TRAINING BULLETINS Flashcards
0
Q
One of the FDNY’s many responsibilities is responding to various utility emergencies. Which characteristic about natural gas is inaccurate?
A) Natural gas is lighter than air.
B) It has an explosive range of 5-15%.
C) It has an ignition temperature of 1263 degrees Fahrenheit.
D) Natural gas is odorless, colorless, non toxic and is an asphyxiant.
A
C) It has an ignition temperature of 1263 degrees. (Incorrect)
*It’s ignition temperature is 1163 degrees Fahrenheit.
(TB Emergencies 2)
1
Q
Members are in the kitchen discussing operations at natural gas emergencies. The members are a little rusty on the subject because they only made one correct point. Which one is correct?
A) Natural gas is delivered to NYC via pipeline at over 1400 psi.
B) Natural gas is regulated down to 300 psi for transmission gas mains.
C) Distribution gas mains run under streets and deliver either high pressure (40 psi), medium pressure (5-20 psi), or low pressure gas (1/2 psi).
D) High and medium pressure gas is regulated down to 1/2 psi before passing through a customer’s meter.
A
B) Natural gas is regulated down to 300 psi for transmission to gas mains. (Correct) (TB Emergencies 2)
- Gas delivered to NYC at approx 700-1400 psi
- High pressure 60 psi
Medium pressure 3-15 psi
Low pressure 1/4 psi - High and medium pressure gas is regulated down to 1/4 psi before entering customer meters.
2
Q
Members of your company are operating at a utility gas emergency and take the following actions. Which action is not correct?
A) Upon encountering a white curb valve the member realizes that this valve is plastic and can be easily broken so he closes it gently.
B) Upon encountering an older curb valve the member is required to turn the valve multiple times to close. He knows it may take 7 1/2 to 15 full turns to close but should not turn the valve more than 15 times.
C) To clear an area inside of a structure of leaking gas, the Irons firefighter decides to use the department fan.
D) The Can firefighter decides to stuff a rag in the break of a low pressure gas pipe to stop or greatly diminish the leak.
A
C) To clear an area inside of a structure of leaking gas, the Irons firefighter decides to use the department fan. (Incorrect) (TB Emergencies 2)
- Department fans are not intrinsically safe and shall not be used during gas leaks.
- Stuffing rags in low pressure gas piping is ok, this won’t work on high pressure pipes.
3
Q
Utility companies such as Con Edison and Natural Grid may require the FDNY to pull manholes and various other tasks at natural gas emergencies. Of the choices below, which one is correct?
A) Electric sewer manholes can be removed by FDNY at the request of a utility company representative or with approval of a chief officer on scene.
B) Sewer manhole covers can be removed by FDNY with approval of a chief officer on scene.
C) Round manhole covers can be removed by two firefighters utilizing manhole hooks. Each battalion vehicle carries a manhole hook for this purpose.
D) It is safe for members to pull square or rectangular manhole covers.
A
B) Sewer manhole covers can be removed by FDNY with approval of a chief officer on scene. (Correct) (TB Emergencies 2)
- Sewer manhole covers = may be removed with chiefs OK
Electric manhole covers = need utility AND chief OK
2 firefighters should pull manhole
BC vehicles carry 2 manhole hooks
Do not pull square/rectangular covers
4
Q
Which statement about the Altair digital gas meter is incorrect?
A) The normal oxygen reading of the Altair is 23.0%
B) The indoor action level is 10% LEL (alarm will sound)
C) The outdoor action level is 20% LEL (a diff. alarm will sound)
D) 3 crosses under the O2 icon indicated the oxygen level is above 25%.
A
A) The normal oxygen reading of the Altair is 23.0% (Incorrect) (TB Emergencies 3)
- Crosses under the comb/ex icon indicates the atmosphere is
above 100% LEL (explosive environment) DO NOT OPERATE
except for life saving purposes. - Normal oxygen reading = 20.8%
Low oxygen alarm = 19.5%
High alarm = 23.0% - Indoor action lvl = 10% LEL
Outdoor action lvl = 20% LEL
5
Q
The high rise nozzle is a relatively new piece of equipment utilized by the FDNY and can be implemented by the IC as an alternative strategy at a high rise fire. Which statement regarding the HRN is wrong?
A) It is the responsibility if the 4th due engine to bring the HRN to the Incident command post.
B) Once a window is chosen, remove impediments such as child gates and window bars but leave the window itself intact.
C) A shutoff should be placed two lengths back from the HRN. When repositioning the nozzle have this shutoff closed, them open the nozzle to bleed the line for easier movement.
D) A 1 1/8” MST is attached to the outlet of the HRN. The HRN is checked weekly during MUD and before use.
A
C) A shutoff should be placed two lengths back from the HRN. When repositioning the nozzle have this shutoff closed, them open the nozzle to bleed the line for easier movement. (Incorrect) (TB Tools 7)
- A shutoff should be placed one length back from the nozzle.
- It is not necessary to remove the window when implementing the
HRN. - If 4th due engine has no HRN the officer will contact dispatch to
learn the identity of the unit carrying it.
6
Q
At a NFP MD fire that has spread to the cockloft, the Chief of battalion 33 has ordered the cockloft nozzle to be put into operation. This know nothing chief was only correct in one order he gave. Which order was correct?
A) The cockloft nozzle was used as the primary attack line.
B) The chief ordered the proby to collect the nozzle from his
battalion vehicle.
C) He told the members that the distance between the top of the ceiling joists to the bottom of the roof joists must be at least 4’ to enable use of the cockloft nozzle.
D) He asserted that a hole in the ceiling approx 3’ x 3’ was sufficient
enough for the nozzle to fit into and operate into the cockloft.
A
D) He asserted that a hole in the ceiling approx 3’ x 3’ was sufficient
enough for the nozzle to fit into and operate into the cockloft.
(Correct) (TB Tools 7)
- Cockloft nozzle NEVER used as primary attack line.
- Carried by all DIVISION vehicles
- Preferred location = immediately inside the apartment door.
- Top of ceiling joist to bottom of roof joist must be a minimum of 4”
to enable operation.
7
Q
Lt. Curly is working the 9x6 tour in E-44. He is going over confined space operations and what is considered safe atmospheric conditions in regards to confined spaces. All of the following are considered safe atmospheric conditions with the exception of which choice?
A) Oxygen concentration between 19.5% and 23.5%
B) Flammable range not over 1% of the LEL.
C) Toxicity not over 35 ppm of carbon monoxide.
D) Toxicity not over 10 ppm of hydrogen sulfide.
A
B) Flammable range not over 1% of the LEL. (Incorrect)
*Not over 10% of LEL. This is our indoor action level. Our action levels are all very low. 10% of LEL is NOT EXPLOSIVE yet at 100% of LEL we have reached the explosive range. Don’t confuse this with percentage of gas in the air.
8
Q
Which statement does not demonstrate proper technique for use of the high rise nozzle?
A) Supplied by a 2 1/2” hose line, the HRN will produce flows of 200-225 gpm at 50 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing.
B) Once the proper window is chosen and opened, impediments such as window bars and child gates will have to be removed. In most cases it is not necessary to remove the window to operate the nozzle.
C) When repositioning of the HRN is required, the supply line should be shut down at the shutoff located 1 length back and the nozzle operated to bleed the line.
D) Once in position the officer supervising the nozzle operation will order water started and nozzle to be operated.
A
D) Once in position the officer supervising the nozzle operation will order water started and nozzle to be operated. (Incorrect)
*The nozzle will not be operated until the IC has given approval.
(Tools data sheet 17 HRN 5.14)
9
Q
Ladder 33 responds to a gas leak in apartment 3D in a 6 story “H” type multiple dwelling. After finding the source to be the stove in the apartment they pull it from the wall to find no gas shutoff on the flexible metal tubing. The next point to shut off the gas to the stove would be?
A) Master meter
B) Head of service valve
C) Exterior gas riser valve
D) Curb valve
A
A) Master meter
*Work your way from inside the building out. The idea is to shut it down, disrupting service to the LEAST amount of people. In this situation you would shut individual meters if available. If not you would have to shut the master meter.
(TB Emergencies 2)
10
Q
Members in a study group are reviewing the Akron New Yorker and make a series of points. Which point is incorrect?
A) The range of elevation is from 90 degrees above the horizontal to 15 degrees below the horizontal.
B) The safety stoplock and release pin prevents lowering the elevation below 30 degrees above the horizontal unless the release pin is pulled.
C) When two hoses are being used to supply the two 3” female swivels, they should be brought straight back at a distance of 15 feet from the Siamese, parallel to each other before they are turned or bent in any way.
D) The max pressure the device should be subjected to is 200 psi.
A
B) The safety stoplock and release pin prevents lowering the elevation below 30 degrees above the horizontal unless the release pin is pulled. (Incorrect)
*This will prevent lowering the elevation 35 degrees below the horizontal.
When used in portable ground base unit should not be operated at more than 800 gpm.
Stacked tips “10-75”
1 1/4” = no more than 100 psi
1 1/2” = no more than 70 psi
2” = no more than 50 psi
If flats on spikes in portable ground base exceed 1/16” in diameter they must be sharpened or replaced.
(TB Tools 17 Akron New Yorker)
11
Q
The TIF gas detector is a tool we use in the field almost everyday. Which statement about this tool is incorrect?
A) It can detect a gas source as low as 5 ppm.
B) The initial charge of this device should be 24 hours. All subsequent charged should be between 10 and 15 hours.
C) A fully charged battery supplies approximately 4 hours of continuous use.
D) Mask service unit handles distribution and repairs of this device.
A
B) The initial charge of this device should be 24 hours. All subsequent charged should be between 10 and 15 hours. (INCORRECT)
*Initial charge 24 hrs. Subsequent charges 12-16 hrs.
(TB Tools 29)
12
Q
Which choice describes incorrectly when controlling nozzles are tested in the FDNY?
A) Annually in Spring with hose test.
B) Newly issued to a unit.
C) Repaired and returned to a unit.
D) When deemed necessary by Division commander.
A
A) Annually in Spring with hose test. (Incorrect)
*Annually in AUGUST with hose test.
(TB Tools 7)
13
Q
You are a Lt. assigned 4th due Engine company on the transmission of a 10-77. You should know that which of the following statements are correct?
- If your company has been assigned a HRN, it is your responsibility to bring that nozzle to the command post.
- If your company has not been assigned a HRN, it is your responsibility to inform the dispatcher to special call a unit that has a HRN.
- If you are supervising a HRN operation, you must initiate contact via handle talkie with the assigned spotter on outside of building to ensure effective use of the stream.
- If you are supervising a HRN operation, you shall ensure the supply line is attached to the nozzle before the nozzle is slid out the window, and that a shutoff is placed in line two lengths back from nozzle.
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1, 2 & 4
D) 2, 3 & 4
A
A) 1 & 3 are correct.
Choice 2 = dispatch will tell you the identity of the unit that is equipped with the HRN.
Choice 4 = shutoff is placed in line ONE LENGTH back from nozzle.
14
Q
Engine 100 is drilling with their new proby on the multiverse New Yorker. Which point made concerning the multiversal is not correct?
A) The elevation control wheel can be used to raise and lower the elevation of the nozzle. The range of elevation is 15 degrees below the horizontal to 90 degrees above the horizontal.
B) The safety stoplock and release pin prevents lowering the elevation below 35 degrees. The pin should be pulled before 35 degrees.
C) Do not release the elevation stop and operate below that point (35 degrees) unless the unit is secured in the truck mount or restrained by ropes.
D) No operation below the horizontal shall be attempted unless the unit is secured in the truck mount or secured by ropes.
A
D) No operation below the horizontal shall be attempted unless the unit is secured in the truck mount or secured by ropes. (Incorrect)
*No operation below the horizontal shall be attempted unless the unit is secured in the truck mount period.
(TB Tools 17 section 2)
15
Q
To prevent backward movement of the multiversal nozzle, it must be secured in position by means of a utility rope. Which step was performed incorrectly while securing the multiversal nozzle?
A) Place the middle of the utility rope on top of the Siamese, over the identification plate.
B) Bring the 2 sides of the rope up over the Siamese and each side forward to the large leg of the ground base on each side of the front leg. Make a half hitch on each of these 2 legs.
C) If possible, do not connect the hose lines to the Siamese before tying the required knots, as this could slightly increase the time required to tie the knots.
D) The safety chain alone should never be relied on to secure this appliance. A rope is needed.
A
C) If possible, do not connect the hose lines to the Siamese before tying the required knots, as this could slightly increase the time required to tie the knots. (Incorrect)
*NOT (IF POSSIBLE) Do not do this period.
(TB Tools 17 3.3.5)
16
Q
While operating at a taxpayer fire the multiversal nozzle is ordered into operation by the IC. Engine 100 was only correct in which point below regarding the supply and operation of the multiversal nozzle?
A) E-100 used two lines to supply the nozzle. Each line was brought straight back at least 10 feet before any bends or turns were taken.
B) E-100 supplied the nozzle with 2 1/2” hose lines and realized that upper end flows may not be attainable.
C) At one point the officer of E-100 called for more pressure. The gauge on the nozzle showed 210 psi. The ECC informed the officer of E-100 that 825 gpm were flowing.
D) Since the supply lines were long a 2 way gate was inserted 2 lengths from the nozzle. A member was positioned at the gate to assure proper pressure was maintained.
A
B) E-100 supplied the nozzle with 2 1/2” hose lines and realized that upper end flows may not be attainable.
A - 15 feet straight back before turns are made.
C - 200 psi maximum / 800 gpm
D - a single gate one length back from the nozzle
(TB Tools 17 3.4 Engine Ops ch 11)
17
Q
You are a Lt. at a multiple alarm cockloft fire in a large H-type building. The Deputy Chief orders your company to retrieve the cockloft nozzle and put it into operation on the top floor. What do you need to know about this tool to effectively utilize it?
A) It can be found stored on one Engime company in each battalion.
B) It has a very large discharge rate or nearly 300 gpm due to the two nozzle tips.
C) It has a horizontal reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet.
D) A hole approximately 3’ x 3’ in the ceiling will provide space for the nozzle to fit, and the preferred location for this is underneath the main body of fire.
A
C) It has a horizontal reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet.
A - Stored in each Division vehicle
B - Discharge rate of nearly 125 gpm
D - Preferred location is in hallway immediately outside the apartment.
(TB Tools 7 Data Sheet 18)
18
Q
Lt. Smith was explaining the TIF 8800 Combustible Gas Detector to the new proby and he made the following statements. Which of the following is incorrect?
A) Ladder companies and Battalions carry this detector.
B) A ticking signal that increases in frequency indicates the presence of a gas source.
C) The readout will indicate the amount of gas detected in parts per million (ppm).
D) The detector must be stored in its carrying case when not in use to prevent damage.
A
C) The readout will indicate the amount of gas detected in parts per million (ppm) (Incorrect).
*The TIF can detect a gas source but does not give a readout.
(TB Tools 29 1,5)
19
Q
While operating at an alarm for an odor of natural gas Ladder 139 used the TIF 8800. Which choice shows an incorrect understanding of this tool?
A) After a 30 second warmup, a ticking sound will be heard if it’s working correctly.
B) A source as low as 5 ppm can be detected.
C) Usually it is not necessary to adjust the detector’s sensitivity.
D) At the point of the leak the tick rate will increase until a steady beeping sound is heard.
A
D) At the point of the leak the tick rate will increase until a steady beeping sound is heard. (Incorrect)
*The tick rate increases until a SIREN sound is heard.
(TB Tools 29 3,4)
20
Q
Which is the correct point about the care and maintenance of the TIF 8800?
A) Initial charge time is 24 hours.
B) Subsequent charging time is 4-6 hours.
C) If defective it should be returned to the Meter Room at Haz-mat Operations with an RT-2.
D) The TIF 8800 should be used to detect carbon monoxide.
A
A) Initial charge time is 24 hours.
B - Subsequent charge time is 12-16 hrs.
C - Return to MSU if defective
D - Should not be used for CO
(TB Tools 29 2,3,5)
21
Q
A new Lt. was conducting a drill on the “can”. The firefighters asked questions about his lecture. The Lt. was correct in which response?
A) If a can is found in the field with no Schrader connection, it must be put out of service with an RT-2 and sent to Tech Services.
B) The can shall be inspected after each use and at the beginning of each tour.
C) If the hydrostatic test date stamped on the can is greater than 5 years old, the can must be placed Out of Service.
D) A can left inside of a fire area can’t BLEVE, as it does not contain flammable liquid.
A
C) If the hydrostatic test date stamped on the can is greater than 5 years old, the can must be placed Out of Service.
(TB Tools 1)
A - Use Schrader connection/adapter
B - Extinguisher is inspected DAILY.
D - An extinguisher left inside a fire area can create a bomb.
22
Q
The regulated device used to pressurize an extinguisher should never be set higher than how many PSI?
A) 100
B) 125
C) 150
D) 175
A
B) 125
TB Tools 1
23
Q
Routine maintenance and servicing of the KO curtain must be understood by a covering Lt. aspiring to work in a ladder company. Which choice below is listed correctly?
A) It shall be inspected daily and after each use.
B) After deployment at an operation, and having it secured by the IC afterwards, the officer will prepare a report to the Chief of Operations detailing the use and any damage sustained.
C) Contact R & D for a replacement device after use at an operation.
D) Limit drilling with the device to weekly MUD to avoid unnecessary damage.
A
B) After deployment at an operation, and having it secured by the IC afterwards, the officer will prepare a report to the Chief of Operations detailing the use and any damage sustained.
