HAZARDOUS MATERIALS / ERP Flashcards by James Doyle

E-275 and L-133 respond to an observed biological release in South Jamaica. In an effort to ensure initial scene safety these companies performed several actions. Which action performed needs to be corrected?

A) Establish an initial exclusion zone at least 300’ in all directions from the source or point of release.

B) If release is indoors, evacuate the immediate area and seal off the area by closing doors/windows and using plastic to cover openings.

C) Avoid entry to the site for a minimum time of 15 minutes to allow the biological agent to settle to reduce exposure of inhalation hazard.

D) A biological agent released at dawn, dusk, or during the night will have a greater impact.

C) Avoid entry to the site for a minimum time of 15 minutes to allow the biological agent to settle to reduce exposure of the inhalation hazard. (Incorrect)

(ERP ADD 1, section 5.2.2)

Avoid entry to site for a minimum of 30 MINUTES TO 1 HOUR
Other important times:

Secondary devices = 20 min
Radiation fallout = 15 min

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When discussing the different zones that will be found at hazardous materials incidents, a study group made the following statements. Which one needs to be corrected?

A) All personnel entering the exclusion zone must wear appropriate personal protection.

B) All decontamination activities occur in the Contamination Reduction Zone.

C) People, equipment and apparatus leaving the Exclusion Zone must be decontaminated before leaving the scene.

D) The contamination control line is the boundary between the Contamination Reduction Zone and the Exclusion Zone.

D) The contamination control line is the boundary between the Contamination Reduction Zone and the Exclusion Zone. (Incorrect)

(ERP 4.3.4)

*Contamination control line = boundary between the Contamination Reduction Zone and the SUPPORT ZONE.

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E-303 arrived 1st due at a reported chemical attack in the subway and performed the following actions. In regard to the actions taken by E-303, which did not correctly follow FDNY procedure?

A) Inform 1st arriving ladder and IC if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the gross decon area.

B) When staging apparatus, positioned near the location of the access/egress points of first arriving ladder company performing assessment.

C) Provide emergency gross decon for ambulatory victims in accordance with decon procedures.

D) Provide estimate of number of victims to the IC.

A) Inform 1st arriving ladder and IC if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the gross decon area. (Incorrect)

(ERP ADD 2 7.1)

*Inform 2nd ARRIVING LADDER COMPANY AND IC.

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ERP Haz-Mat outlines general responsibilities for response to a Haz-Mat incident. The 1st arriving Ladder company is responsible for hazard assessment. The 2nd arriving Ladder company is responsible for site access control. ERP further breaks down specific responsibilities for these companies. All of the responsibilities are correctly listed except which?

A) 2nd arriving ladder team 1: Information Resources

B) 2nd arriving ladder team 2: Initial Exclusion Zone

C) 1st arriving ladder team 1: Apparatus Placement

D) 1st arriving ladder team 2: Information Resources

C) 1st arriving ladder team 1: Apparatus Placement (Incorrect)

(ERP 12.1.5)

1st arriving ladder team 1: HAZARD IDENTIFICATION
LCC: Apparatus Placement

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Which statement about the handling of improvised devices is correctly stated?

A) It is easy to discern the difference between improvised explosive devices and improvised incendiary devices.

B) Members shall only move an IED when lives are believed to be in imminent danger.

C) Members shall not handle any type of device thought to be explosive or incendiary.

D) Members may move only an improvised incendiary device using a long handled shovel and when absolutely necessary.

C) Members shall not handle any type of device thought to be explosive or incendiary.

(ERP ADD 3, 4.1)

A - There is no reliable method to determine the difference between an IED and a IID.

B - Members shall not handle any type of device thought to be explosive or incendiary.

D - This is how a former bulletin read (be aware of recent changes)

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While using the RadAlert 50 at a breached package on the side of the highway, your meter begins to alarm. You would know which of the following actions to be correct to take?

A) The hotline was established at a rate of 1mR/hr and marked with red “hazardous materials” barrier tape.

B) Hotline was established at rate of 1mR/hr and marked with yellow “hazardous materials” barrier tape.

C) Hotline established at rate of 2mR/hr and marked with yellow “hazardous materials” barrier tape.

D) Hotline was established at 2mR/hr and marked with red “hazardous materials” barrier tape.

(ERP 4A RadAlert 50 section 2.6)

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You are working in E-287 on the day of the NY Mets victory parade and are ordered to set up an emergency mass decon along with E-289 and L-136, an aerial ladder. You would know that improper procedure is shown in which choice?

A) You directed the positioning of the 2 pumpers parallel to each other approximately 25’ apart with control panels facing the outside.

B) You directed the placement of a turbo master fog nozzle on each pumper on the selected inside discharge gate.

C) You ensured that the operating pressure was monitored to ensure the stream was operated at the recommended operating pressure of 50-80 psi.

D) The Aerial Ladder with a ladder pipe and aqua stream fog nozzle was positioned at the edge of the water spray formed from the pumpers.

B) You directed the placement of a turbomaster fog nozzle on each pumper on the selected inside discharge gate. (Incorrect)

*Turbomaster is for use on Tower Ladders. AQUASTREAM FOG NOZZLES on pumpers.

(Haz-Mat 7 Decontamination Procedures 2.4.4 B)

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What type of radiation is the Ultraradiac capable to detect?

A) Gamma and X-ray

B) Alpha and Beta

C) Beta and Gamma

D) Neutron and X-ray

A) Gamma and X-ray.

(ERP ADD 4D section 1.2)

*The UltraRadiac has the capability to detect Gamma and X-ray radiation. To detect and measure other types of radiation (Alpha, Beta, Neutron) additional instrumentation is required.

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While working a day tour in L-116 you respond to a factory for a drum leaking liquid. You arrive and determine this to be a Haz-Mat incident with an immediate danger of explosion. Which of the following actions taken next is correct?

A) Since there is an immediate danger of explosion you ordered an evacuation of the surrounding area.

B) Since the potential for discharge is great, you ordered the surrounding area to shelter in place.

C) When it was determined that the chemical has a low to moderate toxicity you ordered an evacuation of the surrounding area.

D) Since it was determined that the release can be rapidly controlled at the source you ordered an evacuation of the surrounding area.

A) Since there is an immediate danger of explosion you ordered an evacuation of the surrounding area.

(ERP section 10.5.2)

*Evacuation is best considered when there is an immediate danger of fire or explosion.

B - Evacuation

C+D - Shelter in Place

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While participating in a decon drill at Yankee Stadium, members of L-14 were directed to establish the Contamination Reduction Zone. What color barrier tape should L-14 use for perimeter identification of this zone?

A) Red

B) Yellow

C) Green

D) Blue

B) Yellow

(ERP section 3.3.5)

*Yellow barrier tape should be used for per tier identification of the contamination reduction zone.

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Members drilling on the UltraRadiac radiological monitoring instrument would know that the low rate alarm for this instrument is set at?

A) 2mR/hr

B) 5R

C) 50mR/hr

D) 12r

A) 2mR/hr

(ERP ADD 4D section 7)

2mR/hr - low rate

5R - low dose

50R/hr - high rate

12R - high dose

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Which statement about an improvised explosive device is correct?

A) The effectiveness of the device will not be limited by the attackers ability to obtain large quantities of the necessary ingredients.

B) An IED can be as lethal as conventional military explosives.

C) The greatest harm caused by an IED would be chemical, biological or radiological material.

D) IED’s are always made of homemade explosives.

B) An IED can be as lethal as conventional military explosives.

(ERP ADD 3 2.2)

A - May be limited

C - The greatest harm is the explosive itself

D - IED’s come from many sources

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Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding the UltraRadiac radiological monitoring instrument?

A) Fire officers will be required to wear and have their designated UltraRadiacs turned on whenever they are out of quarters for emergencies and non emergency operations.

B) Officers shall ensure that their designated UltraRadiacs are turned off when in quarters.

C) Officers shall ensure that their designated UltraRadiacs are tested and the accumulated doses are cleared at the start of each tour.

D) Officer’s UltraRadiacs can be secured to the bunker coat by the UltraRadiac case.

D) Officer’s UltraRadiacs can be secured to the bunker coat by the UltraRadiac case. (Incorrect)

(ERP ADD 4 11.2)

An UltraRadiac designated for use by an Officer shall be continuously secured to the Officer’s handie-talkie case by use of the UltraRadiac retention strap.
One designated to a firefighter can be secured to either handie-talkie case or bunker coat.

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At what level does the RadAlert 50 radiological monitor begin to alarm?

A) 1.000 mR/hr

B) 2.000 mR/hr

C) 5.000 mR/hr

D) 50.000 mR/hr

A) 1.000 mR/hr

(ERP ADD 4 RadAlert 50 section 2.6)

1.000mR/hr is also our action level.
2mR/hr is our Hotline (this defined our hot zone and it’s marked with red tape)
Know the operational difference between 1mR/hr and 2mR/hr.

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All uniformed members of the FDNY receive entry level hazardous materials training in their respective academies and refresher courses. This training provides every member wit he knowledge and clues to recognize signs of a hazardous materials incident. Firefighters are trained to which level at a minimum?

A) Awareness level

B) Operations level

C) Technician level 1

D) Technician level 2

B) Operations level

(ERP 3.2)

Awareness level = EMS 
Operations level = Firefighters
Technician level 1 = SOC Support Trucks
Technician level 2 = Squad / Rescue / Hazmat Tech
Specialist = HazMat

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Members of E-100 and L-99 were drilling on the topic of control zones at hazardous materials incidents. Which point made at the drill concerning the hot (exclusion) zone is incorrect?

A) The hotline may be readjusted based on additional observation and/or measurements. Yellow barrier tape should be used to identify the exclusion zone.

B) The exclusion zone or hot zone is the innermost area of the scene and is considered contaminated or hot.

C) The hotline, the boundary of the exclusion zone, should be established initially based on the type of released. Arterial and the initial instrument readings.

D) People, equipment, and apparatus leaving the exclusion zone should be considered contaminated and must be decontaminated before leaving the scene.

A) The hotline may be readjusted based on additional observation and/or measurements. Yellow barrier tape should be used to identify the exclusion zone. (Incorrect)

(ERP 4.2)

*RED BARRIER TAPE identifies the exclusion zone.

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Members were drilling on Support and Contamimation Reduction Zones. Which is the only correct statement made concerning the cold and warm zones?

A) The Support zone is the outermost area of the site and is considered to be uncontaminated. This zone is not designated a controlled area however no contaminated persons, equipment, or apparatus are permitted in the cold zone.

B) All decontamination activities occur in the contamination reduction zone. Red or orange barrier tape should be used for perimeter identification of the contamination reduction zone.

C) The contamination reduction zone is an area provided to prevent or reduce the transfer of contaminants that may have been picked up by personnel and equipment exiting the exclusion zone.

D) Moving further away from the exclusion zone does not allow for personnel to operate in a decreased level of personal protective equipment.

C) The contamination reduction zone is an area provided to prevent or reduce the transfer of contaminants that may have been picked up by personnel and equipment exiting the exclusion zone.

