wall defects (omphalocele and gastroschisis)
Multiple pregnancy

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low AFP

Down’s syndrome
Trisomy 18
Maternal diabetes mellitus

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what test is done to confirm menopause

rise in FSH

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what age is classified as early menopause

under 40

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what treatment can shrink uterine fibroids

GnHR agonist

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what SSRI is recommended in breastfeeding

paroxetine or srtraline

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investigation for breast lump < 35

ultrasound

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investigation for breast lump > 35

Mammogram

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This aromatase inhibitor is used in post-menopausal patents with breast cancer that oestrogen receptor positive

anastrozole

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is used in patients who have oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer who are pre or peri-menopausal

tamoxifen

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Patients are typically aged between 20 and 40, and present with a firm, very mobile and non-tender breast lump, most commonly in the upper outer quadrant.

fibro adenoma

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It typically occurs after trauma and usually presents as a non-tender and irregularly shaped breast lump.

fat necrosis

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treatment for HER2-receptor-positive breast cancer.

trustazumab

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Patients are typically perimenopausal and present with thick, sticky green or yellow nipple discharge with nipple inversion.

mammary-duct ectasia

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what can make mastitis worse

smoking

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risk factor for fat necrosis

high BMI

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Highly mobile, encapsulated breast masses.

fibroadenoma

Bloody discharge from the nipple which can present with/without a palpable mass. Breast tenderness may also be present.

intraductal papilloma

Presents on mammogram as a stellate pattern of central scarring surrounded by proliferating glandular tissue.

radial scar

star or rosette-shaped lesion with a translucent centre.

radial scar

patients above 50 years old presenting with unilateral nipple discharge

2 week referral

This is the most common type, accounting for about 80% of all breast cancers. It starts in a milk duct, breaks through the wall of the duct, and invades the fatty tissue of the breast.

invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC):

This type begins in the milk-producing glands (lobules) and can spread to other parts of the body.

invasive lobular carcinoma (ILC):

This is a non-invasive or pre-invasive cancer where the cells are confined to the ducts in the breast and have not spread into the surrounding breast tissue.

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

This is not a cancer but an area of abnormal cell growth that increases a person's risk of developing invasive breast cancer later.

Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS):

This is a rare but aggressive type of breast cancer that causes the lymph vessels in the skin of the breast to become blocked.

Inflammatory breast cancer (IBC):

This type lacks oestrogen receptors, progesterone receptors, and does not have an excess of the HER2 protein on the cancer cell surfaces. It tends to be more aggressive and has fewer targeted treatments available.

Triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC):

micro-calcification on mammography

ductal carcinoma in-situ

patient over 30 with unexplained breast lump

urgent referral

smooth, hard, mobile breast mass which can grow rapidly in size over a period of weeks or months in a woman 40-50 years old

phyllodes tumour

what cancers are associated with BRCA2 mutation

prostate breast ovarian pancreatic gastric

_________ can occur after puerperal mastitis is treated with antibiotics. It presents with painful and itchy nipples, with flaky and cracked skin around the areola.

Candida of the nipple

irregularly enlarged uterus

uterine fibroids

when should downs test be done and what does it include

nuchal translucency measurement + serum B-HCG + pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)

↑ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, thickened nuchal translucency

downs

what does the quadruple test measure and when would it be used

alfa-fetoprotein (AFP), unconjugated oestriol, beta-hCG and inhibin A If the window for the combined test was missed, at 14-20 gestation

what should be carried out in shoulder dystocia

McRoberts manouvre

describe mcroberts manouvre

this manoeuvre entails flexion and abduction of the maternal hips, bringing the mother's thighs towards her abdomen

After giving birth, women require contraception after

day 21

'postpartum women (breastfeeding and non-breastfeeding) can start the POP at?

any time postpartum.'

absolutely contraindicated - UKMEC 4 - if breastfeeding < 6 weeks post-partum

COCP

when can COCP be started after birth and why

21 days due to increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum

The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within

48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks.

when does the POP become effective

if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle it provides immediate protection, otherwise additional contraceptive methods (e.g. condoms) should be used for the first 2 days

investigations for ovarian cancer

Blood test for CA-125 Pelvic and abdominal ultrasound scan

most common type of uterine fibroid

intramural -contained to the myometrial layer

young woman ovarian cancer

germ cell

post menopausal ovarian cancer

epithelial

painful periods

mefenamic

heavy periods

tranexamic

Strawberry cervix

thricomonas vaginalis

VDRL positive

syphilis

 increased fundal height, tense cystic uterus, pool depth >18

polyhydramnios

Purulent cervical discharge

gonnorhoea

Bacterial vaginosis treatment

 metronidazole 7 days

Chocolate cyst

endometrioma

ovarian cyst containing hair/teeth

teratoma

avoid alcohol and stay out of the sun

metronidazole

Primary amenorrhoea and low FSH

hypothalamic pituitary insufficiency

FSH is high as no ovaries so no negative feedback

turners

No.1 cause of septic arthritis in sexually active young adults

 Neisseria gonorrhoea

Amenorrhoea following postpartum haemorrhage

sheehan syndrome

Trichomonas vaginalis

metronidazole 7 days oral

gonorrhoea tx

ceftriaxone IM and azithromycin

Elderly with inflammation that treatment doesn’t resolve

 inflammatory breast cancer

repro Flashcards

(73 cards)