(TB Tools 2)
A - KO inspected WEEKLY during MUD and after use.
C - DIVISION has replacement KO
D - NEVER DRILL WITH KO, use training curtain instead.
24
Deployments of the KO curtain have shown significant flame reduction and __________________________?
A) An immediate 50% decrease in temperatures, but an increase in the smoke condition produced by the fire.
B) An eventual 50% decrease in temperatures, with a decrease in the smoke condition produced by the fire.
C) An immediate 50% decrease in temperatures, with a decrease in the smoke condition produced by the fire.
D) An immediate 25% decrease in temperatures! but an increase in the smoke condition produced by the fire.
A) An immediate 50% decrease in temperatures, but an increase in the smoke condition produced by the fire.
(TB Tools 2)
25
The KO training curtain is for training purposes only. When being transported on the apparatus for any reason, the company officer make sure it is in a secure location and not used at any fire operations. How can a company officer differentiate a KO training curtain from the actual KO curtain?
A) The Training Curtain is black nylon with the top 2 feet painted white with the words "TRAINING" stenciled in fluorescent paint.
B) The Training Curtain is black vinyl with yellow stripes forming an "X"
C) The Training Curtain is red vinyl with silver stripes forming an "X"
D) The Training Curtain is red Hot-Stop 1500 L with yellow stripes forming an "X"
B) The Training Curtain is black vinyl with yellow stripes forming an "X"
(TB Tools 2)
A - Training curtain carry bag is black nylon with the top 2 feet painted white with the words "TRAINING" stenciled in fluorescent paint.
D - Actual KO curtain is Hot-Stop 1500 L with yellow stripes forming an "X"
26
When discussing the fire window blanket with members while supervising a drill, in which statement was a battalion chief correct?
A) The blanket is kept in a red vinyl carrying bag.
B) It is brought to the floor above the fire, two floors above, or to the roof if fire is on the top floor. If deployed from two floors above, utility ropes must be secured to the top straps to gain the necessary length.
C) The IC must make a handie talkie transmission to all units just after the blanket is put into place, and units should report back any adverse conditions caused by the blanket.
D) The top of the blanket is identified by the words "Top" stenciled on the top straps and the blanket.
D) The top of the blanket is identified by the words "Top" stenciled on the top straps and the blanket.
(TB Tools 3)
A - Carrying bag is WHITE VINYL.
B - Straps are long enough to reach two floors below. You DO NOT need to gain length by attaching utility ropes.
C - IC must make HT announcement BEFORE blanket is put into place.
27
You are a new captain assigned to an engine company for a very windy day tour. On arrival at a 10-77 fire, with fire being blown back into two adjoining windows, you report in to the command post. The deputy orders you to deploy the fire window blanket, which was brought to the floor above by a Squad company. You would be correct to answer him how?
A) "This is not my blanket and I don't know how to do it"
B) "I'll try but I don't think I can have my members cover both windows as the blanket is not large enough"
C) "No can do Chief! I know we can cover both windows but the blanket will probably blow around due to this high wind!"
D) "Can do Chief! I'll have one of my members be a spotter from the exterior with your binoculars, and I'll send two members to the floor below to secure the lower straps"
D) "Can do Chief! I'll have one of my members be a spotter from the exterior with your binoculars, and I'll send two members to the floor below to secure the lower straps"
(TB Tools 3)
A - ANY unit or units may be used to deploy the blanket.
B - Blanket IS LARGE ENOUGH for 2 windows.
C - Blanket is WEIGHTED AT BOTTOM to prevent being blown around.
28
A probationary firefighter asked a new Lt. some questions regarding the use of portable power generators. The Lt. Was correct in which response?
A) All portable lights shall be operated for 5 minutes weekly during generator test to test lights and generator under load.
B) When using a portable generator to power exhaust fans, small tools or lights, the electric cord should be 50 feet or less.
C) Portable generators shall be operated for 10 minutes weekly.
D) Oil in the crankcase should be changed after 50 hours of use by firefighters at the completion of the weekly test.
A) All portable lights shall be operated for 5 minutes weekly during generator test to test lights and generator under load.
(TB Tools 4)
B - Cord should be 50 feet or less FOR FANS ONLY (not small tools or lights)
C - Portable generators operated for FIFTEEN (15) min weekly.
D - TECH SERVICES changes oil
29
Which is a correct statement concerning apparatus mounted generators?
A) Most ladder company apparatus are equipped with onboard generators.
B) A ladder company with a 2000 or older apparatus may encounter problems powering exhaust fans when the onboard electric cord reel is greater than 50 feet.
C) All repairs to onboard and portable generators shall be performed by Fleet Services.
D) Onboard generators shall be checked at the start of each tour.
B) A ladder company with a 2000 or older apparatus may encounter problems powering exhaust fans when the onboard electric cord reel is greater than 50 feet.
(TB Tools 4)
A - ALL ladder company apparatus have onboard generators.
C - Repairs to onboard and portable generators shall be performed by TECH SERVICES.
D - Onboard generators checked WEEKLY DURING MUD.
30
General safety precautions regarding the operation of generators and their related equipment are incorrectly stated in which choice?
A) Do not operate generators in a confined space where insufficient oxygen or carbon monoxide may exist.
B) Do not use electrical equipment in explosive atmospheres.
C) Do not overload generators beyond their rated capacity so as not to damage the tools being used.
D) Do not use electrical equiptment in the presence of water.
D) Do not use electrical equiptment in the presence of water. (Incorrect)
(TB Tools 4)
*Can use generators in up to THREE (3) FEET OF WATER.
31
When operations using a Honda portable generator require maximum power output, it's use should be limited to?
A) 20 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 45 minutes
D) One hour
B) 30 minutes
| TB Tools 4 - Data Sheet 1 - Sec 4.4
32
Which choice describes incorrectly when controlling nozzles are tested in the FDNY?
A) Annually in Spring with the hose test.
B) Newly issued to a unit
C) Repaired and returned to a unit
D) When deemed necessary by Division Commander
A) Annually in Spring with the hose test. (Incorrect)
(TB Tools 7)
*Annually in AUGUST with the hose test
33
You are a Lt. assigned 4th due engine company on the transmission of a 10-77. You should know which of the following statements is correct?
1. If your company has been assigned a high rise nozzle, it is your responsibility to bring that nozzle to the command post.
2. If your company has not been assigned a high rise nozzle, it is your responsibility to inform the dispatcher to special call a unit that has a high rise nozzle.
3. If you are supervising high rise nozzle operations, you must initiate contact via handie talkie with the assigned spotter on the outside of the building to insure effective use of the stream.
4. If you are supervising a high rise nozzle operation, you shall insure the supply line is attached to the nozzle before the nozzle is slid onto the window sill, and that a shut off is placed in lime two lengths back from the nozzle.
A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1, 2 & 4 D) 2, 3 & 4
A) 1 & 3 (CORRECT)
(TB Tools 7)
2 - The dispatcher will inform you of the identity of the company who has the HRN
4 - Shut off should be places ONE (1) length back from nozzle.
34
You are a Lt. at a multiple alarm cockloft fire in a large H-type building. The DC orders your company to retrieve the cockloft nozzle and put it into operation on the top floor. What do you need to know about this tool to effectively utilize it?
A) It can be found stored on one Engine company in each battalion.
B) It has a very large discharge rate of nearly 300 gpm due to the two nozzle tips.
C) It has a horizontal reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet.
D) A hole approximately 3' x 3' in the ceiling will provide space for the nozzle to fit, and the preferred location for this is underneath the main body of fire.
C) It has a horizontal reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet.
(TB Tools 7)
A - Cockloft nozzle is stored in EACH DIVISION VEHICLE. (The HRN is stored on one Engine company in each Battalion)
B - It has a discharge rate of ONE HUNDRED TWENTY FIVE (125) GPM due to the two nozzle tips.
D - Preferred location is IMMEDIATELY INSIDE THE APARTMENT DOOR. This is to provide members with a degree of protection provided by the public hallway.
35
The rabbit tools a hydraulically operated FE tool consisting of a hand pump, relief valve, high pressure hose, and a pry bar. This tool is limited to certain uses and has some limitations. Which point below correctly lists this tools used and limitations?
A) The pump is designed to be operated in the horizontal position, but may be used vertically if the hose is facing down.
B) Hold the jaws with a gloved hand, set the control lever to pressure and operate pump. The door should open in 4 to 5 pumps of the handle.
C) The tool is designed for use on doors that open inward. It has also been used successfully on sliding elevator doors and as an auto extrication tool.
D) Maintain control of the door at all times. Members should only stand in front of the lock while the operation is in progress only if absolutely necessary.
A) The pump is designed to be operated in the horizontal position, but may be used vertically if the hose is facing down.
(TB Tools 21)
B - 3 to 4 pumps
C - Not to be used as an auto extrication tool
D - Members should not be in front of lock for any reason
36
The portable power saw comes equipped with a variety of cutting blades. High engine speed and the availability of special blades enable to operator to cut almost any material encountered in fire and emergency operations. Which choice is incorrect concerning the different blades and their capabilities?
A) Carbide tips will cut through gravel and tar covered roofs, wood flooring, light sheet metal and similar material such as metal security doors.
B) Aluminum oxide blades (abrasive discs) will cut through variouse types of steel, auto bodies, and metal window bars.
C) Silicon carbide blades (abrasive discs) will cut through concrete and other masonry materials.
D) The carbide tip blade shall not be used on auto bodies, metal window hard and case hardened locks.
A) Carbide tips will cut through gravel and tar covered roofs, wood flooring, light sheet metal and similar material such as metal security doors. (Incorrect)
(TB Tools 9, 2.2)
*Carbide tip CANNOT cut through metal security doors.
37
The proby in Ladder 153 was checking the saws at the start of the 9x6 tour and should know which of the following blades should be placed out of service and which saw should be placed out of service? (More than 1 correct)
A) The carbide tip blade had 3 tips that were missing and 4 tips that were broken.
B) The saw with the carbide tip blade continued to spin slowly when the saw was at low idle.
C) The saw with the aluminum oxide blade stopped spinning when the saw was at low idle and then stalled out.
D) The aluminum oxide blade has a small nick on the end of the blade and the circumference of the blade was 9".
E) The center hole of the yellow blade was out of round.
B) The saw with the carbide tip blade continued to spin slowly when the saw was at low idle (OOS)
E) The center hole of the yellow blade was out of round. (OOS)
(TB Tools 9 3.3, 3.4, Data Sheet 1)
A - 7 missing is OK / 8 or more OOS
B - Spin slowly while at idle (Clutch failure OOS)
C - Blade that stops spinning and stalls (Belt too tight, can be adjusted) (If belt too loose you will experience slippage)
D - Has to be BADLY nicked / Circumference has to be 8"
38
Members of L-100 were drilling with their new member who just transferred across the floor. Each member made a point regarding the saw and all were correct except which one?
A) During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw operation shall observe, as near as possible and practical, a 20 foot diameter circle of danger.
B) All members in the immediate area of cutting operations shall wear full protective clothing. This also applies while testing the saw in or around quarters, or using the saw at drills or training. For safety, goggles must be worn or eye shields should be down.
C) Whenever possible, a team of 2 members shall perform cutting operations. These members shall be equipped with complete fire clothing, gloves, and protective goggles in place.
D) The saw shall always be shut down when unattended and when moved to distant areas such as level to level. Gunning the saw while standing by or moving to a new point of operation shall not be permitted.
A) During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw operation shall observe, as near as possible and practical, a 20 foot diameter circle of danger. (Incorrect)
(TB Tools 9, 4.7, 4.7.3, 4.4.1, 4.8.3)
*Circle of danger for power saw is a 20' RADIUS (40' Diameter)
39
Lt. Doyle, and experienced an outstanding truck officer was supervising roof cutting operations at a top floor fire in a five-story MD. Two saws were in operation and four members were on the roof. Which action(s) should Lt. Doyle correct?
A) While starting the cut with carbide tip the firefighter using the saw kept the saw at low speed when contacting the roof and gradually increased the engine speed as the blade cut into the roof.
B ) The same member took a boxer's stance drawing the saw to the space between his feet which were 18" to 20" apart.
C) When the second saw was brought to the roof it was started in an area with a light smoke condition close to the point of operation. When the member started cutting he stayed outside of the cut.
D) After 30 minutes of cutting the member operating the 1st saw to the roof needed to refuel. The saw was shut down, tilted away from the engine, and extreme caution was used.
A) While starting the cut with carbide tip the firefighter using the saw kept the saw at low speed when contacting the roof and gradually increased the engine speed as the blade cut into the roof. (Incorrect)
C) When the second saw was brought to the roof it was started in an area with a light smoke condition close to the point of operation. When the member started cutting he stayed outside of the cut. (Incorrect)
(TB Tools 9, 5.7)
A - Saw enters roof at FULL RPMS for carbide tip blade.
C - Start the saw in AN AREA FREE OF SMOKE and close to the point of operation.
40
Two roof firefighters were operating on the roof of an OLT during an all hands for a fire on the top floor. These members cut a hole over the fire room and pushed down the ceiling after the cut was opened. After this hole was cut one of the roof firefighters noticed a piece of plywood covering a broken window on the bulkhead. He called the other firefighter with the saw to come over and cut this plywood covering the window to provide additional ventilation. The firefighter with the saw lifted the saw to a vertical position and cut the plywood without incident. You should ____________ with the firefighters actions?
A) Agree
B) Disagree
B) Disagree
(TB Tools 9, section 4.14.1)
*Use saw in the horizontal position. You must be ordered or supervised by an Officer if operating the saw vertically.
41
Whether the power saw is being used at a cutting operation during training, or being tested, all members in the immediate area of the saw in operation shall wear full protective clothing, including goggles. In lieu of goggles, eye shields must be in the down position. "Immediate Area" in this section is defined as __________ feet.
A) 10
B) 30
C) 40
D) 20
D) 20'
| TB Tools 9, 7.4
42
Units were discussing the use of the power saw at multi unit drill. Which point made by members should be corrected by the officer?
A) Generally the beams run the short side of the building, usually from side to side and 16" on center. The roof boards are nailed to the beams and run perpendicular to them, usually from front to rear.
B) If excessive resistance to the saw is encountered, the cut may be on the beam. Sparks are a good indication that the cut is on a beam. Move the saw to the outside of the cut, permitting a cut clear of the beam and making the section easier to move.
C) If resistance is met when cutting perpendicular to the roof beams, lift the saw, continue to cut but avoid a deep cut into the beams.
D) Fresh smoke coming from the area of the saw blade usually indicates too deep a cut through heavy material. When this occurs, remove the saw from the cut, rev up the saw to maximum RPM and begin a slightly shallower cut.
B) If excessive resistance to the saw is encountered, the cut may be on the beam. Sparks are a good indication that the cut is on a beam. Move the saw to the outside of the cut, permitting a cut clear of the beam and making the section easier to move. (Incorrect)
(TB Tools 9, 6.1.5)
*Move the saw to the INSIDE OF THE CUT
43
The size and location of the opening of a cut will depend on fire conditions. A suggested method is to make an expandable coffin cut. When making this cut there are a total of 7 cuts that are made and there is a proper sequence that should be followed. When following this sequence the numbers 7,8, and 9 will be formed at some point during the cut. A sharp Lt. would know that the 6' cut would be cut # _________, the knockout cut would be cut # _______ and after the first 5 cuts are made your cut would look like the 7,8 or 9?
A) Cut 2 / Cut 3 / #7
B) Cut 4 / Cut 5 / #8
C) Cut 3 / Cut 2 / #9
D) Cut 1 / Cut 7 / #9
C) Cut 3 / Cut 2 / #9
(TB Tools 9, 6.1.10)
Cut #1 = 3' Cut #2 = Knockout Cut
Cut #3 = 6' Cuts #4 #5 #6 #7 = 3' each
"7-9-8"
44
According to Tools 9 when examining the cockloft what is the preferable method?
A) Cutting triangular holes in the roof (the size of the saw blade)
B) Pulling ceilings from below.
C) Opening the returns of a skylight or scuttle.
D) Opening the cornice.
B) Pulling ceilings from below.
(TB Tools 9, 6.2.1)
Order of preference:
1. Pull ceilings
2. Cut holes in roof
3. Open returns
45
Regarding the maintenance of the power saw, a belt adjustment should be made at all of the following times except?
A) Weekly during MUD
B) After every cutting operation.
C) When the saw is returned from being repaired.
D) When a new belt is installed.
C) When the saw is returned from being repaired.
| TB Tools 9, 3.1 Appendix A 6.4
46
The maxi force air bag system is a valuable tool in rescue and extrication operations. When inflated with air, they are designed to lift and move heavy loads. They are relatively simple to operate, requiring only an inch of space for insertion. Which is the only correct point below about the air bags?
A) They are excellent in lifting odd shaped objects and cylindrical objects. Stabilize and shore the load after placing the air bags into position. Always exercise care to avoid injury in the event of a drop or load shift.
B) If possible, have the bag connected prior to placing it under or between loads to minimize the operators exposure to the load area and to eliminate the possibility of e operator placing the bag with the air inlet under the load.
C) Never stack more than two bags on top of each other and always place the smaller bag on top of the larger one. When stacking bags, generally inflate the bottom bag first. The bags should only be inflated to 1/2 to 3/4 of their rated height capacity.
D) Remember that when stacking bags you can add together the tonnage of the two bags to get the total lifting weight. Avoid inflating bags against sharp objects or on a surface heated to over 220 degrees.