(ERP 4.3)

A - Support zone is considered a CONTROLLED ZONE.

B - Contamination reduction zone = YELLOW barrier tape

D - Moving away from exclusion zone MAY ALLOW personnel to operate in a decreased level of PPE.

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Decontamination is the process of reducing levels of toxic or otherwise harmful substances from personnel, equipment and apparatus. This process is one of the most important steps in ensuring personal safety at a hazardous materials incident. Which point(s) listed below is/are incorrect?

A) Emergency decontamination may be necessary in potentially life threatening situations to remove victims as expeditiously as possible and always involves the formal establishment of a decontamination system.

B) The thoroughness and extent of decontamination operations required at an incident depends on the safety and health hazards of the contaminant(s).

C) Gross decontamination can be either emergency decontamination or non emergency decontamination. Two common methods of gross decon used in emergencies are wet and dry decontamination.

D) Technical decontamination, which may involve the use of special solution or equipment, is a more thorough decon process and takes place before gross decon.

E) Separate decon areas should be established for emergency personnel unless time and equipment do not allow for this. In such case the decon area will be shared by patients and responders with priority going to the patients.

B & C are correct

(ERP 4.3.9)

A - Emergency decon MAY OR MAY NOT involve the formal establishment of a decon system.

D - Technical decon takes place AFTER gross decon.

E - Separate decon areas should ALWAYS be established for responders.

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Which level of chemical protective clothing would encompass the use of full face air purifying respirators and powered air purifying respirators?

A) Level A

B) Level B

C) Level C

D) Level D

E) None of the above

C) Level C

(ERP 5.6)

Level A - SCBA / Vapor tight suit

Level B - SCBA / Splash suit

Level C - Air purifying respirators

Level D - Nuisance contamination only

*Bunker gear is NOT CPC

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Which level of CPC will provide the highest level of respiratory protection and offers vapor tight chemical clothing?

A) Level A

B) Level B

C) Level C

D) Level D

E) None of the above

A) Level A

(ERP 5.6.1)

Level A - SCBA / Vapor tight suit

Level B - SCBA / Splash suit

Level C - Air purifying respirators

Level D - Nuisance contamination only

*Bunker gear is NOT CPC

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Which level of CPC offers thermal protection in case of fire and can be used for protection from all hazardous materials in an emergency?

A) Level A

B) Level B

C) Level C

D) Level D

E) None of the above

(ERP 5.4)

*No level of special protection can protect you from every hazardous material.

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First responders should avoid leaks, spills, and obvious sources of hazards as well as direct and indirect contact with potentially contaminated areas and victims. Full firefighting gear and SCBA shall be used as a minimum of protection against exposure. Structural firefighter protective clothing i.e. Bunker gear is classified as level D protective clothing? Do you agree or disagree with this statement?

A) Agree

B) Disagree

(ERP 5.3, 5.7)

*Bunker gear does not classify as CPC

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At all incidents where the Haz Mat Battalion responds, whether it’s a small incident or a large incident the Haz Mat battalion will operate at the command post with the IC in an advisory role. Do you agree or disagree with this statement?

A) Agree

B) Disagree

(ERP 8.2)

Small incidents = HM Battalion reports to IC
Larger incidents = IC will have an advisory role to HM battalion

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A group of 5 lieutenants were discussing the different units with Haz Mat training and their functions at Haz Mat incidents. Each of the lieutenants made a statement. Which statements below are incorrect?

Haz Mat Company 1 members are trained to the specialist level and can identify materials, control spills, neutralize a released material, and coordinate with other city agency personnel.
Haz Mat Tech Units (HMTU) are trained to the Tech 1 level. These units are trained in air monitoring instruments and carry all levels of CPC clothing on their second piece.
Rescue companies are trained to the Tech 2 level and carry CPC and some metering devices as well as mitigation equipment. Rescue companies can be used for assessment, search and rescue.
SOC support ladders are trained to Tech 1 level and are trained in CPC, monitoring instruments, and decontamination procedures. SOC support ladder companies can perform mitigation activities if necessary.
The primary objective of CPC ladder companies is to perform rescue operations of non ambulatory victims in the contaminated area or the exclusion zone.

A) 1,3,5 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,5 D) 2,4,5

B) 2,3,4 are INCORRECT

(ERP 8.5 - 8.9)

2 - HMTU are trained to the TECH 2 level.

3 - Rescue companies LACK MITIGATION EQUIPMENT.

4 - SOC support ladders DO NOT DO MITIGATION.

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A 10-80 no code is used for an incident that can be controlled by the on scene unit or units and requires no additional resources. All of the following are guidelines for transmitting the signal 10-80 no code except which one? A) Release is of a small quantity B) The material has been identified but it's hazards are unknown. C) Firefighter PPE provides adequate protection against the hazards. D) Special equipment and specialized training are not needed.

B) The material has been identified but it's hazards are unknown. (Incorrect) (ERP 9.1, 9.2) "SIPS" Small quantity Identified material or hazard PPE adequate Special equipment not needed

Evacuation involves moving threatened persons to a shelter in another area. Evacuation is clearly safer than sheltering in place with respect to the hazards but has certain limitations. Evacuation is best considered in all of the following situations except which one? A) There is a possibility of fire or explosion. B) The potential for discharge is great, it has not taken place, and there is time to relocate people. C) The discharge has taken place but people are sufficiently protected to permit time for evacuation. D) People not yet in the path of a release will be threatened by changing conditions.

A) There is a possibility of fire or explosion. (INCORRECT) (ERP 10.5.2) *Evacuation is best considered when there is an IMMEDIATE DANGER OF FIRE OR AN EXPLOSION.

Sheltering in place is the preferred alternative when pre planning has identified options for problem areas such as hospitals, jails, nursing homes, and public assemblies. When deciding to shelter in place the hazardous material should display which one of the following characteristics? A) Low to high toxicity B) Partially released and dissipating C) A migrating vapor of low toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside. D) Small to moderate solid or liquid leak.

C) A migrating vapor of low toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside. (ERP 10.5.5) A - Low to MODERATE toxicity B - TOTALLY RELEASED and dissipating D - SMALL solid or liquid leak.

Which general consideration of the first arriving unit is the most correct when there is a known life hazard but there are no HazMat resources on scene with CPC? A) Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able bodied (ambulatory) persons from immediate danger. Involvement in complicated rescue situations should not be attempted. B) An attempt to identify the material and it's hazards should become a top priority. Use CPC as a minimum to be protected from unnecessary exposure to contaminants. C) When the probability is high that the victim is not viable, rescue or recovery should not be attempted if it will place the rescuer at unnecessary risk. D) Given the limited capability of units arriving first at the scene of a hazardous materials incident, premature commitment of companies and personnel to unknown, potentially hazardous situations/locations should be carefully evaluated before being attempted.

C) When the probability is high that the victim is not viable, rescue or recovery should not be attempted if it will place the rescuer at unnecessary risk. (ERP 11) A - Involvement in complicated rescue situations SHOULD BE CAREFULLY EVALUATED. B - Use PPE PERSONAL PROTECTIVE CLOTHING as a minimum D - Commitment if companies to hazardous situations MUST BE carefully evaluated.

Lt. Kurt arrives at a subway chemical attack where 750 people need to be decontaminated as quickly as possible. Lt. Kurt should transmit a 10-80 Code ____ and should call how many mass decon task forces? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 and special call 2 additional mass decon task forces D) 4 and special call 3 additional mass decon task forces

D) 4 and special call 3 additional mass decon task forces (ERP 9.5) *For every 250 people contaminated call an ADDITIONAL MDTF

You are a Captain working a day tour in E-29 and going to the Rock for training. Prior to the start of the scenario you are told it involves some type of terrorism related incident. Which two statements made were incorrect? A) If the incident involves any type of biological agent, symptoms will not be apparent for hours, days or longer. B) If the incident involves a chemical attack the results will be immediate. C) The FDNY does not have any devices that can detect the presence of a biological agent instantaneously. D) The presence of biological agents cannot be confirmed without laboratory tests. E) Victims exposed to the same biological agent will have fairly consistent signs and symptoms.

A) If the incident involves any type of biological agent, symptoms will not be apparent for hours, days or longer. (INCORRECT) E) Victims exposed to the same biological agent will have fairly consistent signs and symptoms. (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 1, 2.1.1) A - MOST TYPES of biological agents will not show symptoms for hours, days or longer. (Ricin and mycotoxins are exceptions to the delayed effects of biological agents as they WILL show immediate symptoms) E - Biological = victims will have different signs and symptoms when exposed to the same agent. Chemical = victims will relatively have the same signs and symptoms when exposed to the same agent.

During a recent Education Day lecture at the Rock the instructor made the following comments about biological incidents. He was correct in all but which one? A) Biological toxins are many times more lethal than chemical nerve agents. B) First responders will usually have to deal with the crux of the emergency during an accidental biological occurrence. C) Production of biological agents can be inexpensive and necessary ingredients easily obtained. D) A toxin is a poisonous substance produced by a living organism.

B) First responders will usually have to deal with the crux of the emergency during an accidental biological occurrence. (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 1, 1 and 2.1) *First responders will deal with CHAOS AND OVERREACTION FROM THE PUBLIC.

How many of the following situations may provide a clue of the presence of an intentional biological incident? 1 - The presence of an abandoned spray device that is out of place 2 - Containers from laboratories and culture plates in a hotel room 3 - An unusual number of sick or dying animals 4 - An IED explosion with only minimal damage A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

D) 4 (All provide clues to the presence of an intentional bio incident) (ERP ADD 1, 3.2)

You are the officer of the first arriving unit for an overt biological release. Of the actions listed below, which would be incorrect for you to order? A) Order all firefighters in your unit to use respiratory protection. B) Establish the initial exclusion zone a minimum of 300 feet in all directions from the source. C) If the leak is indoors, evacuate and leave doors and windows open if possible to allow the agent to settle. D) Avoid entry into an area for a minimum of 30 minutes.

C) If the leak is indoors, evacuate and leave doors and windows open if possible to allow the agent to settle (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 1, 5.2.1) C - If the leak is indoors, YOU WANT TO SEAL THE AREA. (Not leave doors and windows open)

Meteorological conditions can have a great influence on the effectiveness of a biological dispersal. Which is a correct statement? A) A biological agent released at dawn will have a greater impact than the same one released at dusk or afternoon. B) The sun's UV rays will strengthen biological agents. C) Lower humidity is more conducive to dispersal of a dried biological agent. D) Higher humidity is detrimental to the dissemination of a liquid agent.

C) Lower humidity is more conducive to dispersal of a dried biological agent. (ERP ADD 1, 5.6.3) A - Agent released at dawn will have a greater impact than one released during the afternoon (RELEASES AT DAWN/DUSK/NIGHT WILL HAVE A GREATER IMPACT) B - Sun's UV rays can DESTROY some biological agents D - High humidity = good for dispersal of liquid agent Low humidity = good for dispersal of dried agent

First responders should operate upwind of an aerosol release and evacuate civilians that are downhill to a safer location. Do you agree or disagree? A) Agree B) Disagree

A) Agree | ERP ADD 1

Which of the following is not a correct action for a response to a possible biological release? A) Since this is presumed to be a biological release, use of any metering devices is not necessary. B) Members may use an AV2000 respirator instead of the SCBA C) Suspicious objects should not be touched or moved. D) Shut down the HVAC even though this may create more problems for people sheltering in place.