C) Never stack more than two bags on top of each other and always place the smaller bag on top of the larger one. When stacking bags, generally inflate the bottom bag first. The bags should only be inflated to 1/2 to 3/4 of their rated height capacity.
(TB Tools 20 4.3 Note, 3.2.7 Note)
A - Stabilize and shore BEFORE placing air bags into position.
B - ALWAYS have the bag connected prior to placing it under a load.
D - CANNOT add tonnage together
47
During a drill the proby pulled out the 30 ton air bag which can lift up to 30 tons with a maximum lifting height of 10". The members should instruct the proby that this 30 ton bag can lift 30 tons _____. They should further instruct him that the 30 ton bag can lift how many tons 10"?
A) 1" / 15 tons
B) 8" / 30 tons
C) 5" / 10 tons
D) 10" / 30 tons
A) 1" / 15 tons
| TB Tools 20 6.9.6
48
Which is an incorrect statement about glow sticks used by the FDNY?
A) When activated, glow sticks provide up to 8 hours of illumination.
B) Each unit shall carry at least 10 glow sticks on their apparatus.
C) When required, units shall requisition glow sticks in packs of 5 from tech services.
D) Glow sticks require no electricity and present no danger of sparking.
A) When activated, glow sticks provide up to 8 hours of illumination (INCORRECT)
(TB Tools 30)
*Glow sticks provide up to TWELVE (12) hours of illumination.
49
Glow sticks can be an effective source of light in an emergency situation. Which is the correct point about this new tool?
A) Although they can tolerate high pressure, they are not waterproof.
B) The light is created when an internal glass capsule is broken, causing a chemical reaction.
C) The glow stick should not be shaken unless the temperature is below 32 degrees Fahrenheit.
D) The "triple A" battery needs to be replaced semi annually.
B) The light is created when an internal glass capsule is broken, causing a chemical reaction.
(TB Tools 30)
A - Glow sticks ARE WATERPROOF.
C - Glow stick SHOULD BE shaken.
D - Batteries ARE NOT REQUIRED to operate glow sticks
50
Sound powered telephones (SPT) have been a tool in the FDNY arsenal for many years and recently have been emphasized as a viable option for communication. Which is an incorrect statement made during the drill?
A) FDNY sound powered telephone equipment is used primarily in the NYC Transit system in conjunction with installed hard wired systems.
B) Sound powered telephones can be used as a standalone system in high rise buildings.
C) When the temperature is below 0 degrees Celsius, sound powered phones may not perform efficiently outdoors.
D) All battalions have been issued sound powered telephones.
C) When the temperature is below 0 degrees Celsius, sound powered phones may not perform efficiently outdoors. (INCORRECT)
(TB Tools 31)
*SPT NOT effected by temperature or humidity.
51
You are the Lt. of E-49, a special called engine to an all hands fire in a below grade subway station. Upon arrival the Deputy Chief orders you to establish a communications link with the operations chief on the mezzanine level utilizing sound powered telephones which are not carried by your apparatus. You know that sound powered telephones are carried by all but which of the following units?
A) All Battalions
B) All Divisions
C) High Rise units 1 & 2
D) Field Communications Unit
B) All Divisions (Do NOT carry sound powered telephones)
| TB Tools 31
52
Which two are incorrectly included on the equipment list for the waterproof sound powered telephone box?
A) 2 headsets
B) 1 screwdriver
C) Two 1620 keys
D) 2 survivor flashlights
E) T-handle subway key
F) 1 handset
D) 2 survivor flashlights (INCORRECT)
F) 1 handset (INCORRECT)
(TB Tools 31)
* Also included on the equipment list:
- 2 amplifiers
- "Y" connector
- 2 jumper cords
- 4 glow sticks
- laminated instruction sheet
53
Sound powered telephones may be used with either handsets or headsets. If both are available for use members should choose ____________.
A) Handsets because they have less background noise than headsets.
B) Headsets because they allow for hands free use.
C) Handsets because they have less interference.
D) Headsets because they function like a standard telephone.
B) Headsets because they allow for hands free use.
| TB Tools 31
54
Lt. Smith was reviewing sound powered telephone operations during drill. He was correct in all his statements except which one?
A) Specific members assigned to maintain and monitor the SPT link shall be paired with another member monitoring handie talkie communications.
B) The headset will buzz when communications are being initiated.
C) The headset and amplifier are connected to the wire after the wire is stretched to the end point.
D) When transmitting messages, the mouthpiece should be close to the speaker's face.
B) The headset will buzz when communications are being initiated. (INCORRECT)
(TB Tools 31)
*Headset DOES NOT make noise when indicating transmission.
55
In preparation for an upcoming large scale exercise members of L-171 were reviewing the use of sound powered telephones in NYC Transit facilities. Which was the moly correct statement made?
A) Two types of systems are installed: street to station and street to tunnel.
B) The two systems are interconnected and permit seamless communication.
C) Only above grade SPT connectors in the Transit system, are located in locked metal boxes
D) The wire reels for the under river tunnels consist of a 500 foot long wire.
A) Two types of systems are installed: street to station and street to tunnel.
(TB Tools 31)
B - Two systems are NOT INTERCONNECTED.
C - ALL SPT CONNECTORS are located in locked metal boxes.
D - Wire reels consist of 400' FOOT LONG WIRE.
56
Which two are the correct statements about the locations of the sound powered telephone outlet and standpipe cabinets?
A) On a subway platform the SPT outlet is located in metal boxes inside the red standpipe cabinet.
B) If there is no SPT outlet in the standpipe outlet box, search the surrounding area for a small individual cabinet.
C) On the mezzanine level the standpipe cabinet is identified by a sign showing a white hose on a red background.
D) On the platform level the standpipe outlet will only be located on a column.
B) If there is no SPT outlet in the standpipe outlet box, search the surrounding area for a small individual cabinet.
C) On the mezzanine level the standpipe cabinet is identified by a sign showing a white hose on a red background.
(TB Tools 31)
A - On platform level the SPT outlet is located in a RED METAL BOX inside of the STAINLESS STEEL STANDPIPE CABINET.
D - On platform level, standpipe outlet MAY BE located on a column.
57
Where is the SPT connector typically located in a "street to tunnel" system?
A) Track level at entrance to the tunnel.
B) Track level at emergency exit closest to tunnel exits
C) Street level at Siamese of closest subway station
D) Street level at Siamese closest to the emergency exits
D) Street level at Siamese closest to the emergency exits (on both sides)
(TB Tools 31)
58
During a familiarization drill in an under river tunnel FF Smith, who is studying for Lieutenant, made the following statements. Which one is incorrect?
A) In under river tubes the SPT connectors are found at the standpipe outlets.
B) The SPT connector on the platform level may require a subway exit key and/or the 1620 key to open.
C) The SPT system from the nearby station will usually have no connection to the SPT system of any under river tunnel regardless of proximity.
D) In under river tunnels the standpipe outlets are about 200 feet apart and numbered for location identification.
B) The SPT connector on the platform level may require a subway exit key and/or the 1620 key to open. (INCORRECT)
(TB Tools 31 4.1.2)
B - Subway exit key opens the stainless steel cabinet.
1620 key opens SPT connector.
59
The Amplifier is an integral component of the SPT system. Which is the only correct point about the amplifier?
A) The amplifier increases the volume of verbal transmissions and must be installed at specific points in the system.
B) The "push to amplify" button must be pressed whenever the user wants to hear a transmitted message.
C) The 9-volt battery in the amplifier must be changed twice a year.
D) If the amplifier does not work properly at any time immediately remove from service and contact Research and Development.
C) The 9-volt battery in the amplifier must be changed twice a year.
(TB Tools 31, 2.6)
A - The amplifier IS NOT REQUIRED to be installed in the system.
B - The member who TRANSMITS A MESSAGE presses the "push to amplify" button
D - If amplifier isn't working, check the battery first before removing it from service and sending it out.
60
Positive pressure fans are carried by several units of the FDNY. Which is not a stated intended use of these positive pressure fans?
A) Keep heat and smoke from entering stairwells in fireproof MDs.
B) Pressurize the attack stairwell in a fireproof MD.
C) Ventilate a building with high CO readings
D) Pressurize the fire area in the early stages of a private dwelling fire
E) Ventilate a large structure of smoke to assist in search operations.
D) Pressurize the fire area in the early stages of a private dwelling fire. (INCORRECT)
(TB Tools 32, 2.1)
*Fans are used for controlling smoke and CO.
61
You are the Lt. working in L-62 and are special called to a 10-77 for use of the positive pressure fans. You know which of the following to be the only correct statement about the Tempest Power Blower PP fans carried by your unit?
A) If starting with a full fuel tank and operating at full throttle, the run time is 60-90 minutes.
B) The fan has wheels and is highly mobile; lifting requires only one member.
C) Stairwell pressurization shall not be initiated unless authorized by the fire sector supervisor, operations chief, or incident commander.
D) Although eye and ear protection is required, members shall limit their time directly in front of an operating fan.
D) Although eye and ear protection is required, members shall limit their time directly in front of an operating fan.
(TB Tools 32, section 3.2)
A - Full tank (total run time is 2-3 hours)
B - Lifting unit requires TWO (2) members. 1 member can wheel the unit.
C - ONLY THE IC can authorize PPFs
62
"Always" and "never" are absolute terms that are not frequently used in the FDNY books. Which of the following "always or never" statements are correct?
A) The PPF should never be transported while in operation
B) Fuel levels shall always remain full to allow for maximum operation
C) Fans shall never be refueled inside of a structure
D) An operating fan must always have an exhaust hose attached
E) All are correct
E) All are correct
(TB Tools 32, section 3.2-3.5)
*Also never leave unattended
63
While discussing the inspection and maintenance of the PPV fans during study group Joe Knownothing made the following statements. Which was his only correct statement?
A) Fans are inspected each tour
B) Fans must be removed from the apparatus to test the fans
C) During MUD fans shall be run at full RPM for at least 5 min.
D) When repairs are necessary the unit should call research and development to schedule a pick up.
B) Fans must be removed from the apparatus to test the fans
(TB Tools 32, 4.1)
A - Fans inspected DAILY AT START OF 9x TOUR
C - Run at full RPMs at MUD for FIVE (5) MINUTES
D - repairs made by TECH SERVICES
64
Chain saws can save time and energy. They are also extremely dangerous. Which of the following is an incorrect statement concerning chain saw usage?
A) The chain saw is never to be used for ventilation or overhauling of structural fires.
B) The chain saw may be utilized at emergencies or non structural fires only if the safety and operational procedures of TB Tools 24 are followed.
C) While operating the chain saw, the operator shall wear the following NFPA compliant and FDNY approved protective equipment: Long sleeve work duty shirt or bunker coat, helmet, eye protection, ear protection, saw protected gloves, bunker boots, and saw protected chaps.
D) The control person shall wear the following NFPA compliant and FDNY approved protective equipment: Long sleeve work duty shirt or bunker coat, helmet, eye protection, ear protection, saw protected gloves, bunker boots, and saw protected chaps.
A) The chain saw is never to be used for ventilation or overhauling of structural fires. (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 24)
A - EXCEPT FOR PIER FIRE OPERATIONS.
C & D = Both operator and control man have to wear same PPE
65
There are several general rules that must be followed at all times when using the chain saw. Which choice is incorrect concerning these rules?
A) Keep the body to the left of the chain. Never straddle the saw or lean across the chain.
B) Do not over extend or it while off balance. Do not attempt cutting above chest height.
C) Maintain steady footing while gripping the saw firmly with both hands. When operating on slopes, the chain saw operator must always stand on the downhill side of the tree/log when cutting.
D) When cutting downward you will experience a pulling reaction. When the saw breaks through the wood the pull will increase. During upward cutting a pushing reaction will be felt.
C) Maintain steady footing while gripping the saw firmly with both hands. When operating on slopes, the chain saw operator must always stand on the downhill side of the tree/log when cutting. (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 24)
C - *Stand on UPHILL SIDE
D - Pulldown/Pushup
66
Which of the following correctly describes the circle of danger for chain saw operations?
A) A circle of danger of a diameter of at least 10' will be established before commencement of cutting. The saw operator, control person and officer will be the only personnel in this area.
B) A circle of danger of a radius of at least 10' will be established before commencement of cutting. The saw operator, control person and officer will be the only personnel in this area.
C) A circle of danger of a diameter of at least 10' will be established before the commencement of cutting. The saw operator and co tell person will be the only personnel in this area during cutting. Officer is to monitor conditions and relay orders received from the officer in command. If possible, the officer is positioned as to permit visual contact with the control person.
D) A circle of danger of a radius of at least 10' will be established before the commencement of cutting. The saw operator and co tell person will be the only personnel in this area during cutting. Officer is to monitor conditions and relay orders received from the officer in command. If possible, the officer is positioned as to permit visual contact with the control person.
D) A circle of danger of a radius of at least 10' will be established before the commencement of cutting. The saw operator and co tell person will be the only personnel in this area during cutting. Officer is to monitor conditions and relay orders received from the officer in command. If possible, the officer is positioned as to permit visual contact with the control person.
(TB TOOLS 24)
D is only correct answer (ONLY OPERATOR/CONTROL allowed in circle which has a RADIUS OF TEN FEET)
67
In addition to general rules, there are several operational precautions to follow when using a chain saw. Which operational precaution is stated incorrectly?
A) Cutting an object which has fallen against a structure and is now supported by it requires the object to be stabilized by lashing or shoring prior to cutting it.
B) If a branch, tree section or other object is hanging, leaning or otherwise damaged, members are to prevent access to the danger area by unauthorized persons. If practical, the object should be stabilized by lashing or shoring. Cutting it down is not to be attempted.
C) Kickback potential of the chainsaw is very dangerous. Never make plunge cuts with the tip of the blade. Never use the tip of the saw blade for cutting.
D) The most dangerous kickback zone is the upper 90 degree quadrant of the saw blade.
A) Cutting an object which has fallen against a structure and is now supported by it requires the object to be stabilized by lashing or shoring prior to cutting it. (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 24)
* DO NOT cut object AGAINST A STRUCTURE.
68
The chainsaw can be used for a multitude of cutting operations, including cutting logs resting on one or two fulcrum points, limping, bucking or cutting trees blown uprooted. Choose the incorrect point about these operations.
A) When cutting on the overhanging end of a log (past the fulcrum point) cut straight through the log (rip cut). The log will hinge to the ground.
B) Wood on the ground or standing timber which is under tension has first to be cut on the tension side. Thereafter the cross cut must be finished on the compression side.
C) Limbing is the removing of branches from a fallen tree. Start Limbing by leaving the lower limbs to support the log off the ground. When under bucking freely hanging limbs, a pinch may result or the limb may fall, causing loss of control.
D) When cutting trees blown uprooted, start cutting from topside, working towards the stump, this will help lighten the load on the pressure points.
B) Wood on the ground or standing timber which is under tension has first to be cut on the tension side. Thereafter the cross cut must be finished on the compression side (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 24)
* Wood on ground under tension = cut on COMPRESSION side 1st
Thereafter the cross cut finished from TENSION side.
"C before T"
69
Which safety requirement concerning chainsaw usage is incorrect?
A) The saw shall not be operated from a ladder.
B) Chaps must be worn by the operator, control person and officer over shorts, long pants or bunker pants.
C) Members must wear saw protective gloves whenever testing or operating the chainsaw. Saw protective gloves are not approved for firefighting purposes.
D) Do not walk roughen stable areas cluttered with brush, logs, vines or heavy underbrush with a running chainsaw. Carry the saw with the guide bar to the rear when climbing uphill and to the front when going downhill.
B) Chaps must be worn by the operator, control person and officer over shorts, long pants or bunker pants. (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 24)
* Chaps only worn by OPERATOR & CONTROL PERSON
Chaps CANNOT be worn over shorts
70
The Hydra Ram is a hydraulically operated forcible entry tool that does not have the same usage limitations as the Rabbit Tool. Which point about is tool is correct?
A) It's main purpose is for forcible entry of inward doors only. Other applications can be to provide an opening from the side of a vehicle hood or trunk for placement of an extinguishment agent.
B) The Hydra Ram can't be used underwater.
C) The tool is designed to operate in the horizontal position only.
D) The Hydra Ram, unlike the Rabbit Tool, can be struck with a tool to gain a purchase.
E) Once the Hydra Ram reaches its maximum opening of 4 inches, additional strokes of the control arm will cause the piston to overextend which may lead to rupturing the piston seal causing hydraulic fluid to spray out under pressure.
F) Both the piston under the operating arm and the working end piston should be lubricated with "3 in 1" oil (obtained through Tech Services)
E) Once the Hydra Ram reaches its maximum opening of 4 inches, additional strokes of the control arm will cause the piston to overextend which may lead to rupturing the piston seal causing hydraulic fluid to spray out under pressure.
(TB TOOLS 24)
A - Can be used on both INWARD & OUTWARD opening doors
B - CAN BE USED UNDERWATER
C - CAN OPERATE IN ANY POSITION
D - NEVER STRIKE RAM WITH TOOL
E - Correct
F - OIL OBTAINED THROUGH FIREHOUSE EXPENSE FUND
71
Thermal Imaging Cameras (TIC) are carried by Ladder, Rescue, Squad and HazMat Company 1. TICs provide a pictorial representation of temperature differences that are unaffected by smoke. Choose the incorrect point about this tool.
A) Visible light is blocked by the solid carbon particles in smoke. Infrared Energy (IR) wave length, which is detected by TICs, is unaffected by smoke.
B) A thermal image is a pictorial representation of temperature differences. Black indicates the presence of the least amount of heat of the coolest object in the scene.
C) White indicates the presence of the most heat in the scene. Black and white are relative to the overall image viewed.
D) Shades of grey represent the temperature difference between Black and White. These shades of white, black and gray and their difference in colorization are the only colors that will be viewed on the TIC.
D) Shades of grey represent the temperature difference between Black and White. These shades of white, black and gray and their difference in colorization are the only colors that will be viewed on the TIC. (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 27)
* RED & ORANGE may also be seen on the TIC
72
The operator of the TIC must be familiar with its features in order to effectively use the tool. Which of the following is an incorrect understanding of the TIC?
A) Low contrast may occur in cooler areas where images may be difficult to view due to the lack of heat present, and all objects being close in temperature.
B) High contrast will occur where the more heat is present. The more heat present, the clearer and sharper the image will appear, until the area being viewed reaches the point of thermal saturation.
C) When everything on the viewing area is heated to temperatures beyond the capacities of the TIC being used (Thermal Saturation), the overall area being viewed will lose all contrast and appear black and featureless.
D) Changing thermal contrast will cause the image viewed by the TIC to change when conditions change from cooler to hotter back to cooler. This may be an indication of fire being in close proximity.
C) When everything on the viewing area is heated to temperatures beyond the capacities of the TIC being used (Thermal Saturation), the overall area being viewed will lose all contrast and appear black and featureless. (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 27)
* THERMAL SATURATION = viewing area is WHITE & FEATURELESS
73
TICs shall be carried and used at all structural fire operations by all units equipped with this tool. Choose a correct tactical application or limitation of the TIC.
A) Operators should begin at the floor level and use a side to side scanning motion, slowly working their way to the ceiling.
B) Thermal imaging does not see through plastic or water. However it will see through clear glass. Shiny surfaces will conceal the heat source preventing the, from being viewed with the TIC.
C) Average field of view of a TIC is approximately 50 degrees. Focal point of the TIC is approximately 3 feet from the camera lens.
D) Thermal imaging camera is intrinsically safe, however radio transmissions may cause the TIC to malfunction.
E) The TIC is waterproof, however it should not be submerged if possible.
C) Average field of view of a TIC is approximately 50 degrees. Focal point of the TIC is approximately 3 feet from the camera lens.
(TB TOOLS 27)
A - Begin at CEILING and work slowly to FLOOR
B - TIC DOES NOT SEE THROUGH GLASS
C - Correct
D - TIC IS NOT INTRINSICALLY SAFE
E - TIC IS NOT WATERPROOF
74
The Cordless Rebar cutter is carried by all Ladder, Squad, and Rescue companies. Which of the following can this tool cut?
A) Window and door gates
B) Wrought iron fences up to 5/8" in radius
C) Case hardened steel rods
D) Case hardened locks
A) Window and door gates
(TB TOOLS 28)
* Can also cut wrought iron fences up to 5/8" in DIAMETER
CANNOT be used on case hardened locks or steel rods.
75
The cordless rebar cutter is simple to use and requires no lengthy training period to familiarize the member. However, there are several limitations that the operator should be familiar with. Which choice is correct concerning this tool?
A) Position the tool head parallel to the bar to be cut and secure it by adjusting the screw provided.
B) Caution must be exercised when cutting an object with a free unsupported end. To avoid injury, material being cut should be secured.
C) The tool can be operated in an explosive atmosphere, e.g. Flammable liquids, gases or dusts as long as proper safety precautions are followed.
D) The tool will work well in all temperature conditions due to its sealed hydraulic assembly.
E) A fully charged battery will last for approximately 60 cuts.
B) Caution must be exercised when cutting an object with a free unsupported end. To avoid injury, material being cut should be secured.
(TB TOOLS 28)
A - Position tool head PERPENDICULAR (at right angle) to bar
B - Correct
C - DO NOT operate tool in explosive atmosphere
D - Below 32 degrees = tool must WARM UP
E - Fully charged battery = 40 CUTS
76
An Engine company should have its pumps in the Pressure Position to facilitate water supply during what type of operation?
A) Standpipe operation
B) Brush fire operation
C) Cellar fire
D) Subway operation
A) Standpipe Operation
| TB APPARATUS P-3, 1.5
77
Select the incorrect statement regarding flowmeters on an Engine apparatus.
A) Designed to measure the rate of flow of water in a confined space as it passes a given point at a given time.
B) Registers readings whether water is flowing or not flowing
C) Displays are represented in gallons per minute (GPM)
D) Used by ECCs to determine problems with operating handlines.
B) Registers readings whether water is flowing or not flowing.
(INCORRECT)
(TB APPARATUS P-3, 1.12)
* Only registers reading when WATER IS FLOWING.
78
What type of hose must be used when drafting operations are indicated?
A) 35 foot soft hydrant connection
B) 10 foot small hydrant connection
C) 10 foot hard suction connection
D) Length of 3 1/2" hose
C) 10 foot hard suction connection
| TB APPARATUS P-3, 4
79
What statement below accurately describes the Pro-Pressure Governor (PPG) device on department Engine Apparatus?
A) Controls the discharge pressure of the pump
B) Enables the pump to operate in either Pressure or Volume position
C) Positive displacement pump
D) Indicated negative or vacuum pressure.
A) Controls the discharge pressure of the pump
| TB APPARATUS P-3, 9.1
80
FDNY standard operating procedures require the Pro Pressure Governor to be operated in what mode?
A) Idle
B) Pressure
C) Volume
D) RPM
B) Pressure
(TB APPARATUS P-3, 9.2)
* DO NOT CONFUSE with pumps pressure position
81
The Ross Relief Valve is used whenever a hose line is stretched and in operation. Select the exception to this statement.
A) Supplying an 1 3/4" line with a 15/16" nozzle
B) Supplying a 2 1/2" line with a 1 1/8" nozzle
C) Supplying a 2 1/2" line with a 1 1/4" nozzle
D) Supplying a booster line
D) Supplying a booster line (INCORRECT)
(TB APPARATUS P-3, 11.1)
* The Ross Relief Valve is used whenever a line is stretched and in
operation, EXCEPT FOR booster line operations.
The function of the Ross Relief Valve is to give a measure of protection to operating handlines against pressure surges, which can cause injury to members or burst hose lengths.
Ross Relief valves found in Engines before 1997
82
An Engine company lieutenant should instruct his ECC to notify the IC at a fire operation when hydrant pressure at the apparatus inlet drops below how many pounds per square inch?
A) 5 PSI
B) 10 PSI
C) 15 PSI
D) 25 PSI
C) 15 PSI
| TB APPARATUS P-3, 12.3.4 Notes
83
The 100 foot Aerial Ladder operates by utilizing two double action hydraulic lift cylinders. What is the load capacity range of this ladder?
A) 200-1050 lbs
B) 250-750 lbs
C) 300-1250 lbs
D) 350-1300 lbs
B) 250-750 lbs
| TB APPARATUS L-7, 1.4
84
What is the distance needed in each side of the apparatus for clearance when utilizing the 100 foot Aerial Ladder's "H" frame stabilizers?
A) 5' 2"
B) 6' 10"
C) 7' 4"
D 8' 6"
A) 5' 2"
| TB APPARATUS L-7, 1.6
85
Where on the 100 foot Aerial Ladder apparatus are the stabilizer controls located?
A) Inside the cab
B) Behind the rear wheels
C) At the back
D) On the pedestal
C) At the back
| TB APPARATUS L-7, 3.1
86
What is meant by the term "short-jacked" when discussing "H" frame stabilizers on the 100 foot Aerial Ladder?
A) Ground stabilizer pad is not level
B) Green stabilizer Down Indicator Light is illuminated
C) Locking pin is inserted into the highest peg hole on the jack
D) Stabilizer is not fully extended horizontally
D) Stabilizer is not fully extended horizontally
| TB APPARATUS L-7, 3.3
87
# Choose an incorrect statement concerning Aerial Ladder Extension footage numbers:
A) Located on the inside of the Aerial Base section
B) Located on the Base section of the vertical struts
C) Located on the bright colored corresponding vertical strut of the 2nd section
D) when colored strut is lined up with a footage number,mother ladder is extended to that respective length.
A) Located on the inside of the Aerial Base section (INCORRECT)
(TB APPARATUS L-7, 4.4)
88
Why is it important to match up the Extension Footage and Inclinometer numbers on the 100 foot Aerial Ladder when it is in use?
A) Determine rung alignment
B) Determine if Aerial Ladder section are locked
C) Determine proper load capacity
D) Determine if the Aerial Ladder is fully extended
C) Determine proper load capacity
| TB APPARATUS L-7, 4.5
89
A confined space is defined as any area that is not designed for continuous human occupancy; and is large enough and so configured that a person can enter and perform work; and has limited means for entry and escape. Which one of the following is not a confined space?
A) Manhole
B) Basement
C) Sub-cellar
D) Chimney
E) Storage building with windows
E) Storage building with windows.
(TB CONFINED SPACE 1.1.2, TB SCBA)
* Building with NO WINDOWS is a confined space
90
If a confined space poses a danger to anyone that enters it, it is designated a Permit Required Confined Space (permit space). Which point about Permit Spaces is incorrect?
A) It contains or has the potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere.
B) It contains material that could potentially engulf a person.
C) It is shaped in a way that a person could be caught or asphyxiated by inwardly tapering walls, or floors that slope downward, tapering into a smaller cross section.
D) It contains any recognized serious health or safety hazard.
E) A non-permit space will not be as deadly as a permit space, and therefore does not require a sign to warn of the dangers.
E) A non-permit space will not be as deadly as a permit space, and therefore does not require a sign to warn of the dangers. (INCORRECT)
(TB CONFINED SPACE 2)
* A non-permit space CAN BE JUST AS DEADLY as a permit space, it
just does not have a sign to warn you of the dangers.
91
Atmospheric hazards can be Asphyxiants, Toxic, or Explosive. Which is the correct action to take to deal successfully with atmospheric hazards?
A) The only safe way to detect a lack of oxygen is through the use of an oxygen meter carried by Rescue Companies and HazMat.
B) Due to the potential for life threatening atmosphere, all members entering any confined space must be breathing air from their SCBA at all times, throughout the entire operation.
C) The only accurate way to test for the presence of all possible toxic materials in the field is through the use of DEPs Mobile Lab or HAZ Mat Company 1 meters.
D) Materials will be either flammable or toxic, but will not be both flammable and toxic.
A) The only safe way to detect a lack of oxygen is through the use of an oxygen meter carried by Rescue Companies and HazMat.
(TB CONFINED SPACE 2.1.1)
A - Correct
B - All members must be breathing air out of their SCBA at all times,
UNTIL ATMOSPHERE IS VERIFIED SAFE.
C - The only safe way to detect a lack of Oxygen is through the use of
an oxygen meter carried by Rescue and HazMat.
D - Materials can be BOTH FLAMMABLE & TOXIC.
92
Physical hazards also pose dangers to members at Confined Space operations. Which of the following is not correct concerning Fire Department precautions taken to combat physical hazards?
A) Members entering these spaces should always use a Fire Department ladder due to the likelihood that the ladders built into these spaces have deteriorated significantly.
B) Members should be protected against sudden falling by tying off their life line around a substantial object to allow them to be lowered into the space.
C) Members should remain attached to their lifeline at all times while operating in the space.
D) The lifeline may act as a guideline for retreat, guide reinforcements to the member's position, or be used to pull additional equipment in or out of the space.
A) Members entering these spaces should always use a Fire Department ladder due to the likelihood that the ladders built into these spaces have deteriorated significantly. (INCORRECT)
(TB CONFINED SPACE 2.2.1)
* IF CONDITIONS PERMIT use a FD ladder when entering a confined
space.
93
As a bare minimum, the rescuer who is entering a confined space must know all of the following except?
A) The hazards within the space, including signs of danger and symptoms of exposure to materials in the space.
B) How to escape the space in an emergency.
C) How to communicate with the attendant outside.
D) How to use the equipment needed to perform the rescue, especially the rescuers personal protective equipment and patient handling equipment.
E) All CFR-D procedures
E) All CFR-D procedures (INCORRECT)
(TB CONFINED SPACE 3.1.1)
* NOT ALL CFR (First Aid & CPR only)
94
Engine 333 arrives at the scene of a worker trapped in a chemical storage tank. Which action taken by Engine 333 was incorrect?
A) Engine 333 established a control perimeter and posted two radio equipped members with necessary tools at each location which controls the flow inside space.
B) Contacted the victim by entering the space and establishing physical contact with the victim.
C) Ensured the response of the nearest Rescue Company, Haz Mat Company 1, a Battalion Chief, a SOC Support Ladder Company and CFR-D Engine, and an ALS ambulance.
D) Began ventilation of the chemical tank, and explored the possibility of using positive pressure venting.
B) Contacted the victim by entering the space and establishing physical contact with the victim. (INCORRECT)
(TB CONFINED SPACE 3.1.1)
* They should contact victim WITHOUT ENTERING SPACE.
(Call out to them)
95
Several precautions must be followed when members enter a confined space. Which is the wrong action to take at a confined space incident?
A) As a general rule, each member operating with a 30 minute cylinder must be withdrawn to fresh air in 15 min.
B) Entry into confined spaces with 30 minute cylinders must be strictly limited where rescuers can be seen and removed from the outside.
C) Each member entering a confined space must be secured in a bowline on a bight and slippery hitch to a life saving rope.
D) Members may enter the confined space prior to a retrieval system being set up is Rescue has not arrived on scene yet.
D) Members may enter the confined space prior to a retrieval system being set up is Rescue has not arrived on scene yet. (INCORRECT)
(TB CONFINED SPACE 4.2, Data sheet 1)
* Retrieval system must be set up PRIOR to members entering
confined space.
96
A very stable, easily created high point anchor is a Tower Ladder, or if there is no better alternative, an aerial ladder. Which is the incorrect point about using these as high point anchors?
A) The TL is preferred due to its greater weight supporting capacity, at least 800 pounds.
B) The weight supporting capacity of the aerial ladder is 250 - 750 pounds, depending on elevation.
C) The Aerial or Tower Ladder shall never be used as a crane to lift a person.
D) Once the boom or ladder is in position, all personnel shall be removed from the turntable and the apparatus kept running in case rapid repositioning of the high point is needed.
D) Once the boom or ladder is in position, all personnel shall be removed from the turntable and the apparatus kept running in case rapid repositioning of the high point is needed. (INCORRECT)
(TB CONFINED SPACES 4.4, TB Apparatus L-7)
* All members removed from turntable and SHUT OFF ENGINE to
prevent accidental movement.
97
Treatment of injured victims in dangerous confined spaces is a difficult task. Which is the correct medical treatment at confined spaces?
A) If the victim is breathing but the atmosphere is a threat, establishing an airway and placement of a mask face piece is the highest priority. The rescuers shall never remove their face pieces.
B) Use of the resuscitator and performing CPR in a hazardous atmosphere are never to be performed in a confined space.
C) Any victim that is unconscious for any reason should be treated as having spinal injuries. Even under extreme conditions, patients should always be immobilized to prevent further injuries.
D) At the very least, one rescuer must have access to the patients head, and another rescuer must be positioned at the patient's feet to facilitate a smooth removal.
A) If the victim is breathing but the atmosphere is a threat, establishing an airway and placement of a mask face piece is the highest priority. The rescuers shall never remove their face pieces.
(TB Confined Space 5.1 - 5.6)
A - Correct
B - Use of resuscitator in a hazardous atmosphere may not be possible
and REQUIRES CAREFUL EVALUATION PRIOR TO USE. CPR IS
GENERALLY DISCOURAGED.
C - It MAY BE NECESSARY TO FOREGO IMMOBILIZATION.
D - At the very least, rescue must have access to PATIENTS HEAD.
98
Which of the following would be considered an unsafe atmospheric condition?
A) Oxygen concentration between 19.5% and 23.5%
B) The flammable range not over 10% of LEL
C) Carbon Monoxide Readings of 40 PPM
D) Not over 10 PPM of Hydrogen Sulfide
C) Carbon Monoxide Readings of 40 PPM (INCORRECT)
(TB CONFINED SPACE, Data Sheet 1)
* Over 35 PPM IS UNSAFE/DANGEROUS.
99
A captain is at the scene of a structure fire at 0300 hours. The occupant states he was asleep in bed at the time of the fire, and was forced to flee with no time to spare. The occupant is wearing shoes that are laced and he has on several layers of clothes. The captain becomes suspicious of the story. Upon further investigation the captain finds rolled up newspaper leading away from the initial fire area. Which would be a correct action?
A) Record the names and addresses received from this occupant and any witnesses.
B) After the occupant stops talking freely, try to get additional information by asking questions related to the fire.
C) Put the names of and the statements received from witnesses on the fire report.
D) Notify the IC that a plant was discovered, and this fire should be declared incendiary.
C)
A) Record the names and addresses received from this occupant and any witnesses.
(TB Arson, 1.2.4)
A - Correct
B - Only TRAINED INVESTIGATOR can interrogate further.
C - DO NOT put names/statements of witnesses on fire report.
D - Notify IC that a TRAILER was found. FIRE MARSHAL declares it
incendiary.
100
A fire victim is found at the scene of a 10-75. The body is lying prone and the entire backside of the body is red in color, while the front of the body appears white. This could indicate which choice below?