A) Since this is presumed to be a biological release, use of any metering devices is not necessary. (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 1, 6.2.1) *Members SHOULD USE METERS to rule out chemical and radiological hazards.

You are the captain working in E-56 responding on a CFR-D run for an adult male with difficulty breathing. Upon arrival you are met with a patient that has difficulty breathing, a high fever and has recently developed a rash. Which one of the following is an incorrect action in this situation? A) The patient should be wrapped in a sheet or gown. B) Obtain contact information for other people in the household. C) Place a non rebreather on the patient. D) Remove contaminated PPE prior to entering the hospital or station.

D) Remove contaminated PPE prior to entering the hospital or station. (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 1, 7.2) D - Remove contaminated PPE prior to entering AMBULANCE OR APPARATUS.

While writing the roll call at 0900 a 65-2 comes over the teleprinter warning of a possible covert biological incident and ordering a Bio Response Level II. Which is not one of the precautions taken during a Bio Response Level II? A) Minimize the number of firefighters making patient contact on CFR-D responses B) Wash hands or use antiseptic towelettes between patients. C) N95 respirator and eye protection required prior to entering patient location. D) Reverse isolate the patient

C) N95 respirator and eye protection required prior to entering patient location. (ERP ADD 1, 8.1.2) *N95/eye protection required for RESPONSE LVL III. Level I = Preparedness Level II = contagious biological outside of NYC Level III = contagious biological inside of NYC

During the decontamination process for biological agents, respiratory protection is the last item removed. Do you agree or disagree? A) Agree B) Disagree

A) Agree | ERP ADD 1

Members of the 1st arriving Ladder Company will be divided into teams. No person involved in the operational activities of these teams is to work alone. Some members of the 2nd arriving Ladder Company will be divided into teams. Which of the following teams is correctly indicated? A) 1st arriving Ladder Team 1: Hazard ID 1st arriving Ladder Team 2: Information resources 2nd arriving Ladder Team 1: Initial Exclusion Zone 2nd arriving Ladder Team 2: Hazard ID B) 1st arriving Ladder Team 1: Initial Exclusion Zone 1st arriving Ladder Team 2: Hazard ID 2nd arriving Ladder Team 1: Information Resources 2nd arriving Ladder Team 2: Hazard ID C) 1st arriving Ladder Team 1: Hazard ID 1st arriving Ladder Team 2: Information Resources 2nd arriving Ladder Team 1: Information Resources 2nd arriving Ladder Team 2: Initial Exclusion Zone D) 1st arriving Ladder Team 1: Initial Exclusion Zone 1st arriving Ladder Team 2: Information Resources 2nd arriving Ladder Team 1: Hazard ID 2nd arriving Ladder Team 2: Information Resources

C) 1st arriving Ladder Team 1: Hazard ID 1st arriving Ladder Team 2: Information Resources 2nd arriving Ladder Team 1: Information Resources 2nd arriving Ladder Team 2: Initial Exclusion Zone (ERP 12.1 / 12.2) "HA-sac WA-sac"

Which statement is incorrect concerning the duties and operations of the 1st and 2nd arriving Ladder companies at a hazardous materials incident? A) The 1st arriving ladder is responsible for Hazard Assessment. B) The 2nd arriving ladder is responsible for controlling access to the site and for establishing an initial exclusion zone. C) Both LCCs position the apparatus out of the hazard area and as a barrier for site access. Only the 2nd arriving LCC establishes physical barriers to the area using barrier tape, traffic cones, traffic signs etc. D) The teams assigned to Information Resources from both the 1st and 2nd Ladder companies may be used to provide backup. E) When the Initial exclusion zone is established, the 2nd arriving ladder team will remain outside the exclusion zone to deny access until relieved or as ordered.

C) Both LCCs position the apparatus out of the hazard area and as a barrier for site access. Only the 2nd arriving LCC establishes physical barriers to the area using barrier tape, traffic cones, traffic signs etc. (INCORRECT) (ERP 12.1.4 - 12.2.5) * BOTH LCCs will establish physical barriers using tape, cones etc.

The 1st arriving Engine Company has several duties at a HazMat incident. Which of the following choices does not correctly describe these duties? A) The 1st arriving engine is responsible for water supply. Members will remain together as a unit unless otherwise ordered by the IC. B) A line should be stretched and placed into operation as soon as it is available to provide decontamination of victims. C) The factors that determine the size and placement of the handline with a fog nozzle include: proximity to access/egress control points for decon, protection of exposures, run off of the stream and nearby sewers and drains that may be affected. D) If necessary, members of the 1st engine may perform CFR duties.

B) A line should be stretched and placed into operation as soon as it is available to provide decontamination of victims. (INCORRECT) (ERP 13.1.2 - 13.1.6) * A line should be stretched and placed into operation WHEN THE IC orders it.

Who determines the appropriate level of PPE for responder operations at a HazMat incident? A) HazMat company 1 officer B) The IC C) The officer of the 1st arriving HazMat Technician Unit D) The 1st arriving Battalion Chief

A) HazMat company 1 officer | ERP 15.13.1

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the 2nd and 3rd arriving engines at a HazMat incident? A) The 2nd arriving Engine Company is responsible for assisting and coordinating with the 2nd ladder company to control access to the site. B) Member of the 2nd engine company will remain together as a unit unless otherwise ordered by the IC. This engine company may assist the 1st engine company in water supply, line placement, site control or evacuation. C) If necessary, members of the 2nd arriving engine company may perform CFR-D duties. D) The 3rd arriving engine companies duties are limited to performing CFR-D for the safety of fire department members as well as victims removed that may have been exposed or injured.

D) The 3rd arriving engine companies duties are limited to performing CFR-D for the safety of fire department members as well as victims removed that may have been exposed or injured. (INCORRECT) (ERP 13.2.2) *3rd Engine NORMALLY does CFR UNLESS 1st and 2nd due are doing CFR, then they will do water supply and decon or site control.

Engine 44, a HazMat Tech Engine, arrives 1st on scene of a PCB leak at a ConEd Generating Substation. Neither HazMat Company 1 nor the HazMat Battalion is on scene. As the 1st arriving HazMat Technician Unit on scene, which action taken by Engine 44 is correct? A) The Entry Team Leader relayed information obtained by the Entry Team to the HazMat Company 1 Officer via department radio. B) The Back-Up Team Leader completed operations in the Exclusion Zone when it was determined that the a Entry Team was unable to complete their assignment. C) A Decon Team was established, assisted by an Engine Company in full PPE and SCBA. The Decon Team set up a Contamination Reduction Corridor to be used by both members and civilians at the same time. D) The captain of Engine 44 refused to relinquish his position as the HazMat Group supervisor to the Lieutenant from HazMat 1, due to chain of command procedures.

B) The Back-Up Team Leader completed operations in the Exclusion Zone when it was determined that the a Entry Team was unable to complete their assignment. (ERP 15.2.1) A - Entry Team leader relayed info obtained by Entry team to the HazMat Company RESOURCE TECH. B - Correct C - Members and civilians use SEPARATE decon zones D - The HazMat Lt. has MORE EXPERTISE.

Engine 1 arrives at the scene of a large explosion and leak at a chemical tank farm. Due to severe traffic conditions, Engine 1 anticipates operating alone for several minutes. The officer of Engine 1 is met upon arrival by plant personnel, who tell him that there are several victims trapped in an underground control room and the ground floor of an office near the explosion site. The officer of Engine 1 would be correct in which thought? A) Engine 1 may attempt to rescue the victims trapped in the underground control room and ground floor office immediately due to the known life hazard. B) Engine 1 may attempt to rescue the victims from the ground floor office immediately. Engine 1 should wait for adequate resources to arrive on scene before attempting below ground operations. C) Only when adequate resources are on scene should members attempt to rescue the victims in the ground floor office and below ground control room. D) Rescue of victims from below ground and interior locations should not be attempted by FDNY units, but rather by higher trained DEP personnel.

C) Only when adequate resources are on scene should members attempt to rescue the victims in the ground floor office and below ground control room. (ERP 16.13)

Ladder 200, a CPC Ladder company, arrives at the scene of a large scale hazardous materials incident by themselves. While awaiting the arrival of additional units, which is an incorrect action or thought to consider? A) The officer of Ladder 200 should provide a detailed preliminary report as soon as possible. B) Members should don their Level A suits due to the extreme danger caused by the hazardous materials released. C) The officer establishes a command post in the Support Zone upwind and uphill of the hazardous release. D) The members of Ladder 200 concentrate on controlling ambulatory victims, and direct self evacuating victims to a safe area of refuge.

B) Members should don their Level A suits due to the extreme danger caused by the hazardous materials released. (INCORRECT) (HazMat ERP 15.2.4) * If the first units on scene are CPC Ladder Companies or SOC Support Ladder Companies, these units SHOULD NOT PERFORM HAZMAT DUTIES until additional companies arrive to control ambulatory victims. Scene control may be COMPROMISED if these units take the time to don CPC.

Several agencies work together at HazMat incidents. Which duty below is correct? A) NYPD will function as the On-Scene Coordinator and will arrange private sector containment, control, clean up and disposal of hazardous materials where necessary. B) Department of Sanitation will clean up and dispose of materials (except liquids) rendered harmless, as determined by DEP and DOHMH. C) DOHMH will ensure proper mitigation and disposal of chemical agents. D) OEM will perform searches for secondary devices and provide hazardous materials response personnel if available.

B) Department of Sanitation will clean up and dispose of materials (except liquids) rendered harmless, as determined by DEP and DOHMH. (HAZMAT ERP 18.2.1) A - OEM functions as on scene coordinator... B - Correct C - DOHMH = RADIOLOGICAL & BIOLOGICAL agents DEP = Chemical agents D - NYPD will perform searches for secondary devices...

Clean up operations are not FDNY functions. However, the FDNY is responsible for ensuring that clean up operations take place. Which is an incorrect statement concerning incident termination procedures? A) The FD will cooperate with DEP in arranging clean up activities. B) The Hazardous Materials Unit may take samples of materials for testing by DEP or DOHMH. C) Under no circumstances should any fire department unit, including the Hazardous Materials Unit, transport these samples or any hazardous material. D) If operations are concluded and DEP or DOHMH has not arrived at the scene, these samples will remain at the scene for pickup. HazMat Company 1 or a HazMat Tech Unit must remain with these samples until released to the appropriate agency.

D) If operations are concluded and DEP or DOHMH has not arrived at the scene, these samples will remain at the scene for pickup. HazMat Company 1 or a HazMat Tech Unit must remain with these samples until released to the appropriate agency. (INCORRECT) (HAZMAT ERP 19.1.3) * A FIRE DEPT UNIT or a FIRE MARSHALL remains with samples.