A) The victim was alive at the time of the fire and suffered CO poisoning
B) The victim was breathing during the fire.
C) The victim was moved after death and placed at the fire scene.
D) The victim had severe allergic reaction to being in a fire.
C) The victim was moved after death and placed at the fire scene.
(Red indicates that Lividity has set in)
(TB Arson, 4.5)
A - CO poisoning (victim appears pink/cherry red)
B - Victim breathing in fire (soot in nose/mouth)
C - Victim moved after death and placed at fire (Lividity - red)
101
Lividity usually starts ______ after death and is completed after ______?
A) 20-30 min / 1-2 hours
B) 1-2 hours / 2-3 hours
C) 1-2 hours / 3-4 hours
D) 2-3 hours / 3-4 hours
C) 1-2 hours / 3-4 hours
| TB Arson, 4.5
102
A fire victim found in a pugilistic position and with outward damage to the skull. How many choices are correctly stated?
1. Skull damage can normally occur from internal pressure with the appearance that the skull exploded outward.
2. The victim was probably a victim of a crime as indicated by the damaged skull.
3. A defensive posture does not indicate violence or struggle as this occurs due to contraction of muscles during a fire.
4. The victim was probably assaulted prior to the fire as they are in a defensive position.
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
B) 2 (Choices #1 & #3 are correct)
(TB Arson, 4.6)
Defensive position = DOES NOT indicate assault or struggle
103
Once a fire line is established at a prolonged fire investigation, who may authorize members of the department to cross?
1. Assigned Fire Marshal
2. Chief Officer
3. Chief of Operations
4. Chief of Department
A) 2 & 3 B) 1 & 2 C) 3 & 4 D) 1 & 3
D) 1 & 3 (Assigned Fire Marshal & Chief of Operations)
(TB Arson, 4.1)
104
Members were discussing how to best handle evidence of arson at the scene of an operation. Which is a correct choice?
A) Since evidence is usually contaminated during the collection process, it is important to follow certain procedures for packaging.
B) The first choice to package evidence would be a used, but clean, 1 gallon paint can.
C) If no cans are available, only a new, clean glass jar may be used.
D) While plastic containers should be avoided, new, heavy gauge plastic bags may be used in pairs.
D) While plastic containers should be avoided, new, heavy gauge plastic bags may be used in pairs.
(TB Arson, 5.2)
A - Evidence is SELDOM CONTAMINATED during collection process
B - 1st choice would be a NEW, clean 1 gallon paint can.
C - If no cans are available, new clean glass jar may be used (not only)
D - Correct
105
Continuity of evidence at a suspected arson fire is critical. Which choice is correct?
A) The photo unit shall be requested to respond to photograph evidence at all fires deemed incendiary.
B) Evidence shall be labeled and marked to identify the location found prior to the arrival of the photo unit.
C) Evidence can be removed to the firehouse, as long as it is stored on the desk in the company office.
D) In order to maintain FD control of a scene, one firefighter with an extinguisher may be left at the scene.
D) In order to maintain FD control of a scene, one firefighter with an extinguisher may be left at the scene.
(TB Arson, 5.1.1)
A - Photo unit will be requested IF MARSHAL ISNT RESPONDING.
B - Evidence labeled AFTER arrival of photo units
C - Evidence can be removed to firehouse as long as it is LOCKED in
the company office.
D - Correct (Do not leave only PD there to safeguard evidence)
106
A BC was examining the fire scene to determine cause and origin. In which assumption was he accurate?
A) When he noted multiple points of origin, he knew this was an incendiary fire.
B) When he noted perpendicular burns on the walls, rather than the normal "V" pattern, he knew this indicated an accelerant might have been used.
C) When he noted heavy smoke stains, remote from the point of origin, he knew this usually indicates a rapid fire build up.
D) When he noted the large crazing of glass, he knew this indicated the glass was located close to the point of origin and was subjected to rapid heat build up.
B) When he noted perpendicular burns on the walls, rather than the normal "V" pattern, he knew this indicated an accelerant might have been used.
(TB Arson, 6.5.4)
A - Multiple points of origin = indicates arson
B - Absence of "V" pattern = accelerant may have been used
C - Heavy smoke stains / remote from point of origin = slow fire buildup
(Heavyweight fighter stays remote from opponent, throws slow
bombs)
Light smoke stains / close to point of origin = rapid buildup
(Lightweight fighter stays close to opponent, throws rapid
punches)
D - Large crazing = far from point of origin subject to slow heat buildup
Small crazing = close to point of origin subject to rapid heat buildup
(Large fighter, far away, slow punches)
(Small fighter, close up, fast punches)
107
Half-moon effects or marks on glass results from water being applied to heated glass, and is called?
A) Crazing
B) Checkering
C) Spalling
D) Mooning
B) Checkering
| TB Arson, 6.7.3
108
Depth of charring can be used as an indicator or fires travel and point of origin. Which is a correct statement?
A) Wood structural members may burn approximately one inch every 60 minutes.
B) Very large blister type charring may indicate longer burning and hot fires.
C) Fire burning over a large floor area, lower part of walls, or under doors could indicate an accelerant was used.
D) The deepest char will always be found at the point of origin.
C) Fire burning over a large floor area, lower part of walls, or under doors could indicate an accelerant was used.
(TB Arson, 6.8)
A - Wood members may burn approx. 1" every 45 MINUTES
B - VERY SMALL blister type charring may indicate longer burns and
hot fires.
C - Correct
D - Deepest char MAY BE found at point of origin. Could also be found
above the point of origin.
109
What does a deceased victim of a fire presenting with pink to cherry red color of the lips, eyelids, or skin indicate?
A) Lividity and death prior to the fire.
B) 4th degree burns and death prior to the fire.
C) CO exposure and the victim was alive at the time of the fire.
D) A severe allergic reaction and the victim died during the fire.
C) CO exposure and the victim was alive at the time of the fire.
(TB Arson, 4.4)
Lividity (red)
CO poisoning (pink to cherry red)
110
Which is an incorrect description of a lobby key switch for an elevator bank?
A) The key switch is required to be within 2 feet of the lobby call button.
B) The key switch is operated by use of the Fire Department 1620 key, or by citywide standard elevator 2642 key.
C) Three position key switch - Normal, fireman service and door open.
D) Two position key switch - Normal and fireman service with a door open button. Door open button is only operable when the key switch is in the Fireman Service position.
E) The Normal and Fireman Service position in the keyed switch permit the removal of the key. The key is not removable in the door,open position.
A) The key switch is required to be within 2 feet of the lobby call button (INCORRECT)
(TB ELEVATOR OPS 5.2.1)
* Key switch required to be within FOUR (4) feet of lobby call button.
111
If an elevator car is equipped with a "Hold" position within its keyed switch the "Hold" position will function in all of the following ways except which?
A) Permits the firefighter to remove the 1620 key from the switch.
B) Allows the firefighter to leave the car without the danger of an individual, without a key, moving the car to another location.
C) A firefighter with a 1620 key can move the car by changing the switch position from "Hold" to "Fireman Service"
D) Elevator cars equipped with a two position switch are required to be retro-fitted with a three position switch, this should be identified on building inspection and DOB should be notified.
D) Elevator cars equipped with a two position switch are required to be retro-fitted with a three position switch, this should be identified on building inspection and DOB should be notified. (INCORRECT)
(TB ELEVATOR 5.2.2)
* Elevators with 2 position switch are NOT REQUIRED to be retro-fitted
with a 3 position switch.
112
If Phase I (elevator recall) has been initiated before a units arrival and all elevator doors are closed, units should determine if Phase I was initiated manually or automatically and then be guided by the following: Which choice is correct?
A) If Phase I was initiated manually the Fireman Service lobby key switch will be found in the Fireman Service position. Place the Fireman Service lobby keyed switch momentarily in the "Normal" (OFF) position. Then return it to the Fireman Service position. This will cause all elevator car doors in this bank to open.
B) When Phase I is initiated automatically (by lobby smoke detectors, HVAC detectors, or sprinkler water flow) place the lobby keyed switch in the "Door open" position. The doors of the Fireman Service cars will then open. In some older installations the doors of the non-Fireman Service cars will not open and must be opened by use of the emergency hoist-way door key.
C) Both A & B are incorrect
D) Both A & B are correct
A) If Phase I was initiated manually the Fireman Service lobby key switch will be found in the Fireman Service position. Place the Fireman Service lobby keyed switch momentarily in the "Normal" (OFF) position. Then return it to the Fireman Service position. This will cause all elevator car doors in this bank to open.
(TB Elevators 5.3.1)
B - HVAC DETECTORS WILL NOT RECALL ELEVATORS.
113
During Phase I (elevator recall) an elevator traveling away from the street floor or from its lowest landing floor will reverse direction at the next landing without opening its doors, and return non stop to the street lobby or terminal floor. When the elevator car reaches its terminal floor, one of the following will occur: which is the most correct answer?
A) All car and hoist-way car doors open. The doors remain open for at least 8 seconds and no more than one minute.
B) All car and hoist-way car doors open. The Fireman Service elevator car and hoist way doors remain open with the car lights remaining off. Non Fireman Service elevator car and hoist-way doors close between 8 seconds and one minute after opening.
C) All elevator car and hoist-way doors open and remain open in the Fireman Service cars. The car lights in the Fireman Service elevator cars remain on and the doors to the Non-Fireman Service cars do not open.
D) All of the above are correct
A) All car and hoist-way car doors open. The doors remain open for at least 8 seconds and no more than one minute. (One of three things that will happen)
(TB Elevators 5.3.1)
Other two options:
B - Fireman Service & hoist way doors remain open with car lights ON.
Non-Fireman Service car and hoist-way doors close between 8
seconds and 1 minute after opening.
OR
C - The car lights in Fireman service elevator car WILL GO OFF and
doors to Non-Fireman Service cars do not open.
* Choice "C" as corrected is required for all installations for which plans
were filed after 1980.
114
A Gal Drop Key is a hand tool used to open _________ elevator hoist-way doors to gain access to the elevator shaft or an inoperable elevator car.
A) Sliding Type
B) Hinged Type
C) Can be used on either Sliding or Hinged types
D) Can be used on neither Sliding or Hinged types.
A) Sliding type
| TB Elevators ADD 6
115
How many emergency elevator keys in the FDNY arsenal are used for swing type doors?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
B) 4
(TB Elevators, Addendums)
* 3 for Sliding type doors
* 4 for Swing type doors
116
Which is an incorrect operational procedure when using elevators?
A) When it is confirmed that the fire is on the 7th floor or below, units should avoid the use of elevators. It is safer to utilize the stairway to reach the fire floor.
B) A service elevator shall not be used until it is declared safe for use by the officer in command of the fire.
C) There must be a member equipped with a HT in each car whenever the elevator is in use.
D) Not more than four members are to be permitted in any elevator car.
D) Not more than four members are to be permitted in any elevator car. (INCORRECT)
(TB Elevators, 6.1)
* No more than SIX (6) MEMBERS in any elevator car.
117
Which is a correct operational procedure when using elevators from the list below?
A) Elevators should be stopped every 7 floors (precautionary stops) to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor At each stop a new selection must be made.
B) Before leaving the lobby and only at the first and last precautionary stop, direct a flashlight up between the elevator car and the hoist-way shaft to determine if there is any accumulation of smoke in the elevator shaft.
C) The relationship of the elevator to the stairway should be noted. This should be done at every precautionary stop. Floor configurations may change.
D) First arriving units should, if possible, initially avoid a Fireman Service elevator which is capable of stopping at all floors.
D) First arriving units should, if possible, initially avoid a Fireman Service elevator which is capable of stopping at all floors.
(TB Elevators, 6.1 & 6.4.3)
A - Every FIVE (5) stops (precautionary stops)
B - Before leaving lobby and AT EVERY precautionary stop, direct a
flashlight up shaft to determine if there is any smoke.
C - Relationship of stairway to elevator shaft should be noted at the
FIRST AND LAST precautionary stop.
D - Correct (Only after the officer in command has determined that the
fire is not adjacent to the shaft should these elevators be
utilized)
118
You have just arrived as the 1st due truck officer at a fire in a 26 story HROB. The Fire Safety/Emergency Action Plan Director tells you that "the fire is on the 14th floor and there is a new access stair servicing floors 13 and 14." Elevator Bank A services the Lobby to the 10th floor. Elevator Bank B services floors 11 to floor 19. Elevator C services floors 20 to 26. Based on this information, which bank of elevators to which floor would you take?
A) Elevator Bank B to floor number 13.
B) Elevator Bank B to floor number 12
C) Elevator Bank B to floor number 11
D) Elevator Bank A to floor number 10
D) Elevator Bank A to floor number 10
(TB Elevators 6.1.3)
A/B/C - DO NOT take elevator that services the fire floor. Take a lower bank if it reaches the fire floor within FIVE (5) floors.
119
The NYC Housing Authority is in the process of installing car door zone locks on all NYC Housing Authority elevator cars. Which is an incorrect item from the list below in regards to these car door zone locks?
A) The zone lock is a mechanical device which prevents the elevator car door from opening if the car does not stop level with the floor at the elevator landing.
B) Zone locks are being installed on the outside of the elevator car doors on hinged type and sliding type doors.
C) In order to disengage Sliding Type doors, depress the level to release the zone lock device. For Hinged Type doors, lift the rod straight up to release the zone lock device.
D) After opening the hoist-way door, the zone lock will be visible on the front side of the elevator car towards the top of the door.
C) In order to disengage Sliding Type doors, depress the level to release the zone lock device. For Hinged Type doors, lift the rod straight up to release the zone lock device. (INCORRECT)
(TB Elevators ADD 8)
* Sliding doors = LIFT rod straight up
Hinged doors = DEPRESS lever
120
A Gal Vandal Resistant Key is a hand tool used to open "Sliding Type" elevator hoist-way doors to gain access to the elevator shaft or inoperable elevator car. Which choice listed below is incorrect regarding the use of this key?
A) Insert key into keyhole until obstruction is encountered.
B) Turn key a 1/2 turn to disengage hoist-way.
C) Open hoist-way door by pushing away from its leading edge.
D) On elevators equipped for use of the GAL Vandal Resistant Key, attempt to open the hoist-way door by use of the key before resorting to forcible entry.
B) Turn key a 1/2 turn to disengage hoist-way. (INCORRECT)
(TB Elevators ADD 7)
* Turn key ONE QUARTER (1/4) turn
121
A lieutenant conducting drill on natural gas emergencies and fires was incorrect when he stated that?
A) Natural gas is explosive when confined. It's explosive range is 5% to 15%.
B) Natural gas is lighter than air and odorless, but mercaptan added to it gives it a distinct rotten egg odor.
C) Gas service piping may be steel, plastic, or copper but plastic and copper gas pipes are not allowed inside structures.
D) Most gas valve shut offs are of the 1/4 turn variety and require a 1/4 turn clockwise to turn the valve to the off position.
D) Most gas valve shut offs are of the 1/4 turn variety and require a 1/4 turn clockwise to turn the valve to the off position. (INCORRECT)
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas 2, 5, 7, 8)
* Gas valves require 1/4 turn COUNTERCLOCKWISE.
122
You are a lieutenant that has just arrived at a gas emergency at a stove in a building where you are unable to shut the appliance valve because it is damaged. You then determine that the building has a low pressure master meter with interior gas riser valves above coming off of the master meter. In this situation it would be preferable to next attempt to shut the?
A) Head of service valve
B) Interior gas riser valve
C) Master meter
D) Curb valve
B) Interior gas riser valve
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 4-5)
* Priority order of shutdown:
1) Appliance valve
2) Meter valve or Master meter (*BUT if a master meter has an
INTERIOR GAS RISER VALVE it is preferable to shut the interior
gas riser valve instead of the master meter*)
3) Head of service valve (building valve)
4) Exterior gas riser valve
5) Curb valve
6) Street valve (only shut down by FDNY in extreme circumstances)
123
Regarding exterior gas riser valves, it would be inaccurate to state?
A) They are all located on the gas rise outside the building before any exterior meters.
B) All external meter installations will have a riser valve installed prior to the meter.
C) If a curb valve is found, look for the exterior riser valve.
D) Exterior riser valves will not be present outside when meters are installed inside of a building.
D) Exterior riser valves will not be present outside when meters are installed inside of a building. (INCORRECT)
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 6)
* Exterior riser valves MAY BE PRESENT OUTSIDE even if meters are
located on the inside.
124
A company officer arrives on the scene as an extra ladder above the 2nd alarm where the IC instructs the unit to locate and close the curb valve because there is a gas fed fire in the commercial building. In this situation, the officer would be correct to think that?
A) Curb valves are always found on the sidewalk side of the curb.
B) In all cases, the "U" shape or square end of the gas key should be used to turn the curb valve a 1/4 turn clockwise.
C) When looking into the curb valve box, a yellow operating nut means that it is a plastic valve and plastic valve stops are easily broken with excessive force.
D) National Grid's "Long Service" sometimes has its curb valve located across the street, sometimes found in the street. They will have an arrow on the concrete or steel cover pointing to the building they supply.
D) National Grid's "Long Service" sometimes has its curb valve located across the street, sometimes found in the street. They will have an arrow on the concrete or steel cover pointing to the building they supply.
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 7)
A - Curb valves USUALLY found on sidewalk side of curb.
B - In MOST CASES "U" shape or square end of gas key turns the curb
valve 1/4 turn clockwise.