Units arrive on the scene of a rubbish fire in front of a loading dock in a factory. There is smoke coming from the roll down gates that are securing the loading dock door. Next to the loading dock, units notice a NFPA diamond posted. Looking at the diamond posted below, which is a correct statement? A) The Health Hazard would be determined to be slightly hazardous. B) The flash point is above 200 degrees Fahrenheit C) The reactivity hazard should not be an issue, as the product is stable D) In the special hazards box, the OX means that there is most likely Oxygen tanks stored inside. \ / \ / \ 2 / \ / 3 \/ 0 / \ / \ / OX \ / \

C) The reactivity hazard should not be an issue, as the product is stable. (HAZMAT ERP NFPA DIAMOND) "Hot Farts Rise" Left side = HEALTH HAZARD (blue) Top = FLAMMABILITY (red) Right side = REACTIVITY (yellow) Bottom = SPECIAL HAZARDS (white) 4 = MOST SEVERE HAZARD 0 = LEAST HAZARDOUS

Ladder 13 has responded to an alarm for an odor in a NYC subway station. There is a distinct odor of garlic in the station, but no people in the station are exhibiting any outward signs or symptoms of distress. A possible cause of this can be due to exposure to which type of chemical agent? A) Sarin (nerve agent) B) Phosgene (choking agent) C) Hydrogen Cyanide (pulmonary agent) D) Mustard (blister agent)

D) Mustard (blister agent) (ERP ADD 2 2.2) A - Sarin (nerve) FRUITY ODOR B - Phosgene (choking) CHLORINE / GRASS ODOR C - Hydrogen Cyanide (pulmonary) BURNT ALMONDS D - Mustard (blister) GARLIC (LEWISITE also smells like garlic or geraniums)

The officer of the 1st unit to arrive at a suspected chemical attack underground is charged with the initial recognition of the incident. Indicators of people adversely affected by the release would include which of the following? Indicate all that are correct. A) Civilians displaying similar signs and symptoms such as pulmonary distress, cardiac distress, skin lesions or numerous fatalities with no apparent cause of injury or trauma. B) Presence of suspicious spray devices, cylinders, powders, gels or liquids. C) Unusual odors D) Mists or vapor clouds

ALL ANSWERS ARE CORRECT | ERP ADD 2 3.1

An Engine company lieutenant has arrived 1st at an alarm for a suspicious package in the subway. Upon arrival numerous civilians are self evacuating the below ground station exhibiting outward signs of exposure to a nerve agent. The lieutenant should perform / realize all of the following with which exception? A) Transmit a 10-80 with the appropriate code B) Operate downwind of the chemical release C) Ensure members avoid contact with puddles, liquids, vapors and mists D) Be aware of secondary devices and multiple release points. Protection from a secondary device shall take priority over establishing a command post or staging area.

B) Operate downwind of the chemical release (ERP ADD 2 3.3, 4.1-4.8) * Operate UPWIND of release

A captain has been charged by the IC with establishing the incident command post during a chemical attack incident in the subway. The captain wishes to place the command post in the best possible location. This location can be found in which choice? A) In the Support Zone, outside the subway entrance, away from ventilation gratings, upwind from the incident. B) In the Contamination Reduction Zone, near the subway entrance, line of sight with the 1st level of the subway station stairwell. C) In the Safe Refuge Area, upwind of incident, line of sight with incident, away from ventilation gratings. D) In the Hot Zone, on top of nearest subway gratings, downwind of incident.

A) In the Support Zone, outside the subway entrance, away from ventilation gratings, upwind from the incident. (ERP HAZMAT pg 7) A - Correct B - Contamination Reduction Zone = Warm Zone C - Safe Refuge Area = Inside Warm Zone (exposed ppl are kept here prior to decon) D - Hot Zone = Exclusion Zone

You are the officer of the 1st arriving unit to arrive at an alarm for a chemical release in the NYC subway system below grade. Upon arrival at the station you look down the subway stairs and within your sight are numerous victims both conscious and unconscious, exhibiting signs and symptoms consistent with a chemical attack. In this situation, you were correct in which decision you made? A) You ordered the rescue of any non ambulatory victims, ensuring that all members were equipped with bunker gear and using an SCBA. B) Ordered members of your unit not to enter the subway and operated in a defensive mode. C) Did not assist with the self evacuating civilians, despite having all members wearing bunker gear and using an SCBA. D) Ordered the rescue of the nearest trapped or incapacitated persons in the station using a minimum number of personnel.

B) Ordered members of your unit not to enter the subway and operated in a defensive mode. (ERP ADD 2 4.5.4) A - DO NOT rescue incapacitated civilians B - Correct C - You CAN ASSIST self evacuating civilians (direct them, don't touch) D - DO NOT rescue incapacitated civilians

Initial strategic and technical considerations at a chemical release in the subway will be incident driven. A sharp officer at these incidents would be incorrect if he were to believe which statement? A) If the dispersal device is still active, perform mitigation by attempting to stop the device. B) Members operating in bunker gear should not proceed into the exclusion zone any further than the farthest live victim when performing hazard assessment or rescue of ambulatory victims. C) Immediate actions should include checking for secondary devices and monitoring radiation levels. D) Avoid any contact with the suspected agent, as well as,physical contact with contaminated victims.

A) If the dispersal device is still active, perform mitigation by attempting to stop the device. (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 2 5.1-5.5) * DO NOT GO NEAR DEVICE MAKE NO ATTEMPT TO STOP DEVICE

Students from a study group in Staten Island were discussing duties of the 2nd ladder company to arrive at a confirmed chemical release in the subway system. They were incorrect in which statement? A) Coordinate and limit site access, remaining outside of the exclusion zone. B) Bring a stokes stretcher/sked with a length of utility rope to drag non ambulatory victims to the gross decontamination area, if necessary. C) Direct ambulatory victims to the gross decon area if necessary D) Define the initial exclusion zone with yellow fire line tape.

D) Define the initial exclusion zone with yellow fire line tape (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 2 6.4) * Define Exclusion Zone with RED HAZMAT BARRIER TAPE

The unit which is charged with providing an estimate of the number of victims to the IC at a below ground chemical release is the: A) 1st Ladder company B) 2nd Ladder company C) 1st Engine company D) 3rd Engine company

C) 1st Engine company | ERP ADD 2 7.1.7

The officer of the 1st engine company to arrive at a chemical attack underground should realize that his unit is charged with all of the following duties except which? A) Locate a working hydrant, but do not hook up to it until ordered by the IC. B) Remain outside the subway system unless ordered by the IC C) Provide emergency gross decon for ambulatory victims of the attack D) Inform the incident commander and 2nd arriving ladder company officer if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the gross decon area.

A) Locate a working hydrant, but do not hook up to it until ordered by the IC. (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 2 7.1) * Regular subway incident = Do not hook up to hydrant Chemical attack in subway = HOOKUP TO HYDRANT

Initiated by flame or impact, it detonates at speeds less than 3000 feet per second. This definition pertains to what choice listed below? A) High explosive B) Moderate explosive C) Low explosive D) Minimal explosive

C) Low explosive | ERP ADD 3, 3.2

There are five forms of stimuli initiate explosions. Which of the following is not mentioned as one of the five? A) Friction B) Brisance C) Electronic discharge D) Shock

B) Brisance | ERP ADD 3 3.5

A Molotov Cocktail is considered what type of arson device? A) Improvised Explosive Device (IED) B) Chemical Reaction Bomb C) Improvised Incendiary Device (IID) D) All of the above

C) Improvised Incendiary Device (IID) | ERP ADD 3, 4.1

Letters/package IEDs are usually victim activated during the opening process. Suspicious characteristics of a letter/package IED include all but which of the following? A) Mailed from a foreign country. B) Excessive postage C) Stained and unusual odor D) Return address provided

D) Return address provided. (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 3, 4.3.2) * NO RETURN ADDRESS

A lieutenant at a special event notices a teenager holding a backpack in a crowd of people. The teen appears out of place and looks nervous and fidgety. In this situation, the Officer should take what appropriate action? A) Confront the teenager and insist he open his backpack B) Grab the teen from behind and bring him to the ground C) Notify the Bureau of Fire Investigation of his suspicions D) Do nothing since the Officer is most likely jumping to conclusions

C) Notify the Bureau of Fire Investigation of his suspicions | ERP ADD 3, 4.3.4, 5.3

Upon entry into a private dwelling during an odor of gas incident, a Ladder company lieutenant observes clandestine lab equipment inside the kitchen. Under these circumstances, the a Officer should take what initial action? A) Retrace steps and back out of the area B) Determine the type of lab prior to leaving C) Contact the IC via HT as to his findings D) Confiscate a piece of lab equipment for evidence purposes.

A) Retrace steps and back out of the area | ERP ADD 3 5.7

Select the correct action a company officer should perform, regarding the discovery of a firearm at the scene of an incident. A) Have member check to see if firearm is loaded B) Keep members out of line of the muzzle of the firearm C) Have a member use a long handled shovel to remove the firearm if necessary D) All of the above

B) Keep members out of line of the muzzle of the firearm | ERP ADD 3, 6

An Engine company is the 1st unit to arrive at the scene for a suspicious package response. Upon arrival the officer observes indicators of an explosion resulting in civilian injuries.mall but which of the following are responsible actions for the Officer to take? A) Transmit a "mixer off" message to the dispatcher providing information concerning the explosion. B) Conduct a 360 degree survey when dismounting the apparatus C) Ensure immediate metering and monitoring of the atmosphere D) Commit limited personnel to area until considered safe

A) Transmit a "mixer off" message to the dispatcher providing information concerning the explosion. (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 3, 7.4) * Using plain language on Department radio, notify the dispatcher and advise incoming units that an explosion has occurred. It is imperative that this information is transmitted to the dispatcher with the “MIXER ON” so all units are aware of the situation.

At an explosion incident, an Engine company is the first unit assigned to a Staging Area in a protected spot that has already been searched for potential threats by the NYPD. The Officer should have his members take what initial action upon arrival? A) Don SCBA and proper PPE and proceed to the ICP B) Ensure radiation detection devices are brought to the site of the explosion C) Share their tools with NYPD personnel at the Staging Area D) Conduct a search of the staging Area to ensure all threats are identified

D) Conduct a search of the staging Area to ensure all threats are identified (ERP ADD 3, 7.5.4)

An Engine company is the 1st on scene for a fire in a multiple dwelling where occupants can be seen calling for help out windows on the fire floor. Additionally, gun shots are heard coming from the roof of the fire building. In this situation what correct action should the Officer take upon arrival? A) Order a line stretched since there is an extreme threat to life safety B) Ensure members keep their eye shields down for protection during the stretch C) Await the arrival of NYPD prior to starting an interior attack on the fire D) Immediately withdraw and request police response

D) Immediately withdraw and request police response | ERP ADD 3, 7.6

Regarding the effects of over pressure from an explosion, what is considered the lethal threshold for our members? A) 100 psi B) 75 psi C) 30 psi D) 15 psi

A) 100 psi | ERP APPENDIX 1

According to the ATF, a full size sedan with 1,000 lbs of explosives in the trunk would have a lethal air blast range of how many feet? A) 6,500' B) 3750' C) 125' D) 100'

C) 125' | ERP APPENDIX 2

A pipe bomb with a 5 lb explosive mass (TNT equivalent) located inside an U reinforced structure has a building evacuation distance of how many feet? A) 40' B) 70' C) 90' D) 110'

B) 70' | ERP APPENDIX 3

What is the shelter in place zone recommended by the FBI-DHS for a briefcase/suitcase bomb with a 50 explosive capacity? A) 71-1199' B) 111-1699' C) 151-1849' D) 321-1899'

C) 151-1849' | ERP APPENDIX 4

Please choose the incorrect description about radiation from the list below: A) Radiation is energy that is released in the form of particles and/or waves. This energy will travel through space and possibly through materials. B) Radiation Energy is colorless, odorless, tasteless, and therefore, radiation energy cannot be detected by any type of device. C) Radiological materials come in all three physical states: liquids, solids and gases. D) A radiological element may emit any combination of ionizing radiation depending on the particular element. E) FFs and medical personnel should assume all three types of ionizing radiation are being emitted from the source.

B) Radiation Energy is colorless, odorless, tasteless, and therefore, radiation energy cannot be detected by any type of device. (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 4) * Radiation cannot be detected BY HUMAN SENSES

A person can be exposed to a hazardous material such as radiological material through four routes of entry. Which routes of entry listed below are accurate? A) Inhalation B) Ingestion C) Absorption D) Penetration/Projection

A / B / C & D ARE ALL CORRECT | ERP ADD 4 section 1.2.1

Which is the most correct description from the list below about radiological exposure and contamination? A) An external exposure is received from a radioactive source deposited inside the body. B) An internal exposure is received from a radioactive source outside the body. A person can be externally exposed to radiation without being contaminated. C) A person contaminated with radioactive materials implies that the material itself is in a person's body/clothing and is emitting energy in the form of alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays or neutron particles. D) All of the above

C) A person contaminated with radioactive materials implies that the material itself is in a person's body/clothing and is emitting energy in the form of alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays or neutron particles. (ERP ADD 4 section 1.2.1 B & C) A - An INTERNAL exposure is received from a source deposited INSIDE the body. B - An EXTERNAL exposure is received from a source OUTSIDE of the body CONTAMINATION = YOU CAN DECON EXPOSURE = YOU CANNOT DECON

Which choice about Radiological Rates in mRem/hr is most correct? A) Rad 50 Saturates at 50 mR/hr B) Hotline set at 2 mR/hr C) Rad 50 Alarms at 1 mR/hr D) All of the above

D) All of the above | ERP ADD 4 section 1.4.2

If you were operating at a radiological operation you would know what which FDNY Protective Action Guideline is incorrectly stated from the list below? A) 50 Rem - Lifesaving for catastrophic event B) 25 Rem - Lifesaving or protection of large populations C) 12 Rem - Protection of minor property D) 5 Rem - General operations at a radiological emergency

C) 12 Rem - Protection of minor property (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 4 section 3.1.4) * 10 Rem - Protection of minor property 12 Rem - DECISION DOSE

You are working in Ladder 500 when you respond to an accident involving a cargo truck with a radioactive material placard. You immediately grab your Rad 50, approach the truck and at one foot from the vehicle your Rad 50 saturates at 50 mR/hr. However, you are a SSL and just finished a drill with your HazMat meters, you request that one of your members gets the Ludlum off the rig. You are now receiving 100 R/hr on your Ludlum one foot from the source, you would know from the list below that you would have to walk ___________ feet back in order to establish the hotline at 2mR/hr from the source? A) 16 B) 32 C) 46 D) 64

D) 64 (ERP ADD 4 section 3.2.2) RADIATION SOURCE 100R/hr = 1' away 25R/hr = 2' away 6.25R/hr = 4' away 2mR/hr = 64' away * When distance from source is doubled the intensity is dropped from 1/4 of the original. You must be 64' away from source to establish the hotline of 2mR/hr.

Do you agree or disagree with the statement below? "Women who are declared pregnant or who are pregnant and request to operate outside of the Warm or Hot Zone at the time of an incident, must leave the scene of the operation immediately" A) Agree B) Disagree

B) Disagree (ERP ADD 4, 1.3.4) * They may only operate in COLD ZONE

Upon confirmation of an incident where a Rad alert 50's readings are above the 50mR/hr maximum dose rate of the device (Rad 50 is saturated), the IC will immediately notify which choice below? A) Deputy Chief who would be assigned to the box B) Citywide Command Chief C) Battalion Chief who would be assigned to the box D) Borough Dispatcher

B) Citywide Command Chief | ERP ADD 4, 4.2

The radiological hotline is established at 2mR/hr (measurements taken from the environment, not people); however, victims being removed from the Hot Zone to the Warm Zone may have levels of radiation greater than 2mR/hr before they are decontaminated. Which is an incorrect item from the list below about the hot, warm and cold zones during this type of operation from the list below? A) The Hotline is the edge of the Hot Zone and the point after which no contamination is present i.e. the area is cold. B) Greater than 2mR/hr is the hot zone and less than 2mR/hr is the warm zone. C) The Hot Zone is restricted to rescue and fire suppression activities. D) Firefighters shall direct ambulatory victims to proceed to the Warm Zone for decon, if needed.

B) Greater than 2mR/hr is the hot zone and less than 2mR/hr is the warm zone (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 4, 4.4.2 C) * Greater than 2mR/hr = Hot Zone Less than 2mR/hr = COLD ZONE

Each member is responsible for monitoring his radiological dose using their personal dosimeter. When a member's dosimeter reads a dose of 5 Rem they need to notify the Officer, if manpower and equipment are sufficient to allow rotation of members, leave the Hot Zone and proceed to Warm Zone for decontamination. If rotation of members is not possible, continue life safety operations and monitor personal dosimeter. Continue to notify Officer for each additional 5 Rem dose received thereafter with the following information. Which is the most correct answer? A) Location B) Activity being performed C) Radiological Rate and Dose D) All of the above

D) All of the above. (ERP ADD 4, 4.4.3) "LARD" L - Location A - Activity being performed R - Radiological Rate D - Dose

According to radiological operations, which rate listed below is considered the decision dose? A) 5 Rem B) 10 Rem C) 12 Rem D) 16 Rem E) 25 Rem

C) 12 Rem (DECISION DOSE) | ERP ADD 4, pg 30

The Transport Index (TI) indicates the maximum level of radiation (in mR/hr) at one meter from an undamaged package. If levels of radiation exceed the TI, the integrity of the package may have been compromised or breached. Which choice below is the TI for a package labeled with a white 1 label? A) 1mR/hr B) N/A (not applicable) C) 0.5 mR/hr D) 10 mR/hr

B) N/A (not applicable) | ERP ADD 4, pg 33

An officer conducting drill on the RadAlert 50 was incorrect in which of the following statements that he made? A) When leaving quarters, the RadAlert 50 shall be turned on, have it's OFF/ON/AUDIO switch placed in the AUDIO position and its mode switch placed in the mR/hr position. B) After turning the unit on, it requires one full minute to show a complete reading on the LCD. The continuous screen readings will then reflect normal background radiation. C) When moving towards a suspected area of contamination, move slowly. The unit takes a full minute for a change to be indicated. D) When examining broken shipping packages or injured patients for contamination, slowly move the monitor one to two feet from the surface with the Beta port facing the object, area or person to be tested.

D) When examining broken shipping packages or injured patients for contamination, slowly move the monitor one to two feet from the surface with the Beta port facing the object, area or person to be tested. (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 4A 2.1) * Slowly move monitor one to two INCHES from surface with ALPHA port facing the object.

An Engine officer arrived at the scene of an alarm for an explosion and finds explosive debris from a UPS vehicle on the ground near the truck. He then gets the following readings/indications: 1. .05 millirem by the pumper - he thinks this is normal background radiation. 2. 30 seconds later, an alert tone goes off on the RadAlert 50 - but it still reads .05 millirems - he suspects that he is in an area with radiation levels above 1mR/hr. 3. Where the RadAlert reads 1mR/hr, he established a hotline and marks it off with red hazmat barrier tape. He was correct in which thoughts/actions? A) 1,2 B) 1,3 C) 2,3 D) 1,2,3

A) 1,2 are correct (ERP ADD 4A 2.2) 1 - .02 to .05 are considered to be normal background radiation 2 - This is a correct assumption, device takes 1 minute to change. 3 - At 2mR/hr he should establish a hotline and mark it with red tape

When operating at an incident and using the RadAlert 50, an officer would be incorrect to think that? A) To determine the isolation zone, use a circular pattern with the RadAlert 50 around the object or area. B) All RadAlert 50 reports must go to the IC or HazMat group supervisor. C) Any area that causes the RadAlert 50 to alarm, requires confirmation by a second unit. D) Access inside an established hotline is restricted to only those operations conducted for life saving operations.

D) Access inside an established hotline is restricted to only those operations conducted for life saving operations. (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 4A, 2.5) * Restricted to those operations conducted for life saving operations AND MAJOR PROPERTY.

9 volt batteries for the RadAlert 50 must be changed every _________? A) Month B) 3 Months C) 6 Months D) Time the meter is actually used at an incident

B) 3 Months | ERP ADD 4A, 4.1

An officer conducting drill on radiological instrumentation was incorrect when she stated that? A) Dosimeters measure the TOTAL DOSE an individual is exposed to during a period of time. B) Dosimeters measure the total amount of beta or gamma radiation to which the instrument has been exposed. C) Dosimeters instantly indicate changes in the accumulated dose. D) Members should accept the reading on their dosimeter as a measure of their exposure at an emergency operation.

B) Dosimeters measure the total amount of beta or gamma radiation to which the instrument has been exposed. (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 4B, 1.3.2) * GAMMA RADIATION ONLY

Members have just returned from a "Good radiological job" where they were exposed to a radioactive iodine cloud. On their return to quarters, they question their officer about the taking of Potassium Iodide Tablets (KI) to protect their thyroid gland. In this situation, they would be correct to think that? A) The optimal administration of KI is prior to or immediately coincident with the passage of a radiological cloud within a 1 hour window after exposure. B) The adult dose recommended for FDNY members following an exposure to radioactive iodine is one tablet of 130 milligrams of KI. C) Taking 2 tablets of KI may offer more protection in certain situations. D) Members shall only take KI tablets when ordered by the IC.

B) The adult dose recommended for FDNY members following an exposure to radioactive iodine is one tablet of 130 milligrams of KI. (ERP ADD 4C, 1.3) A - 3 to 4 HOUR WINDOW after exposure B - Correct C - Taking 2 tablets can CAUSE SERIOUS ILLNESS/DEATH D - CHIEF OF DEPARTMENTS orders the taking of KI

Regarding the carrying of KI tablets on FDNY apparatus, it would be incorrect to state that they are carried/located by? A) Engines, Squads, Rescue in their CFR carry bags / first aid kits. B) Ladder companies in their first aid kits or apparatus glove box C) Battalions and Divisions in their first aid kits or glove box D) Battalions have additional caches in their respective offices

D) Battalions have additional caches in their respective offices (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 4C, 5.2) * DIVISIONS have additional caches of KI

Regarding the FDNY UltraRadiac, it would be correct to state that it? A) Only detects Gamma radiation. B) Only measures the DOSE RATES, not TOTAL DOSE. C) Does not measure alpha, beta, or neutron radiation. D) Should be continuously secured to each member's HT case by use of the Ultraradiac Retention Strap.