C - A WHITE operating nut means that it is plastic
D - Correct (Curb valve 1/4 clockwise)
(Gas appliance valve 1/4 turn counter clockwise)
125
A company officer arrives on the scene as an extra ladder above the 2nd alarm where the IC instructs the unit to locate and close the curb valve because there is a gas fed fire in the commercial building. Unable to locate the curb valve immediately the company officer now finds the street valve. In this situation he would be correct to think that?
A) Street valves may never be operated by FDNY members.
B) Do not operate street valves except under extreme circumstances when directed by the FDNY IC after consult with a utility representative.
B) Do not operate street valves except under extreme circumstances when directed by the FDNY IC after consult with a utility representative.
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 8)
126
Members respond to the scene of an outdoor gas odor where they find a broken plastic gas pipe in a street excavation. In this situation, they would be correct to take which action?
A) Use a tool to crimp the piping to stop the flow of gas.
B) Fold the piping to stop the flow of gas
C) Fill the excavation area with water to stop the flow of gas.
D) Use a fog stream to dissipate the escaping gas.
D) Use a fog stream to dissipate the escaping gas.
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 9)
* Plastic pipe = don't touch or go near.
127
A Captain conducting drill for gas leak emergencies was correct in which point(s) below? (More than 1 correct)
A) Non-FDNY issued flashlights are NOT intrinsically safe.
B) FDNY issued flashlights and thermal imaging cameras are intrinsically safe.
C) If you cannot find the source of an indoor gas leak, take readings at sewers and manhole covers.
D) Power to a gas filled building should be shut only by opening breakers. Never shut power to a gas filled building by pulling an electric meter.
E) When a building has an emergency power or generator, have it disabled before cutting power to a building.
F) A leak or break in low or high pressure gas piping may be stopped or greatly diminished by stuffing rags into the break.
G) Allow a leak of burning gas to burn until the gas supply is shut.
A) Non-FDNY issued flashlights are NOT intrinsically safe.
C) If you cannot find the source of an indoor gas leak, take readings at sewers and manhole covers.
E) When a building has an emergency power or generator, have it disabled before cutting power to a building.
G) Allow a leak of burning gas to burn until the gas supply is shut.
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 10-12)
B - TIC is NOT intrinsically safe.
D - Power to a gas filled building SHOULD NOT BE SHUT.
F - A leak or break in LOW pressure gas piping only may be stopped by
stuffing rags into the break.
128
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a block of 11 attached 2 story row frame buildings with a heavy odor of gas and high readings on the DCGI meter in the middle building indicated below. They also get positive gas readings in exposure 4. In this situation, they must insure they check at least which buildings besides the middle building and exposure 4?
2D | 2C | 2B | 2A | 2 | Major Leak | 4 | 4A | 4B | 4C | 4D
A) Exposure 2, 2A, 4A
B) Exposure 2, 2A, 4A, 4B
C) Exposure 2, 2A, 2B, 4A, 4B
D) Exposure 2, 2A, 2B, 4A, 4B, 4C
D) Exposure 2, 2A, 2B, 4A, 4B, 4C
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 13)
* Must check at least 3 exposures on both sides of the incident (where
gas readings are detected).
129
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a block of 11 attached 2 story row frame buildings with a heavy odor of gas and high readings on the DCGI meter in the middle building indicated below. They also get positive gas readings in exposure 4. If the gas levels are above the flammable limits in the 2 story frames, units should start venting on the?
2D | 2C | 2B | 2A | 2 | Major Leak | 4 | 4A | 4B | 4C | 4D
A) First floor
B) Second floor
C) Either first or second floor regardless of order.
B) Second floor
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 13)
* Above 15% = Vent 2nd floor and work your way down.
130
A high pressure outdoor gas leak is indicated by which two size up points listed below?
A) Heavy gas odor in the area
B) Opaque cloud rising from the ground
C) Dirt and debris blowing into the air from excavation
D) A loud roaring sound
C) Dirt and debris blowing into the air from excavation
D) A loud roaring sound
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 14)
* Heavy gas odor and opaque cloud rising from the ground are
indications of outdoor gas leaks and not necessarily high pressure
leaks.
131
In order to reduce the infiltration of an outdoor gas leak into surrounding properties, members may be ordered by a BC to remove only what kind of covers in the street?
A) Sewer covers and any manhole cover found free of stray voltage by the utility company gas rep.
B) Sewer covers and round manhole covers found free of stray voltage by the utility company gas rep.
C) Sewer covers and round or square manhole covers found free of stray voltage by the utility company electric rep.
D) Round and square manhole covers found free of stray voltage by the utility company electric rep.
B) Sewer covers and round manhole covers found free of stray voltage by the utility company gas rep.
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 15)
* ONLY remove sewer covers AND ROUND manhole covers at gas
emergencies.
132
You are a lieutenant using a DCGI meter at a major indoor gas leak where you see your meter read 10% LEL. In this situation, you would be correct to think that the actual percent of gas in the air is?
A) 5% and you are at the FDNY indoor action level
B) 50% and you are at the FDNY indoor action level
C) 5% and you are not at the FDNY indoor action level
D) 50% and you are not at the FDNY indoor action level
B) 50% and you are at the FDNY indoor action level.
| TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 18
133
The code 5-R-25 found on the Peck Vent in the Con Ed system indicates the location of the?
A) Curb valve, 5 feet from the left hand corner of the house, then 25 feet measured off at a right angle to the sidewalk.
B) Curb valve, 5 feet from the right hand corner of the house, then 25 feet measured off at a right angle to the sidewalk.
C) Street valve, 5 feet from the left hand corner of the house, then 25 feet measured off at a right angle to the sidewalk.
D) Street valve, 5 feet from the right hand corner of the house, then 25 feet measured off at a right angle to the sidewalk
A) Curb valve, 5 feet from the left hand corner of the house, then 25 feet measured off at a right angle to the sidewalk.
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 19-20)
* Read as if you are looking out the front door.
* 5-R-25 looking straight out front door to the right of the door would
actually be the LEFT SIDE OF THE HOUSE.
134
In the National Grid Coding System, which two sets of letters found on a Peck Vent would indicate that there is no curb valve present?
A) NCV
B) NC
C) EFV
D) EXC
B) NC & C) EFV (Excess Flor Valve)
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas pg 21)
* Both indicate there in no curb valve.
135
Regarding the use of the MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter, it would be correct to state that?
A) It has only one sensor for combustible gas.
B) The action level for both indoor and outdoor operations is 10% LEL.
C) A series of crosses under the COMB/EX icon indicates the atmosphere is above 50% LEL and that members should not operate except for life saving purposes.
D) If indoor levels continue to climb and ventilation procedures fail to lower the LEL readings, evacuation procedures should be initiated.
D) If indoor levels continue to climb and ventilation procedures fail to lower the LEL readings, evacuation procedures should be initiated
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas ADD 1)
A - 2 sensors = 1 combustible gas / 1 for O2
B - Indoor action level = 10% LEL
Outdoor action level = 20% LEL
C - Crosses under the COMB/EX icon indicates the atmosphere is
above 100% LEL (above 5% gas in air)
D - Correct
136
Regarding the use of the oxygen sensor on the Altair Digital Gas Meter, it would be incorrect to state that?
A) The normal oxygen reading on the meter is 20.8%.
B) The low,oxygen alarm is set at 19.5% and high alarm is set at 23.0%
C) Upon activation of the oxygen sensor, members shall don their SCBA face pieces and notify the IC of abnormal oxygen readings.
D) A series of three crosses across the screen under the O2 icon indicates the atmosphere is above 23.0% oxygen.
D) A series of three crosses across the screen under the O2 icon indicates the atmosphere is above 23.0% oxygen. (INCORRECT)
(TB Emergencies - Natural Gas ADD 1)
* Three crosses across screen under O2 = atmosphere above 25%
137
Members of a Bronx study group are discussing Thermal Imaging Cameras (TICs). They correctly choose which choice below?
A) TICs average field of view is approximately 70 degrees.
B) TICs are capable of detecting all haz-mat vapor clouds.
C) When operating with the TIC, stay low and slowly scan the area beginning at the floor, using a side to side scanning motion, working your way to the ceiling.
D) The focal point of the TIC is approximately 3 feet from the camera lens.
D) The focal point of the TIC is approximately 3 feet from the camera lens.
(TB Tools 27 4.5)
A - Average field of view approx. 50 DEGREES
B - TIC can detect SOME vapor clouds
C - Start at CEILING and work your way down to FLOOR.
D - Correct
138
According to the new search bulletin, if the engine does not have a charged hose line at the door to the fire area, the door should be closed after the search team enters. Which tool shall the interior team leave outside the doorway to indicate the apartment they are searching?
A) 6' hook
B) Ax
C) Hydraulic Forcible Entry Tool
D) Hallagan
C) Hydraulic Forcible Entry Tool
| TB Search 9.10.1 B
139
During drill on fire extinguisher use, the Proby asked about extinguishing fires in a mailbox. The following statements were made, which are correct?
1. The only acceptable extinguishing agent is water
2. Dry chem should not be used
3. Large parcel post mailboxes (greater than 9 cubic feet) can be
extinguished with 3 short blasts from a carbon dioxide extinguisher.
4. Purple K extinguishers can be used
5. The mailbox should be forced open to ensure complete
extinguishment, do not use an extinguisher though the mail slot.
A) 3,4
B) 1,2,4
C) 2,3
D) 1,2
E) 2,3,5
C) 2,3
(TB Fires 1)
Mailbox fires:
1. Water AND Carbon Dioxide are OK to use
2. DO NOT use Dry Chemical extinguisher or Purple K
3. Large parcel post mailboxes (greater than 9 cubic feet) can be
extinguished with 3 short blasts from a Carbon Dioxide extinguisher.
4. Should operate a THROUGH mailbox slot WITHOUT forcing
140
Firefighters may encounter various types of hazards while operating at fires and emergencies and while conducting building inspections. Dogs are one of those hazards. Which statement concerning dogs is not correct according to FDNY publications?
A) Attack dogs are trained to attack on command of their trainer.
B) The actions of Security dogs are generally predictable and they appear vicious.
C) Household pets usually do not present a problem.
D) Members should assume that all dogs are vicious.
A) Attack dogs are trained to attack on command of their trainer. (INCORRECT)
(TB Fires 2.1-2.4)
* COMMAND DOGS are trained to attack on command of their trainer.
Attack dogs will attack anyone but the trainer.
141
When encountering dogs at fires, members are recommended to take certain actions. Which action is incorrect?
A) You may be able to intimidate a dog with loud authoritative commands.
B) When a dog that appears dangerous is encountered, a water or CO2 extinguisher can be directed at the dog's face.
C) A hose line should be stretched and charged as a backup when encountering dangerous dogs.
D) Only the Center for Animal Care and Control should be called to assist with a dog, an ETA should be requested.
D) Only the Center for Animal Care and Control should be called to assist with a dog, an ETA should be requested. (INCORRECT)
(TB Fires 4.5)
* NYPD can also be called for help with dogs.
* Other times to request an ETA
1. Con Ed manhole
2. EMS critical or unstable patient
142
While conducting BISP at a vacant building, a member is bitten by a dog on the roof of the building. The dog is on a chain secured to the bulkhead but there is no owner or other responsible person on scene. You consider the dog to be a stray. Besides transmitting a 10-44, you would be correct to have the dispatcher notify which of the following? (More than 1 correct)
A) Center for Animal Care and Control
B) NYPD
C) Medical Officer
D) Safety Battalion
E) Board of Health
A) Center for Animal Care and Control
B) NYPD
C) Medical Officer
E) Board of Health
(TB Fires 2, 4.3)
Center for Animal
Care and Control = if dog is a stray. If dog is not a stray (owner present)
you do not need to contact CAC&C.
10-44 = Request ambulance (request reason and type)
CUPS / age / chief complaint / pulse & resp / if CPR initiated
You do not have to indicate the sex of the patient
"PBA-ME"
PD / Bureau of Health / Animal Control (if stray) / Medical Officer / EMS
143
You are the officer of Ladder 141, the 1st to arrive truck for a smoke condition in a 2nd floor bedroom of a private dwelling. The can was used to extinguish fire in a foam rubber mattress. Which of the following is a correct action?
A) An 1 3/4" line was stretched but not used since the fire was extinguished with the can.
B) if the mattress was cotton or fiber filled and appears to be completely extinguished, a hose line is not always necessary.
C) A knife was used to cut up the foam rubber into pieces and soaked in the tub.
D) The mattress should be rolled and tied prior to removing it only if the fire was burning below the surface.
C) A knife was used to cut up the foam rubber into pieces and soaked in the tub.
(TB Fires 3.1)
A & B - Foam rubber or bedding (Use handline to apply water, even if it
appears as if the fire has already been extinguished by a can)
C - Correct
D - IF POSSIBLE, mattress should be tied up and rolled prior to
removing it.
144
Which of the following tools would be the best option to ventilate a Lexan window?
A) Sawzall with a coarse tooth wood blade
B) Superior Air Hammer (air chisel)
C) Chainsaw
D) Portable Electric handsaw
A) Sawzall with a coarse tooth wood blade
(TB Fires 3.1)
* Ventilate Lexan Windows
1. Portable Saw with a carbide tip (BEST OPTION)
2. Sawzall with coarse tooth wood blade (also effective)
3. Portable electric handsaw (can be used but blade gums up quickly)
4. Chainsaw is UNSAFE
145
Which is an incorrect statement about the location and use of Lexan windows?
A) Approved for use in NYC Schools for windows up to 75' in height.
B) Installed on first floor windows of many Nynex buildings
C) When used on Nynex buildings, Lexan is on the inner side of the window opening.
D) Nynex windows will either have Lexan or wire screens, not both for protection.
D) Nynex windows will either have Lexan or wire screens, not both for protection (INCORRECT)
(TB Fires 2, 3.10)
* Nynex will have 3 features
1. Wire mesh
2. Wire glass
3. Lexan on INSIDE of window opening
146
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of tools on Lexan?
A) The Superior Air Hammer is effective
B) Portable electric handsaw is unsafe
C) Pike axe is effective but tedious
D) Chainsaw is ineffective
E) The Oxyacetylene torch is ineffective
E) The Oxyacetylene torch is ineffective
(TB Fires 3)
Tools on Lexan:
1. The Oxyacetylene torch is ineffective
2. Superior Air Hammer is ineffective
3. Pike axe is ineffective
4. Portable handsaw gums up quickly
5. Chainsaw is unsafe
147
Lexan will not shatter when struck with an axe. Do you agree or disagree with this statement?
A) Agree
B) Disagree
A) Agree
(TB Fires 1.3)
* A bullet will not shatter Lexan, therefore striking it with a tool will
certainly not shatter it either.
148
Which of the following are considered confined spaces? (More than 1)
A) Manhole
B) Sewer
C) Elevator shaft
D) Cesspool
A) Manhole
B) Sewer
C) Elevator shaft
D) Cesspool
(TB Confined Space 2.1)
* All of the above are confined spaces
149
The most deadly hazard at a confined space is ________________.
A) Physical hazards
B) Atmospheric hazards
C) Engulfment hazards
D) Shaping hazards
B) Atmospheric hazards
(TB Confined Space 2)
* 65% of all Confined Space deaths are due to atmospheric hazards.
150
Which of the following is not one of the atmospheric hazards in axon fined space?
A) Asphyxiant
B) Explosive
C) Oxygen enriched
D) Toxic / poisonous
C) Oxygen enriched
| TB Confined Space 2
151
Atmospheric hazards are a danger that FDNY members must consider when operating at confined spaces. Which statement is incorrect?
A) All members entering any confined space must be breathing air from their SCBA at all times until the atmosphere is verified safe.
B) The only safe way to detect a lack of oxygen is through the use of S meter.
C) There is no way to test for the presence of all toxic materials in the field.
D) Many times there will be some sort of outward sign indicating lack of oxygen.
D) Many times there will be some sort of outward sign indicating lack of oxygen. (INCORRECT)
(TB Confined Space 2.1.1)
* IN MOST CASES there will be no indication/sign that suggests a lack
of oxygen.
152
Permit Required confined spaces have specific hazards that pose a danger to anyone that enters. Which is not a characteristic of a Permit Required confined space?
A) Contains a hazardous atmosphere
B) Contains material that could engulf a person
C) Downward sloping floors
D) Nobody should enter a Permit Required confined space unless they have a permit issued by the Fire Department.
D) Nobody should enter a Permit Required confined space unless they have a permit issued by the Fire Department (INCORRECT)
(TB Confined Space 1.2.1)
* Do not enter unless you have permit ISSUED BY THE OWNER.
153
Because there are multiple dangers in a confined space, there are limitations and requirements when operating at this type of emergency. Which statement is incorrect?
A) An FDNY ladder should be used
B) Members entering shall remain attached to their lifeline at all times
C) The times members enter a confined space must be recorded.
D) The SCBA vibralert may not provide sufficient time for the firefighter to exit.
E) The primary reason for remaining attached to the lifeline is so the firefighter can be removed if injured.
C) The times members enter a confined space must be recorded (INCORRECT
(TB Confined Space 2.2.2)
* Time that member DONS FACEPIECE needs to be recorded.
154
It is exceptionally difficult to haul a person up and out of a vertical opening without a mechanical advantage system. To allow vertical removal the FDNY will utilize a high point anchor which allows for quicker and easier removal. A sharp student will know which of the following to be incorrect?
A) Due to its greater weight support capability, a TL is preferred over an Aerial Ladder.
B) Neither the Aerial nor TL should be used as a crane to lift a person; they are to only be used as a high point anchor over the opening.