C) Does not measure alpha, beta, or neutron radiation. (ERP ADD 4D, 1.2) A - detects GAMMA AND X-RAY B - Measures dose rates AND total dose C - Correct D - secured to a OFFICERS HT

A company officer should be aware that his UltraRadiac should? 1. Be turned on when out of quarters, and turned off when in quarters. 2. Be tested and have its accumulated dose cleared at 0900 hours only A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1, 2 D) Both are incorrect

A) 1 only (ERP ADD 4D, 2.1) #2 - Accumulated dose cleared EVERY TOUR.

All of the following indications on the UltraRadiac indicate that the batteries should be replaced except? A) A "b" appears in the display area B) A blinking BAT appears in the display area C) The display area is blank D) A low beeping sound occurs on the UltraRadiac every 10 seconds

D) A low beeping sound occurs on the UltraRadiac every 10 seconds. (ERP ADD 4D, 6.1) A - "b" (Unit has stopped functioning) B - Blinking BAT (10 hours left) C - Display area blank (dead battery) * Four AAA batteries provide 150 hours of continuous monitoring.

In order to determine how many more minutes a member can stay in an area without exceeding the HIGH DOSE threshold, a member should press the _______ key on their UltraRadiac to see their stay time? A) Rate B) Dose C) Alarm D) Light

C) Alarm (Stay time)

An officer arrives at an operation where he will have all members use their UltraRadiac. Regarding such usage, the officer would be correct to believe that? A) When pressing the CLR/TEST key to initially test it, a blinking "9" will indicate that the UltraRadiac failed the test. B) An UltraRadiacs accumulated dose is cleared whenever the UltraRadiac is turned off. C) When using the UltraRadiac in the Source Finder Mode, the unit will start clicking with an audible sound if near radioactive material. D) When using the UltraRadiac in the Source Finder Mode, aim the middle of the unit at suspected source of radiation.

C) When using the UltraRadiac in the Source Finder Mode, the unit will start clicking with an audible sound if near radioactive material. (ERP ADD 4D, 6.3) A - a blinking "0" will indicate a failed test B - Dose is NOT CLEARED when unit is turned off C - Correct D - aim the TOP OF UNIT at suspected source of radiation

All of the following alarms on the UltraRadiac are correctly indicated except which? A) Low Rate Alarm at 2mR/hr B) High Rate Alarm at 50R/hr C) Low Dose Alarm at 5R D) Low Dose Alarm at 10R

D) Low Dose Alarm at 10R (INCORRECT) (ERP ADD 4) LOW RATE ALARM = 2mR/hr HIGH RATE ALARM = 50R/hr (NOT 50mR/hr) LOW DOSE ALARM = 5R

Members can turn off their red light and DOSE/ALARM indicators by clearing their accumulated dose only when their accumulated dose is recorder or when ordered by the IC? A) Agree B) Disagree

A) Agree | ERP ADD 4D, 7.4 Note

When the UltraRadiac is in the Rate mode and shows a blinking BAT, members can press the ________ key to determine the approximate remaining battery life? A) On/Off B) Alarm C) CLR/TEST D) Light

C) CLR/TEST | ERP ADD 4D, 8.2

LP refers to Liquified Petroleum Gases, which are stored as a liquid under pressure but vaporize into a gas when the pressure is released. Which point about the properties of and operations involving LP gases is incorrect? A) LP gases are heavier than air (1.5 to 2 times heavier) B) At LP gas fires and emergencies, keep everyone at least 1000 feet from the front and rear of the tank and 500 feet from the sides. C) At a LP Gas leak with a fire, do not extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped, except under extremely unusual conditions. D) If the only valve that can be used to stop the flow of gas is involved in fire or exposed to heat or flame, consider the possibility of using a heavy fog stream to protect the member while he shuts off the valve.

B) At LP gas fires and emergencies, keep everyone at least 1000 feet from the front and rear of the tank and 500 feet from the sides. (INCORRECT) (HAZMAT 1 1.2.5) * At LP Gas fires and emergencies keep EVERYONE NOT ACTUALLY ENGAGED IN OPERATIONS at least 1000' from the front and 500' from the sides of the tank.

# Choose the correct action to take at a LP Gas leak with a fire. A) Where escaping gas is on fire and the flow cannot be shut off, application of large quantities of water on the tank and piping will permit controlled burning. Make certain the fire is not extinguished. B) Portable dry chemical extinguishers are ineffective on small LP gas fire. Carbon Dioxide extinguishers should also not be used. C) Tank failure under fire conditions usually occurs in the area containing the liquid. Apply sufficient water to the liquid area to prevent the metal from softening or weakening. D) When units notice an increase in the volume of fire, a rise in the noise level, a bubble or blister forming on the tank shell, they shall continue operations, as this means the hazard is decreasing and the liquid is nearly depleted. E) Ordinarily, a tank involved in fire should be moved. Portable LP gas cylinders that are exposed to a serious fire should not be moved.

A) Where escaping gas is on fire and the flow cannot be shut off, application of large quantities of water on the tank and piping will permit controlled burning. Make certain the fire is not extinguished. (HAZMAT 1, 1.4.5) B - Portable dry chemical extinguishers are EFFECTIVE on small LP gas fires. Carbon Dioxide extinguishers CAN BE USED. C - Tank failure under fire conditions usually occurs in the VAPOR AREA OF THE TANK. D - WITHDRAW TO SAFE AREA when units notice an increase in the volume of fire, a rise in the noise level, a bubble or a blister forming on the tank shell. E - Ordinarily, NO ATTEMPT should be made to move a tank on fire. Portable LP gas cylinders exposed to serious fires SHOULD BE MOVED.

Propane fueled vehicles are mostly found in dual-fueled vehicles which have both gasoline and propane. Which is an incorrect point about these vehicles? A) There is a great possibility that a cylinder involved in a fire will "BLEVE". A satisfactory performance of a relief valve cannot prevent a BLEVE. B) An impact failure of a cylinder in a transportation accident can also cause a BLEVE. C) At a fire in a dual fueled vehicle which uses both propane and gasoline, fire involving either gasoline or propane should not be extinguished except by shutting off the flow of escaping propane. D) If the tank area of the vehicle is involved in fire, immediately locate where the tank relief valve discharges and keep clear of this area. The relief valve on passenger cars are positioned within 45 degrees of vertical. E) Vans, trucks and buses relief valve discharges must be piped to a safe area.

C) At a fire in a dual fueled vehicle which uses both propane and gasoline, fire involving either gasoline or propane should not be extinguished except by shutting off the flow of escaping propane. (INCORRECT) (HAZMAT 1, 2.4.3) * Fire involving PROPANE should not be extinguished except by shutting off the flow of escaping propane. * Gasoline = use foam / dry chemical or water at same time cooling propane cylinder with hose streams to prevent BVLEVE.

Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) fueled vehicles have become increasingly common recently. Which one of the following choices incorrectly describes CNG, or operations involving CNG vehicles? A) All vehicles powered by CNG, which require a FD permit to operate using such fuel, are required to have a warning placard on their front and rear bumper with the ID # 1971 in the diamond. B) CNG powered vehicles registered in NYS that do not require a FD permit are likely to be placarded only on the rear bumper. There may be some states that do not require CNG powered vehicles to have any warming placard. C) Natural Gas is lighter than air (2/3 as heavy). CNG cylinders are subject to failure, but not to BLEVEs. D) At a fire in a CNG vehicle, if the flow of gas cannot be stopped, extinguish the fire only under extremely unusual conditions.

D) At a fire in a CNG vehicle, if the flow of gas cannot be stopped, extinguish the fire only under extremely unusual conditions. (INCORRECT) (HAZMAT 1, 3.2.1) * DO NOT EXTINGUISH / LET IT BURN

Although NYC transit operators, both MTA and private, no longer have methanol fueled buses in operations, members must still be familiar with methanol. Which is the incorrect point about Methanol? A) Methanol has a flash point of 54 degrees Fahrenheit. B) Methanol vapors are slightly heavier than air and burns cleanly (little smoke) and its pale blue flame may be difficult to see in bright sunlight. C) Use fog streams to channel vapors away from possible ignition sources. Fog streams will absorb and dilute vapors. D) Fluoropolydol type foam should be used. Methanol is destructive to ordinary foam. E) For small fire, type B dry chemical extinguishers are adequate. Purple K is the most effective of the dry chemical extinguishing agents. F) Application of large amounts of water will dilute methanol rendering it non flammable. The concentration of methanol must be reduced below 10% to be effective.

F) Application of large amounts of water will dilute methanol rendering it non flammable. The concentration of methanol must be reduced below 10% to be effective. (INCORRECT) (HAZMAT 1 4.2) * TWENTY (20%)

Which of the following is not a method that can be used to identify materials? A) Obtain the transporters name on the vehicle and the license plate number and state, which can be checked by Police Department computer. The owner of the vehicle can then be contacted for ID of the contents. B) For railroad cars, the name on the train car and track number of the car can be checked by Police Department computer. The owner of the vehicle can then be contacted for ID of the contents. C) By black 4 digit ID number on placard or orange panel, or by the 4 digit number (preceded by UN or MA) on shipping papers or packages, and use the Emergency Response Guidebook. D) Match the diamond shaped placard on tank, vehicle or railroad car with the placard in the back of the Emergency Response Guidebook, and then turn to the guide page number given.

B) For railroad cars, the name on the train car and track number of the car can be checked by Police Department computer. The owner of the vehicle can then be contacted for ID of the contents. (INCORRECT) (HAZMAT 2, 4.6) * For railroad cars, USING THE RAILROAD'S NAME and number on car can be checked by police department computer.

Which is the only correct action taken by units at the following Hazardous Materials incidents? A) BC Smith decided not to call Haz Mat 1 to a railroad tank car derailment due to no damage being suffered to the car. B) When Engine 100 responded to an incident where muriatic acid was being used to clean the facade of the wall, the officer ordered spraying tone stopped while Engine 100 was on scene. The officer ensured the response of the Haz Mat Unit although there was no spill. C) Engine 200 used water on a fuming product prior to the hazard assessment being completed to reduce the exposure problem. D) When Engine 300 obtained the name of a Hazardous Material, the officer relayed the name of the material letter by letter to the dispatcher for notification to Chemtrec and the Haz Mat Response Team (HMRT).

D) When Engine 300 obtained the name of a Hazardous Material, the officer relayed the name of the material letter by letter to the dispatcher for notification to Chemtrec and the Haz Mat Response Team (HMRT) (HAZMAT 2, 7) A - In ALL CASES OF RR DERAILMENT, HazMat MUST be called. B - Only a SPILLAGE of muriatic acid requires HazMat. C - DO NOT USE WATER on fuming product until after proper ID and hazard assessment D - Correct

Units responded to a boiler fire in a commercial building. After the fire was extinguished, the 1st ladder determined that the insulated covering on the boiler appeared to contain asbestos. Which action taken was incorrect? A) The IC transmitted radio signal 10-80, specifying asbestos release, due to the suspected asbestos contamination. B) The 1st ladder performed thorough and complete overhauling of the suspected asbestos covering in order to limit exposure to other units. C) The 1st Engine wet down the Asbestos Containing Material using a fog stream to prevent fibers from becoming airborne. D) Members suspected of being contaminated were isolated and not allowed to eat, drink or smoke until decontamination was completed.

B) The 1st ladder performed thorough and complete overhauling of the suspected asbestos covering in order to limit exposure to other units. (INCORRECT) (HAZMAT 3, 4.1.1) * 1st Ladder should LIMIT OVERHAUL (don't disturb asbestos)

Carbon Monoxide exposure presents a great danger to Fire Department members. What is the incorrect point about Carbon Monoxide? A) CO is a colorless, odorless, tasteless, non-irritating, non-toxic gas. B) It is a flammable gas with an auto ignition temperature of 1128 degrees Fahrenheit, and a Lower Explosive Level of 12.5% and an Upper Explosive Limit of 74%. C) CO is slightly lighter than air (.968). CO will rise with warm air, and when this air cools to room temperature, CO will disperse evenly through the room. D) It provides no early warning signs.

A) CO is a colorless, odorless, tasteless, non-irritating, non-toxic gas. (INCORRECT) (HAZMAT 4, 2.1) * CO is a TOXIC GAS

Engine 100 and Ladder 200 respond to a CO detector activation in a 6 story NFP Multiple Dwelling. Which action taken by these units should be corrected? A) Ladder 200, using a CO meter, took an initial reading at the front door of the premises, then continued investigating to find the source of the CO in the premises. B) Upon obtaining CO readings of 20 PPM, the officers ordered all members to don their SCBA face pieces and requested the response of a utility company. C) The officer of Ladder 200, after determining that the CO readings were caused by a defective stove in apartment 6B, ordered the occupants of apartment 6B to leave the building. The officer of Ladder 200 informed the occupants that they could not reoccupy the apartment until the utility company arrived. D) The defective stove was shut off and members attempted to reset the CO detector.

C) The officer of Ladder 200, after determining that the CO readings were caused by a defective stove in apartment 6B, ordered the occupants of apartment 6B to leave the building. The officer of Ladder 200 informed the occupants that they could not reoccupy the apartment until the utility company arrived. (INCORRECT) (HAZMAT 4, 4.1.3) * Evacuation NOT NECESSARY unless readings are over 9 PPM.

The IC shall request the utility company to respond in all of the following situations except which one? A) Any CO levels are recorded by the meter. B) Units on scene shut off a gas appliance. C) An individual is exhibiting symptoms of CO poisoning D) The IC feels a response by the utility company is required.

A) Any CO levels are recorded by the meter. (INCORRECT) (HAZMAT 4, 4.1.5) * A CO level over 9 PPM would require the response of utility company.

Upon arrival at a hazardous materials incident a CPC (chemical protective clothing) unit officer reported to the IC for a briefing. After that the officer took the following actions. How many were correct? 1. Recommended to the IC the entry point into the Hot Zone. 2. Donned a CPC suit because the entry team was not in the line of sight. 3. Established a 2nd HT channel for CPC equipped members. 4. Established and maintained a written log of "On air" times. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) All are correct procedures

D) All are correct procedures | HAZMAT 5, 5.1

A CPC entry into a contaminated area requires a coordinated effort by at least? A) 4 CPC trained members of the same CPC unit as they are familiar with each other. B) 5 CPC trained members of the same CPC unit as they drill together regularly. C) 5 CPC trained members not necessarily from the same CPC unit. D) 4 CPC members with proper CPC clothing.

C) 5 CPC trained members not necessarily from the same CPC unit. (HAZMAT 5, 4.1)

The two member entry team has certain duties when they make a CPC entry into the Hot Zone. Which is correctly listed? A) If one member of the team goes down for an unknown reason, the other team member must ascertain the reason and initiate rescue activity. B) Team members will determine their own order of decontamination. C) When encountering a single victim, they shall perform NST (Noxious Stimulus Triage) D) A single entry team can handle up to 3 victim removals from the Hot Zone.

B) Team members will determine their own order of decontamination. (HAZMAT 5, section 6 9.1) A - If one member goes down, the other member LEAVES. B - Correct C - When encountering 3 OR MORE victims (perform NST) D - Single entry team can handle up to 2 VICTIM removals.

CPC units were formed to do all of the following except? A) Augment the Haz-Mat Group in incidents where contaminated victims are encountered. B) Assist in search, rescue, and removal of civilian victims as well as emergency responder victims. C) Mitigate minor haz-mat incidents within the scope of their training. D) Operate in Level A and Level B CPC and perform required decontamination.

C) Mitigate minor haz-mat incidents within the scope of their training. (INCORRECT) (HAZMAT 5, 1.1) * CPC does not have proper training or equipment to mitigate.

The two member CPC backup team shall be dressed to the _________ position? A) ready B) fully encapsulated C) standby D) stand down

C) standby | HAZMAT 5, section 7

The IC shall special call a CPC unit or a HazMat Technician Unit as a FAST unit if? A) Two entry teams are working. B) More than two entry teams are working C) More than two entry teams are expected to be put to work D) Two entry teams are expected to be put to work.

C) More than two entry teams are expected to be put to work. | HM 5, section 7.2

Which of the following is correct concerning a Decontamination Station? A) It must be established and staffed prior to any entry of CPC equipped members into the Hot or Warm Zones. B) It's primary function is to decontaminate First Responders and/or civilians until the FDNY Shower Unit arrives. C) It's secondary function is to decontaminate the entry team. D) It must be staffed with at least two CPC members.

A) It must be established and staffed prior to any entry of CPC equipped members into the Hot or Warm Zones. (HM 5, section 4.1) A - Correct B - Primary function = decon Entry Team C - Secondary function = decon 1st responders and/or civilians until FDNY Shower Unit arrives. D - Must be staffed with AT LEAST ONE CPC member.

At large HazMat incidents with multiple victims (3 or more) what is the proper sequence for removal of victims? A) Ambulatory victims directed to a Casualty Collection Point (CCP), Unconscious victims that respond to NST removed to a second CCP, Black tagged non responsive victims removed last. B) Black tagged non responsive victims removed to a CCP, Ambulatory victims directed to a Casualty Collection Point, Unconscious victims that respond to NST removed to a second CCP. C) Unconscious victims that respond to NST removed to a CCP, Black tagged non responsive removed to a second CCP, Ambulatory victims directed to a Casualty Collection Point last D) None of the above

A) Ambulatory victims directed to a Casualty Collection Point (CCP), Unconscious victims that respond to NST removed to a second CCP, Black tagged non responsive victims removed last. (HM 5, section 9) PROPER SEQUENCE FOR REMOVAL OF VICTIMS AT LARGE HAZMAT INCIDENTS (3 VICTIMS OR MORE) 1. Ambulatory directed to CCP 2. Unconscious that respond to NST removed to 2nd CCP 3. Black tagged non responsive removed last

When dealing with a Mass Decontamination incident, exposed people should be immediately removed to an area of safe refuge. This area will be in the? A) Cold Zone B) Warm Zone C) Hot Zone D) O-Zone

B) Warm Zone (HM 7, 2.3) * Area of safe refuge = inside warm zone (safe and warm)

Removal of a victims clothing during decon will remove up to __________ percent of the contamination. A) 70 B) 80 C) 90 D) 100

C) 90

A lieutenant supervising a Mass Decon Operation would be correct in which of the following evolutions? A) Stretch a 2 1/2" hand line equipped with an Aquastream fog nozzle and an operating pressure of 80 to 100 psi. B) If an additional handline is deployed, they should be opposite each other approximately 25-30' apart, taking care not to push contaminants toward the opposing nozzle team. C) Two Pumpers may be used that are parallel to each other approximately 25' apart, with the pump panels facing in towards the operation for line of sight capability. D) A tower ladder may be added at the edge of the water spray for,Ed by the pumpers, using an Aquastream fog nozzle, creating an area approximately 60' wide by 100' long for the victims to pass through.

B) If an additional handline is deployed, they should be opposite each other approximately 25-30' apart, taking care not to push contaminants toward the opposing nozzle team. (HM 7, section 2.4.3) A - 2 1/2" with Aquastream = 50-80 psi B - Correct C - Pump panels should face to the OUTSIDE D - TL = TURBOMASTER creating area approx. 20' wide and 30' long

Decontamination procedures are correctly described in which choice? A) The SOC Decon Support Unit can supply disposable clothing to victims as they exit gross decontamination. B) Firefighter wearing full PPE and SCBA is not considered adequate protection in most cases while staffing a Decon operation. C) After being relieved by members wearing CPC, firefighters who were staffing the Decon operation should return to quarters and request SOC to pick up their bunker gear for laundering. D) Decon Trailers are delivered, set up and operated by the assigned unit they are quartered with.

A) The SOC Decon Support Unit can supply disposable clothing to victims as they exit gross decontamination. (HM 7, section 2.4.8) A - Correct B - Full PPE and SCBA is ADEQUATE for initial Decon operations C - After being relived, these FFs SHOULD BE DECONNED themselves D - Decon trailers set up by ASSIGNED COMPANIES & operated by SQUAD COMPANIES.

You are a lieutenant assigned for the day to Engine 44, a HazMat Tech Unit. You should know which statement is correct? A) You and a minimum of 3 FFs must be trained to the technician level. B) When you leave quarters for BISP, the HazMat Tender (2nd piece) shall accompany the unit. C) Your unit is not capable to operate as an independent HazMat Team in the control and mitigation of an incident. D) All HazMat equipment shall be carried on the HM Tender.

B) When you leave quarters for BISP, the HazMat Tender (2nd piece) shall accompany the unit. (HM 8, 2.1) A - You and a MINIMUM OF 4 FFs must be trained to technician lvl. B - Correct C - Unit IS CAPABLE to operate as an independent HM Team D - All HM equipment shall NOT BE CARRIED on HM Tender

You are the lieutenant assigned for the day to ladder 132, a SOC support ladder company. You should know which statement is correct? A) To operate as a SSL, you must have one trained officer and at least four trained firefighters. B) If assigned to confined space response, as long as the hazard is identifiable and controllable, an entry may be attempted. C) If your Support Vehicle is activated as a Rapid Response Unit, instruct the firefighters assigned to it to respond to the dispatcher as "RR-132" D) If assigned to a HazMat incident, know that your members are capable of detecting the presence of chemical warfare agents and radioactive material, amongst other materials, performing decontamination, but have no mitigation capabilities whatsoever.