C) All personnel, except the LCC, shall be removed from the turntable of the apparatus being used as a high point.
D) The TLs weight supporting capacity is at least 800 lbs; an Aerial is only 250 lbs.
C) All personnel, except the LCC, shall be removed from the turntable of the apparatus being used as a high point. (INCORRECT)
(TB Confined Space 4.4)
* ALL PERSONNEL including LCC should be removed from turntable.
155
You are the Lieutenant in Ladder 57, the first arriving unit at a confined space incident. You are confronted with an injured worker in a confined space and the remaining units are delayed. After conducting the proper sizeup and obtaining the required information, you decide to have a member make entry to retrieve the victim. Assuming all are available, which member should you select to make entry?
A) A 20 year FF with a lapsed CFR-D certification
B) A 15 year FF with a current CPR Certification
C) A 5 year FF who just transferred from an Engine w/ a current CFR-D certification.
D) A proby who was an FDNY EMS paramedic prior to becoming a firefighter.
C) A 5 year FF who just transferred from an Engine w/ a current CFR-D certification.
(TB Confined Space 3.1)
* If possible, the members selected for the initial entry to the confined
space should be CPR and first aid trained or CFR-D certified.
156
Which of the following is a safe atmosphere in a confined space?
A) 15% LEL
B) 19.5% oxygen
C) 38 PPM CO
D) 18 PPM hydrogen sulfide
B) 19.5% oxygen
(TB Confined Space Data Sheet 1)
* Safe atmosphere:
1. Not over 10% LEL
2. 19.5% - 23.5% O2
3. CO not over 35 PPM
4. Hydrogen sulfide not over 10 PPM
157
Which statement is not accurate concerning the medical treatment for patients in a confined space?
A) Performing CPR in a hazardous atmosphere is generally to be discouraged.
B) If the victim is breathing and the atmosphere is a threat, establishing an airway and placement of a facepiece is the highest priority.
C) All unconscious confined space victims should immediately be thoroughly examined for any signs of trauma.
D) Generally, it is best to remove the victim to a safe atmosphere as quickly as possible.
C) All unconscious confined space victims should immediately be thoroughly examined for any signs of trauma. (INCORRECT)
(TB Confined Space 5.2)
* It is MORE IMPORTANT to get the patient out of the confined space
then to immediately examine them for signs of trauma.
158
It is a Tuesday 9x6 tour and the crew of E-52 decides to repack the Life Saving Rope. Two of the members discuss a few points regarding the characteristics of the rope. In which answer were their points incorrect?
A) The LSR is 9/16" in diameter
B) LSR is up to 150' in length and weighs 14 1/2 lbs
C) LSR has a workload of 600 lbs
D) LSR has a minimum breaking strength of 600 lbs
D) LSR has a minimum breaking strength of 600 lbs (INCORRECT)
(TB Rope 1.1.1)
* Minimum breaking strength of LSR is 9000 LBS.
159
A firefighter knowledgeable in search techniques would know which of the following statements to be in error?
A) A locked bathroom door is usually an indication that someone is inside.
B) If a room has a padlock on it, assume it is unoccupied.
C) When forcing an apartment entrance door, if the night latch chain is in place, this indicates a strong possibility that victims will be present.
D) Ensure all interior walls of a closet are touched when searching the closet floor.
B) If a room has a padlock on it, assume it is unoccupied (INCORRECT)
(TB Search 12.4)
* DON'T assume it is unoccupied.
D - By touching all walls in closet, it will ensure that the search reaches
the back of the closet. Many times children will hide from fire deep
inside the closet.
160
Firefighters in a Ladder company are drilling with the search rope and are discussing the specifics on the knots which come tied into the rope. They were incorrect in which choice?
A) The intervals of distance knots is 25' apart
B) A single knot is tied at 25', two knots at 50', three knots at 75', four knots at 100'
C) Spacing between distance knots is approximately 6"
D) A single directional knot is tied off 18" before all directional knots.
D) A single directional knot is tied off 18" before all directional knots. (INCORRECT)
(TB Rope 6 / Search Rope 3)
* All except the 25' distance knots. Directional knots will always be
closer to the tie off point.
161
Which of the following options most correctly describes a secondary search?
A) A rapid but through search for life.
B) A thorough and painstakingly complete search for life.
C) A thorough and painstakingly complete search for fire extension.
D) A rapid but thorough search for fire extension.
B) A thorough and painstakingly complete search for life.
(TB Search 1.6)
Choice A - describes a primary search
Choice B - Secondary search completed before extensive overhauling.
Performed by a different company that performed the
primary search.
162
Hazards within confined spaces can be divided into two main categories: atmospheric and physical hazards. Atmospheric hazards can be three difference types. Which of the following choices is not one of those types of hazards?
A) Asphyxiant
B) Toxic
C) Explosive
D) Corrosive
D) Corrosive
| TB Confined Space 2
163
The officer of Ladder 30 gets a call from mask services that the SCBA assigned to the Ladder 30 OV position is due for a PMP and should be out of service and sent to mask services. He would be correct if he sent him the SCBA with which number?
A) 30-4
B) 30-2
C) 5030-5
D) 7030-6
A) 30-4
(TB SCBA 10.7)
* Same designations as HT radios
164
Firefighter Lin is drilling on the operation of the cordless rebar cutter and makes the following statements. He needs to review this tools capabilities because his only correct answer is which choice?
A) It is effective on case hardened steel locks
B) It can cut wrought iron fences over 1 inch in diameter
C) This tool is safe to use in an explosive atmosphere
D) A fully charged battery will last for approximately 40 cuts
D) A fully charged battery will last for approximately 40 cuts
(TB Tools 28)
A - Do not use rebar cutter on case hardened steel locks
B - Can cut wrought iron fences up to 5/8" in diameter
C - Do not use rebar cutter in explosive atmosphere / creates sparks
when cut is complete.
165
At morning roll call, a probationary FF asks you about the use of glow sticks. You would be correct in which point?
A) Each unit shall carry at least 25 glow sticks on their apparatus.
B) Heat / humidity shortens the life of glow sticks
C) Glow sticks will rupture under high pressures, such as those found underwater.
D) Glow sticks are activated by vigorously shaking the tube.
B) Heat / humidity shortens the life of glow sticks
(TB Tools 30, 2.5)
A - Each unit carries 10 glow sticks
C - Can tolerate high pressures
D - Activate glow sticks by bending them
166
Heavy wind is predicted so a Queens firehouse dedicates the 6x9 drill to chainsaw operations. The only correct point about chainsaw operations is shown in which point?
A) Only the operator must wear chaps.
B) The saw operator must wear their bunker coat.
C) Chaps may be worn over shorts.
D) It is permissible for the Control member to wear their long sleeve shirt to protect against flying debris, insect bites, poison ivy etc.
D) It is permissible for the Control member to wear their long sleeve shirt to protect against flying debris, insect bites, poison ivy etc
(TB Tools 24 7.3.1)
A - Both operator and control must wear chaps.
B - Operator must wear bunker coat and/or long sleeve shirt
C -Chaps must be worn over long pants or bunker pants (not over
shorts)
167
Members were conducting a drill on SCBA emergency procedures. Which is the only correct statement the members made?
A) A malfunction of the PRAs primary system will automatically direct breathing air into a secondary system. When this occurs, operating pressure will only be reduced to 150 psi and cause the vibralert alarm to activate.
B) If failure of the regulator in the closed position (too much air in facepiece), air flow can be controlled by opening the purge valve fully and partially closing the cylinder valve.
C) Failure of the regulator in the open position (no air into facepiece), turn purge valve counter clockwise.
D) Failure of both primary and secondary systems in the closed position will activate a relief valve in the PRA, which will rapidly discharge all pressures in excess of 185 psi into atmosphere. When this occurs, the cylinder valve should be partially closed allowing only a minimal amount of air to release permitting the member to both breathe and conserve sir.
A) A malfunction of the PRAs primary system will automatically direct breathing air into a secondary system. When this occurs, operating pressure will only be reduced to 150 psi and cause the vibralert alarm to activate.
(TB SCBA 3.6.2)
B - Too much air to facepiece (regulator failed in OPEN position)
C - No air to facepiece (regulator failed in CLOSED position)
D - Failure of both primary and secondary systems in the OPEN
POSITION will activate a relief valve in the PRA, which will rapidly
discharge all pressures in excess of 185 psi into atmosphere.
168
Training Bulletin Foam lists several types of incidents units may respond to. Varying examples are given for small spill operations, medium spill operations and large spill operations. Which example is listed incorrectly?
A) Gas pump knocked over is a medium sized flammable / combustible liquid situation.
B) A loading rack incident is a medium sized flammable / combustible liquid situation.
C) Car fire with a ruptured gas tank is a small operation.
D) Oil burner with the fire outside the pit is a small operation.
A) Gas pump knocked over is a medium sized flammable / combustible liquid situation. (INCORRECT)
(TB Foam 5.2)
* Gas pump is considered a SMALL SPILL.
1. Small spill (approx. 600 square feet or less) = handline nozzles
2. Medium spill (over 600 square feet) = self educting nozzles
3. Large spill (over 2000 square feet) = master stream nozzles
* Remember a medium spill is 601-2000 square feet. Then small and
large spills can be easily identified.
169
The FDNY has issued various thermal imaging cameras to units over the years. The most recent camera that information is provided in our training bulletins is the Evolution 5200 TIC. Which statement on this TIC is not completely accurate?
A) One red light indicates low battery warning and 15 minutes of battery life remaining.
B) Flashing red LED indicates TIC shutdown is imminent
C) When colors yellow through red (275 - 320 degrees F) appear in more than 25% of viewed area, TIC will shift into high heat (low sensitivity) "L Mode"
D) Operating time is 2 hours at normal temperatures. This time may be greatly reduced in hotter or colder ambient atmospheres.
C) When colors yellow through red (275 - 320 degrees F) appear in more than 25% of viewed area, TIC will shift into high heat (low sensitivity) "L Mode" (INCORRECT)
(TB Tools 27, data sheet 3)
* More than 15% of viewed area.
170
L-121 was drilling on the fire window blanket after a recent fire in a housing project. Having recently passed the lieutenants test, FF Doyle was able to correct the covering captain on which point?
A) The blanket is large enough to cover at least 2 windows if necessary. The bottom of the blanket is weighted to facilitate positioning.
B) Any unit may be used to deploy the blanket. The assigned unit or IC shall designate a spotter to observe the deployment of the blanket from the exterior.
C) The officer of the blanket deploying unit will assign members to the floor below to secure the fire window blanket.
D) Just before the blanket is put in place, the Roof FF must make a HT announcement to all units. All units must be instructed to report any adverse condition caused by the blanket being put in place.
D) Just before the blanket is put in place, the Roof FF must make a HT announcement to all units. All units must be instructed to report any adverse condition caused by the blanket being put in place (INCORRECT)
(TB Tools 3, 3.6)
* INCIDENT COMMANDER makes HT announcement
171
Members of Ladder 150 were discussing the use of the search rope after a recent warehouse fire. FF Bailey of E-301 had to correct his truck counterparts in which statement?
A) The rope should be tied off at intervals to help keep it taut and off the floor.
B) Voice contact shall be maintained with all search team members.
C) All units receiving orders to search an area requiring a search rope shall maintain unit integrity and will perform this function with all members.
D) Spacing between the distance knots is approximately 6". A single directional knot is located 18" before the distance knots when traveling in the direction of deployment. This knot will always be closer to the tie off or exit.
C) All units receiving orders to search an area requiring a search rope shall maintain unit integrity and will perform this function with all members. (INCORRECT)
(TB Rope 6, 7.2)
* A unit other than 1st alarm
172
It is critical for company officers to control all ventilation tactics, including doors to and within the occupancy. According to the search training bulletin, when should horizontal ventilation in the fire area occur?
A) Not until a hoseline is in position and members are waiting for water.
B) Approval is given by the BC operating as the fire floor Sector Chief.
C) Approval is given by the ladder company officer in the area or apartment.
D) Approval is given by the engine company officer in the area or apartment.
C) Approval is given by the ladder company officer in the area or apartment.
(TB Search 2.2)
* Horizontal ventilation in the fire area shall not occur until a CHARGED
hoseline is in position OPERATING on the fire, or approval is given by
the ladder company officer in the area or apartment.
173
Ladder 26 responds 3rd due to a fire in a High Rise Office Building while relocated to Midtown. The fire is reported to be on the 37th floor of a 50 story building. There are access stairs on the 36th floor to the 38th floor. The "A" elevator services the 30-40th floors with a blind shaft from 1-29th floors. The "B" elevator serves the 1-30th floors. The "C" elevator services the 40-50th floors with a blind shaft from 1-39th floors. Which elevator would be the most correct one for Ladder 26 to use?
A) "B" elevator to 30th floor and stairs to the 35th floor.
B) "A" elevator to 35th floor
C) "A" elevator to 34th floor
D) "C" elevator to 40th floor, walk to roof
C) "A" elevator to 34th floor
(TB Elevators 6.1.2)
* "B" elevator is a lower bank but does not reach within 5 floors of the
fire floor.
"A" elevator services the fire floor
A key point is that the fire area has access stairs. Select a floor at
least 2 floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area,
whichever is lowest.
"7-5-2" rule
174
What is the preferred order of victim removal?
A) Interior stairs / Fire escape / Ladders / Horizontal exits / LSR
B) Interior stairs / Horizontal exits / Ladder / Fire escape / LSR
C) Interior stairs / Horizontal exits / Fire escape / Ladders / LSR
D) Horizontal exits / Interior stairs / Fire escape / Ladders / LSR
C) Interior stairs / Horizontal exits / Fire escape / Ladders / LSR
(TB Search 13.2)
"In Hot Fires Leave Rapidly"
175
It is imperative that the correct foam concentrate is used for the right situation. It is for this reason that the FDNY uses a color coded band around the top of the containers to identify which type of foam concentrate it contains. Which of the following choices represents an incorrect match?
A) AFF (blue)
B) Alcohol (green)
C) Hi-Expansion (yellow)
D) Fluoroprotein (brown)
A) AFF (blue) (INCORRECT)
(TB Foam 3.5)
* AFF has a BLACK BAND
176
Your company is drilling on rope operations using the inflatable soft landing mat outside of quarters. You would know which of the following to be the correct choice concerning operations using this piece of equipment?
A) This mat can be used at MUD locations to better simulate real world scenarios.
B) The exhaust port should preferably face directly against a building wall.
C) The blower must operate continuously during the entire rope training period.
D) While used at quarters the mat should never used on the sidewalk apron.
C) The blower must operate continuously during the entire rope training period.
(TB Rope Data Sheet 4, 4.9)
A - Mat used ONLY at the firehouse (never a remote site)
B - NEVER place mat directly against a building directly. Place away to
either side.
D - Mat used at any suitable location around firehouse INCLUDING the
sidewalk apron.
177
You are a new lieutenant working a 9x6 tour in Mahattan. While checking out the apparatus floor, you notice this unit has positive pressure fans used at High Rise buildings to pressurize the stairs. You ask the junior member to give you a few quick tips on the use of the fan and he was correct in all but which of the following?
A) While running fans at an incident, exhaust hoses must always be attached to the operating fan to limit CO.
B) Fans shall never be refueled inside a structure.
C) Fans should never be transported while in operation. If the fans need to be moved, it shall be shut off first.
D) Fans shall be inspected once a week at MUD.
D) Fans shall be inspected once a week at MUD (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 32, 4.1)
* Fans inspected DAILY ON THE 9X6 TOUR.
Run at full RPMs for 5 minutes at MUD.
178
You are the officer in Ladder 48 and you are 10-8 in your first due area. The MDT rings and you get a run assigned 1st due for a fire on the first floor of a 6 story "H" Type. You are the first unit on the scene and you find heavy smoke in an apartment on the first floor and you begin your search utilizing the TIC. Incorrect operation of this tool is found in which choice below?
A) Focal point of the camera is approximately 3 feet. Objects closer than 3' may appear blurry.
B) Wiping your facepiece, the display screen and the camera lens may be necessary to improve clarity.
C) Begin scanning the floor level using a side to side scanning motion.
D) The camera will not see through water and shiny surfaces will reflect the image creating a mirror effect.
C) Begin scanning the floor level using a side to side scanning motion (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 27 3.3)
* Start at the CEILING and scan side to side working your way to the
floor area.
179
A new lieutenant is conducting a forcible entry drill and the discussion turns to the capabilities of the hydra ram. This lieutenant would be correct to tell the members which of the following?
A) Hydra rams should only be used on inward opening doors.
B) If necessary, strike the Hydra ram with any axe or maul to get a good purchase.
C) The hydra ram can open to a maximum of 4 inches.
D) Never use the hydra ram in or around water.
C) The hydra ram can open to a maximum of 4 inches.
(TB TOOLS 26)
A - Hydra ram can be used on INWARD & OUTWARD opening doors
B - NEVER strike hydra ram with tool
D - Hydra ram CAN BE USED underwater
180
Lexan is used to replace glass in many NYCHA owned buildings. Which of the following choices is incorrect regarding Lexan?
A) Lexan is much heavier than glass
B) Lexan has an impact resistance 250 times greater than safety glass.
C) Lexan can be cut quickly and easily by using the portable power saw equipped with the carbide tip blade.
D) Using the chainsaw on Lexan is unsafe as it tends to throw chips like schrapnel.
A) Lexan is much heavier than glass (INCORRECT)
(TB Fires 4, 1.2)
* Lexan is HALF THE WEIGHT of glass.