C) If your Support Vehicle is activated as a Rapid Response Unit, instruct the firefighters assigned to it to respond to the dispatcher as "RR-132" (HM 10, 3.1) A - SSL must have one trained officer and at LEAST 3 trained FFs B - Can't enter if rescuer has to leave the direct line of sight of supervising officer. A retrieval system (high point anchor) must be in place. Don't enter where hazards are other than atmosphere and controllable. C - Correct D - SSL can perform mitigation when performing as a HAMMER TEAM

As long as all necessary precautions have taken place, including a suitable high point anchor positioned to allow a retrieval system to be placed, air monitoring determines if atmospheric hazards exist, suitable steps are taken to remove those hazards, and a back-up rescuer is in a stand by position, a confined space entry which is out of the line of sight of the supervising officer is permissible as long as radio contact is maintained between the officer and the entrant. A) Agree B) Disagree

B) Disagree (HM 10, 7.2) * CANNOT LEAVE LINE OF SIGHT OF OFFICER.

You are a Lt. working in Engine 100, and arrive first to a CO detector activation. As you begin to take CO readings at the front door of the premises, Ladder 200 arrives, commanded by Lt. Smith. You would know that as the IC you would request the utility company to respond in all of the following choices with the exception of which one? A) The CO meter records any levels of CO. B) Units on the scene shut off a gas appliance. C) An individual(s) is exhibiting symptoms of CO poisoning. D) You feel a response by the utility company is required.

A) The CO meter records any levels of CO. (INCORRECT) (HAZMAT 4, CO 4.1.4) * OVER 9 PPM = request utility company.

Which is an incorrect action taken at an incident where no occupants are symptomatic and CO readings of 8 PPM are obtained? A) Inform the occupant that our meter has not detected an elevated CO level. B) Recommend that all persons leave the affected area. C) Attempt to reset the detector. D) Inform the occupant that if the detector activates again that they should call 911 to notify the Fire Dept.

B) Recommend that all persons leave the affected area (INCORRECT) (HAZMAT, CO 4.1.4) * EVACUATION NOT NECESSARY Greater than 9 PPM and less than 100 RECOMMEND evacuation.

While operating at a 5-7 signal for a CO Detector activation, units obtain CO readings of 90 PPM. Which action taken should be corrected? A) Inform the occupants that they have a potentially dangerous level of CO. B) Begin a mandatory evacuation of the affected area and begin ventilation. C) After shutting down a faulty gas stove that was producing the CO, ventilation reduced CO levels to 9 PPM so the premise was re occupied. D) The detector was reset and the utility company was notified.

B) Begin a mandatory evacuation of the affected area and begin ventilation (INCORRECT (HAZMAT 4, 4.4) * Greater than 9 PPM and less than 100 PPM RECOMMEND evacuation (not mandatory)

While operating at an oil burner emergency in a 4 story New Law Tenement, members obtain CO readings of 200 PPM in the cellar, 150 PPM on the 1st floor and readings of 9 PPM on floors 2-4. Which areas of the building must be evacuated? A) The cellar only B) The whole building C) The cellar and the 1st floor only D) The cellar, 1st floor and 2nd floor only.

C) The cellar and the 1st floor only. (Hazmat 4, 4.5) * Evacuate THE AFFECTED AREA / GREATER THAN 100 PPM (not entire building)

Rapid physical removal of hazardous materials from victims is the single most important action associated with effective decontamination. Which point about Mass Decontamination is incorrect? A) All exposed people must be immediately removed from the area of the release to an area of safe refuge. B) Have the victims remove their outer clothing. Removing the victims clothing removes up to 90% of the contamination. C) After the victims have removed their outer clothing, they can be washed down with water. Soap can be added to the process if available. D) If the victim refuses to remove their clothing, they should be removed from the decontamination corridor and sent straight to technical decontamination. E) If a FF must proceed through the Mass Decontamination Corridor, the members facepiece should be the last item removed.

D) If the victim refuses to remove their clothing, they should be removed from the decontamination corridor and sent straight to technical decontamination. (INCORRECT) (Hazmat 7, 2.3) * If victim refuses to remove clothing, ENCOURAGE THEM TO REMOVE WHAT THEY WILL AND THEN PROCEED TO MASS DECON.

Two pumpers can be used to perform Mass Decon, which greatly increases our decontamination capabilities. Which choice incorrectly describes this method? A) Position two pumpers perpendicular to each other approximately 25-30' apart with the control panels facing the outside. B) Place an Aquastream fog nozzle on each pumper on a selected inside discharge gate. Additional discharges and nozzles can be used is available. C) Operate the nozzles in the fog position D) The recommended operating pressure is 50 to 80 psi

A) Position two pumpers perpendicular to each other approximately 25-30' apart with the control panels facing the outside. (INCORRECT) (Hazmat 7, 2.4.4) * Position pumpers PARALLEL TO EACH OTHER 25-30' APART.

One method of Emergency Mass Decon using a water spray is to use handlines. Which choice is correct regarding this tactic? A) One option for setting up Mass Decon is to stretch a 2 1/2" line equipped with a Turbomaster fog nozzle. B) The nozzle team should operate the nozzle in the fog position, and avoid contact with the victims until the proper PPE is in use. C) The recommended operating pressure range is between 80-100 psi D) Consideration can be given to the use of two handlines operating opposite each other, approximately 25-30' apart, to form a large shower area that multiple victims can move through at the same time.

B) The nozzle team should operate the nozzle in the fog position, and avoid contact with the victims until the proper PPE is in use. (Hazmat 7, 2.4.3) A - Engine = AQUASTREAM Tower Ladder = TURBOMASTER B - Correct C - Recommended operating pressure is 50-80 PSI D - Lines operate opposite each other at approx 25-30' APART

Two pumpers can be used to perform Mass Decon, which greatly increases our decontamination capabilities. This scenario can be augmented with other apparatus. Which is the incorrect point about that operation? A) A Tower Ladder with Turbomaster fog nozzle can be placed in line and parallel with one of the pumpers, with the nozzle aimed down on the spray area. B) An aerial ladder with ladder pipe and Aquastream fog nozzle can be placed at the edge of the water spray in line and parallel with one of the pumpers, with the nozzle aimed down on the spray area. C) Only Ladder Apparatus may be used to augment two engines. If a ladder apparatus is not available, this operation will not be performed. D) This configuration should produce a water spray shower area approximately 20 feet wide by 30 feet long.

C) Only Ladder Apparatus may be used to augment two engines. If a ladder apparatus is not available, this operation will not be performed. (INCORRECT) * CAN HAVE 3RD ENGINE AUGMENT.

All members must be prepared to perform Mass Decon. Which one of the following choices would show an incomplete understanding of Mass Decon? A) In immediately life threatening exposures where e,regency Decon is necessary, fog nozzles can be attached to a multiversal on an Engine, or to a TL outlet, for a very quick gross Decon setup. B) After gross Decon is performed, victims can proceed to a holding area, be evaluated by EMS, and possibly be sent for a secondary personal Decon. C) The members initially staffing the Decon operations must wear CPC level PPE to prevent cross contamination, due to bunker gear providing insufficient protection. D) Time, distance, shielding are used to protect people from hazardous materials. The Mass Decon Procedure is the key to reduce the amount of time that the victims are exposed to the hazard.

C) The members initially staffing the Decon operations must wear CPC level PPE to prevent cross contamination, due to bunker gear providing insufficient protection. (INCORRECT) (Hazmat 7, 2.4.6) * Bunker Gear IS ADEQUATE protection for members INITIALLY staffing the Decon operation.

Which of the following statements concerning the staffing levels of various types of Decon is incorrect? (More than 1 wrong) A) If patients and responders wearing CPC both require Technical Decon, one Tech Decon Task Force station can perform both tasks. B) A single Decon corridor can be used for different types of decontamination (CPC, ambulatory, non-ambulatory) C) If FDNY members are contaminated with asbestos, they may have to stand by in a safe refuge area prior to decontamination. D) A water supply and fog line must be established for emergency Decon if the need arises.

A) If patients and responders wearing CPC both require Technical Decon, one Tech Decon Task Force station can perform both tasks. & B) A single Decon corridor can be used for different types of decontamination (CPC, ambulatory, non-ambulatory. (BOTH INCORRECT) (Hazmat 12, 6.2) * Patients and responders wearing CPC REQUIRE 2 SEPARATE TECH DECON STATIONS. Responders and patients SHOULD NOT be processed through each other's Decon. * SEPARATE DECON CORRIDORS should be established for each patients and responders.

Technical Decon Task Forces will be identified by the _______ number? A) Engine B) Ladder C) Battalion D) Incident

C) Battalion (Hazmat 12, 2.1) * Each Technical Decon Task Force will be identified by the Battalion from which it was called. Thus, Battalion 26 assigned to respond as part of a Technical Decon Task Force, along with Decon Engine 73, and SOC Support Ladder 42 with their support vehicle, will be designated as Technical Decon Task Force 26.

If FDNY members encounter an active shooter prior to NYPD arrival, they shall follow all of the procedures listed below except one. Which choice below is the exception? A) Consider withdrawal after a life safety assessment. B) When withdrawal is not possible, seek hard cover/concealment C) Request a forthwith police response D) Communicate unit identity and location to the NYPD via the borough dispatcher.

A) Consider withdrawal after a life safety assessment. (INCORRECT) (ERP, Addendum 3A) * IMMEDIATELY WITHDRAW if you encounter an active shooter.

At a chemical attack in an underground subway tunnel, which unit from the list below would estimate the number of victims and relay this information to the IC? A) First Ladder Company B) First Engine Company C) Second Ladder Company D) Rescue Company

B) First Engine Company | ERP, addendum 2, 7.1.7

You are working in Ladder 500 when you receive a ticket for a CO response. Upon arrival you investigate the apartment with the co detector activation and receive meter readings of 8 ppm throughout the apartment. It should be noted that the three occupants are all experiencing headaches, nausea, and dizziness. You would know to take which actions from the list below? A) Immediately evacuate the affected area B) Ventilate and request EMS to respond C) Do not take the actions listed in A or B D) Take the actions listed in A and B

D) Take the actions listed in A and B (Haz-mat 4, 4.1.2) * For a situation where anyone who is symptomatic due to CO, it automatically becomes an emergency. Immediately evacuate and ventilate regardless of meter readings.

OSHA/NFPA Operations level training for firefighters provides members with the knowledge and clues to recognize the signs of a hazardous materials incident. Where would first responders encounter the NFPA 704 marking system diamond? A) Highway and rail containers B) Fixed facilities C) Air packages D) Marine freight cargo

B) Fixed facilities (ERP-HAZMAT 3.3.3) * DOT Diamond placards for highway and rail containers * NFPA 704 Diamond for fixed facilities

A lieutenant of a first to arrive Engine company at a hazardous materials incident is contemplating the risk vs reward involving the rescue of a known life hazard. If a decision is made to move forward with the rescue attempt, all but which should the officer plan for? A) Backup team to rescue/assist the entry team B) Decon hoseline in place that is dedicated to the Backup team C) Medical personnel staged nearby D) None of the above

B) Decon hoseline in place that is dedicated to the Backup team (INCORRECT) (HAZMAT/ERP 10.7.5)

HAZARDOUS MATERIALS / ERP Flashcards

(142 cards)