181
A truck company gaining access to a fire area to be searched must maintain control of the entrance door for the safety of occupants and members. According to the search training bulletin, which of the following is the determining factor of whether the door will remain open or closed while the search is being conducted?
A) Whether or not the Engine company has a charged line and is ready to advance into the fire area.
B) Whether or not there is a wind condition created by a failed or open window with negative effects within the fire area.
C) Whether or not the truck companies outside team has access to the fire area.
D) Whether or not FAST truck is on scene prior to the ladder company advance into fire area.
A) Whether or not the Engine company has a charged line and is ready to advance into the fire area.
(TB Search 9.10.1)
* A determination must be made as whether the door will remain open
or closed while the search is being conducted. The determining factor
is whether or not the Engine company has a charged line and is ready
to advance into the fire area.
182
Which choice is incorrect concerning the pressurized water extinguisher?
A) Can be used to cool a burned victim or member.
B) A gloved finger placed lightly over the nozzle tip can help produce a fine spray. This method is preferred for energized electrical fires.
C) Direct the straight stream at the base of the fire.
D) Using the extinguisher with a finger over the nozzle should only be used at very small fires or smoldering fires where there is no detectable thermal draft created by fire.
B) A gloved finger placed lightly over the nozzle tip can help produce a fine spray. This method is preferred for energized electrical fires (INCORRECT)
(TB TOOLS 1, 3B)
* Water extinguishers should NEVER be used on or around energized
electrical fire situations to avoid electrical shock injury.
183
While drilling on the Search Training Bulletin, Lieutenant Primary made the following statements. In which statement was the Lt. off the mark?
A) Gaining access to the fire area, or area to be searched, will usually be through the main door.
B) If there are indications of fire on the other side of the door, stand in front of the door and keep low when opening it.
C) If fire is wrapping around the door jamb as the door is being forced open, a line must be charged and in place at the door before it is opened.
D) The company officer shall contact the exterior team for their sizeup if it has not been communicated.
B) If there are indications of fire on the other side of the door, stand in front of the door and keep low when opening it (INCORRECT)
(TB Search 9.5)
* If there are indications of fire on the other side of the door, DO NOT
stand in front of the door when opening it. Stay to one side, keep low
and then open the door.
184
It is early January and snowing outside. As the officer on duty, you begin to review the use of snow chains on department apparatus. You would be correct regarding snow chain use in which of the following choices?
A) When chains are applied, apparatus must not exceed 30 mph.
B) Call the shops when necessary to apply snow chains.
C) Chains should only be applied upon orders of a staff Chief via a 65-2 announcement.
D) In all instances, if a chain becomes loose while driving, the apparatus must be stopped and the condition corrected.
A) When chains are applied, apparatus must not exceed 30 mph
(TB Apparatus C-2)
B - We install the snow chains. Chauffeurs should be proficient
installing snow chains on all apparatus'
C - Snow chains applied at the DISCRETION OF THE OFFICER
D - If responding to a fire or emergency, DO NOT stop to fix a loose or
broken snow chain.
185
Ladder 31 has been designated as the salvage truck for a 2nd alarm fire in an occupied MD. The officer on duty would be incorrect in which of the following choices?
A) The officer of L-31 is responsible for completing a single copy of the SAL-2 for, which is filed in the unit.
B) Articles of value (jewelry / papers / money) should be turned over to the officer in command of the fire.
C) Officer of L-31 should special call the FD buildings maintenance unit for plastic, sheeting, staples and nails.
D) Elevator shafts shall not be used for removal of water.
C) Officer of L-31 should special call the FD buildings maintenance unit for plastic, sheeting, staples and nails. (INCORRECT)
(TB Salvage 1, 4.1)
* In addition to normal tools, every truck should also carry salvage
equipment. EVERY ladder comoany is a salvage ladder unit.
186
Which of the following definitions, in relation to arson detection is incorrect?
A) Plants are materials arranged to start and feed the initial fire. (Candles, matches, electrical, mechanical, chemicals and others)
B) Ignition devices are a mechanical, chemical or electrical means used to initiate a fire.
C) Trailers are materials left behind in the wake of the fire path.
D) Protected area is the clean or unburned area left by stock, furniture or contents.
C) Trailers are materials left behind in the wake of the fire path. (INCORRECT)
(TB Arson 1, 1.2.4)
* Trailers are materials arranged to spread fire from its point of origin to
other areas of an occupancy (cotton waste, rags, paper, fluids,
excelsior, waste film and others)
187
FF Smith is operating with a donned SCBA in a IDLH when suddenly her vibralert is activated and air is being discharged from her pressure reducer assembly. She would be most correct if she were to?
A) Partially close purge valve and leave the IDLH.
B) Partially close cylinder valve, notify officer and leave IDLH.
C) Continue to operate and monitor air pressure
D) Manually shut air off to the regulator and breathe by cracking the purge valve.
B) Partially close cylinder valve, notify officer and leave IDLH.
(TB SCBA 3.8.4)
* This is a failure of both the primary and secondary systems in the
open position. All air pressure in excess of 185 psi is being
discharged.
* There are only 2 times we close the cylinder valve partially (failure of
regulator in the open position is the other)
188
A ventilation limited fire will react rapidly once a door is left open or other parts of the occupancy are ventilated allowing air flow into the fire area. These openings will provide enough air flow that may rapidly expand the fire condition and extension, causing conditions to become untenable. According to the search training bulletin, how quickly can conditions become untenable?
A) In as little as 1/2 minute after entry
B) In as little as 3 minutes after entry
C) In as little as 4 1/2 minutes after entry
D) In as little as 6 minutes after entry
A) In as little as 1/2 minute after entry
(TB Search)
* These openings will provide enough air flow that may rapidly expand
the fire condition and extension, causing conditions to become
untenable in as little as 1/2 minute after entry (ventilation) is made into
the fire part meant or area.
189
Ladder 18 is out of quarters and 10-8 in their response area when they see fire showing from the 2nd floor of a NFPMD. After making the appropriate radio transmissions, Ladder 18 goes to work, forcing the door to the fire apartment. Knowing a hoseline will be delayed, the officer tells one member to stay at the apartment door while he searches the fire area with the remaining member of the inside tea,. The member at the door would be incorrect to do which?
A) Keep door to fire area closed making sure that the door does not lock.
B) Monitor conditions in the immediate entrance area that may affect the safety of the interior search team.
C) Leave hydra ram outside the apartment in the hallway and take a position inside the apartment.
D) Take a position outside the fire apartment in the hallway to maintain control of the door.
D) Take a position outside the fire apartment in the hallway to maintain control of the door. (INCORRECT)
(TB Search 1, 9.10.1 B)
* Position yourself INSIDE the fire apartment to act as a beacon to
guide searching members back to the door.
190
Your company returns to the scene of a fire from the previous night tour. While looking through the fire area, you notice an area with heavy smoke stains and on the intact glass you see large crazing. You would be most correct if you were to think?
A) This fire had a rapid and intense heat build up.
B) This area was close to the fires point of origin.
C) This fire had a slow heat build up and this area was remote from the point of origin.
D) Water was applied to heated glass causing the crazing.
C) This fire had a slow heat build up and this area was remote from the point of origin.
(TB Arson 1, 6.7.2)
C - Large crazing = slow and far (heavyweight fighter)
Small crazing = close and fast (lightweight fighter)
D - CHECKERING results from water being applied to heated glass.
191
Search of a building is an important responsibility of truck companies. In regard to search, which of the following would not be in accordance with FDNY procedures regarding the secondary search?
A) Secondary search is a thorough and painstakingly complete search for life of all areas that require a primary search.
B) Since the purpose of a secondary search is to ensure that no possible victims are overlooked, time is not as important as accuracy.
C) Secondary search shall be completed prior to extensive overhaul.
D) Secondary search should be performed by same company which performed the primary search.
D) Secondary search should be performed by same company which performed the primary search. (INCORRECT)
(TB Search 7.3)
* Secondary must be performed by a DIFFERENT company than the
company performing the primary search.
192
Firefighter Scott is reviewing emergency procedures when a member operating with a donned SCBA becomes entangled or trapped. Which choice below is correct regarding SCBA emergency procedures?
A) Immediately give a mayday
B) First attempt to free yourself when entangled and if necessary give an urgent.
C) When necessary to perform a quick release escape maneuver, grip right hand on shoulder strap and turn 180 degrees to your right.
D) It's best to keep a cutting tool in your left coat pocket.
A) Immediately give a mayday
(TB SCBA 6)
B - Waiting to give a mayday may be too late
C - Grip with LEFT HAND and turn to your LEFT
D - Keep cutting tool is RIGHT coat pocket.
193
You are the officer in Ladder 18 and respond first due for a fire on the 8th floor of a fireproof MD. Your company would be correctly operating if they made which of the following moves?
A) Members avoided elevators and took the stairs to the 8th floor.
B) Members operating elevators in fireman service selected the 7th floor for the elevator to stop at.
C) No more than 6 members are permitted inside an elevator car.
D) If a service elevator is available it should be used as the first choice.
C) No more than 6 members are permitted inside an elevator car.
(TB Emergency Elevator Operations 6.1.8)
A - 7th floor and below = avoid elevator, take stairs
B - Select floor AT LEAST 2 floors below
D - Service elevator NOT TO BE USED unless declared safe by officer
in command of fire.
194
A member of your company asks you about the process of obtaining corrective lenses for spectacle kits for the SCBA. You would be incorrect to tell him which?
A) Members may wear contact lenses with their SCBA.
B) Members shall submit a corrective lens prescription that is less than 1 year old and contains their papillary distance (PD) measurement.
C) If a member is required to be examined by a physician/optometrist, the Bureau of Health Services will schedule an appointment.
D) If a member experiences any problems with a completed spectacle kit, the member should call MSU and send the damaged kit along with a completed request form to MSU.
C) If a member is required to be examined by a physician/optometrist, the Bureau of Health Services will schedule an appointment. (INCORRECT)
(TB Search ADD 7, 3.3)
* The examination shall take place on the members own time.
195
Ladder 2 is responding to a scaffolding emergency. Upon arrival they find an occupied stalled suspended scaffold on the 40th floor of a high rise commercial building. They find the cause of the stall to be from an overheated motor. Ladder 2 would be operating incorrectly if they performed which of the following?
A) A window is immediately removed on the 40th floor to remove the workers.
B) The hoist has overheated. Allow for it to cool for at least 15 minutes and then have a worker reset the button.
C) If the wire is jammed, never allow the workers to operate the unit.
D) Unless the workers are in danger of falling, removal will be accomplished with the high angle rope.
A) A window is immediately removed on the 40th floor to remove the workers. (INCORRECT)
* Window removal is a LAST RESORT due to buiding damage and
danger of falling glass. Workers can still be taken in through an open
,window.
196
When an Engine company does not have a charged hose line at the door to the fire area, and the search team enters, a FF of the inside team must be positioned at the door inside the fire area to maintain control of the door until a charged line is ready to advance through that door. Which of the following is not a responsibility of this FF?
A) Communicate the identity of the fire apartment to the IC and Engine officer.
B) Maintain control of the fire apartment door to control the flow paths of heat and smoke.
C) Monitor HT transmissions to maintain situational awareness.
D) Act as a beacon to guide searching FFs back to the door.
A) Communicate the identity of the fire apartment to the IC and Engine officer. (INCORRECT)
(TB Search 9.10.1 B)
* Before entering, the LADDER COMPANY OFFICER shall
communicate the identity of the fire apartment to the IC and Engine
officer.
197
FF Cole Trickle is the best chauffeur around and he loves the fact that he gets to drive a million dollar rig. He is performing his routine daily maintenance but was incorrect in which step?
A) With the Engine off he made sure the battery showed a reading of 12 volts or higher.
B) He saw one of the wheel checks was off indicating a loose wheel but so he tightened it with a toque wrench.
C) He checked the oil level after the Engine had been shut down for at least 15 minutes.
D) He checked the tires for uneven wear and proper thread depth greater than 3/16"
B) He saw one of the wheel checks was off indicating a loose wheel but so he tightened it with a toque wrench. (INCORRECT)
(TB Apparatus C-2 3.2.8)
* Notify officer who will notify fleet services.
198
Lt. Smith is drilling his members on forcible entry of inward opening doors. Which statement made during the drill was correct?
A) Place the fork of the halligan approximately 12" above or below the lock.
B) If attacking the hinge side of the door always start with the lower hinge.
C) If 2 locks are encountered, place the halligan below the lower lock.
D) Place the bevel side of the fork next to the door and slightly cant the tool towards the floor or ceiling.
D) Place the bevel side of the fork next to the door and slightly cant the tool towards the floor or ceiling.
(TB Forcible Entry 1, 2.1)
A - SIX (6) INCHES above or below lock
B - ALWAYS ATTACK upper hinge first
C - Place halligan BETWEEN the 2 locks
199
The IC has declared a fire scene to be suspicious and since no fire marshal is available to respond, he turns and looks to you, the officer of an extra engine company standing by at the command post. He directs you to collect evidence that could be useful in arson detection. You were incorrect in which step?
A) Skim the surface of pooling water as most common flammable liquids will float in water.
B) Place material from the water in a clean glass jar eu a tight fitting lid since only a metal can was available.
C) Since nothing else was available, evidence was placed in new heavy gauge plastic bags used in pairs.
D) Evidence must remain in the hands of someone available to testify and it can never be left in the company office.
D) Evidence must remain in the hands of someone available to testify and it can never be left in the company office. (INCORRECT)
(TB Arson 1, 5.4)
* Not unless it is LOCKED or someone else signs and stays with the
evidence.
200
FF Fido gets bitten by a vicious attack poodle during building inspection. The officer on duty shall make all but which of the following notifications?
A) EMS
B) NYPD
C) Medical officer
D) Deputy Chief
D) Deputy Chief
(TB Fires 2, 4.13)
"PBA-ME"
PD / Bureau of Health / Animal Control (stray) / Medical Officer / EMS
201
E-92 and TL-44 are operating at a 20 story fireproof MD to clear a fire in a compactor chute. Which of the following choices represents an incorrect point concerning this type of operation?
A) A compactor fire is a structural fire and should be recorded as such on the CD-14.
B) E-92 should proceed to one level above the burning material, stretch a line and extinguish the fire.
C) L-44 replaced any sprinkler heads that activated in the compactor unit to restore it to service.
D) The OV operates with the Engine to provide access to the chute and check for extension.
C) L-44 replaced any sprinkler heads that activated in the compactor unit to restore it to service. (INCORRECT)
(TB Fires 7, 1.3)
* An example of something we commonly do in the field, however
according to the books is incorrect. (Note: FDNY does not replace
sprinkler heads)
202
Units responded to a vehicle accident on a roadway with a posted speed limit of 40 mph where vehicles are known to travel in speeds of 60 mph. Ladder 1 was used to protect the members operating from E-1. Which of the following actions did not follow proper FDNY protocol for the placement of flares?
A) At least 4 to 6 cones and/or flares should be used to build a lane closure or safety zone.
B) Members should obtain required number of flares and/or cones before leaving the apparatus, light one flare and carry the lit flare, walking the proper distance to place the furthest flare and come first.
C) Furthest flare/cone should be placed about 2' from the edge of the roadway. The next flare is then lit and placed equidistant back to the scene of operation, moving the flares/cones about 2' further into the roadway at each point.
D) Flares were placed a minimum distance of 220 feet from the accident.
D) Flares were placed a minimum distance of 220 feet from the accident. (INCORRECT)
(TB Fires 8, E1)
* 420 feet
Formula: 1st digit of highest expected speed X Expected speed + 60
6 X 60 + 60 = 420
203
Units respond to a vehicle accident on an express highway and members are placing flares to warn oncoming traffic. If the fastest expected speed on the highway is 70 mph, what is the minimum distance the furthest flare should be placed?
A) 550 feet
B) 100 feet
C) 250 feet
D) 310 feet
A) 550 feet
(TB Fires 8, 8.1)
Formula: 1st digit of highest expected speed X Expected speed + 60
(70 X 7 + 60 = 550)
204
E-222 and L-111 respond to a reported fire in an incinerator shaft at a hospital. As the officer working at this operation you should know that there are many operational differences at incinerator fires as opposed to compactor fires. Which choice is incorrect?
A) E-222 should immediately stretch a line to the floor above the blockage and operate to extinguish the fire.
B) An incinerator fire which does not extend from the shaft should be considered an "emergency"
C) If necessary TL-111 can tie a heavy weight to a rope and attempt to clear the blockage.
D) A red door on the chute or steel cans filled with ashes may help to indicate it is an incinerator.
A) E-222 should immediately stretch a line to the floor above the blockage and operate to extinguish the fire (INCORRECT)
(TB Fires 7, 1.2)
A - Incinerator (clear blockage)
Compactor (put out fire)
Generally the Engine will stand fast in the lobby
C - DONT drop anything down the chute that isn't secured by a rope.
205
The officer of E-324, a 4 FF Engine is in the office updating his riding list just after the 6x9 roll call. FF Jones knocks on the door and informs the officer that upon inspection of his personal harness, he has found damaged stitching and thinks it should be placed out of service. The officer would be correct to do which?
A) Officer should not allow FF Jones to respond on any emergencies.
B) Officer should allow FF Jones to continue to respond and operate as normal.
C) Officer should give FF Jones a replacement harness from the tool locker.
D) Officer should make an immediate phone call to the administrative Division and fill out an RT-2.
D) Officer should make an immediate phone call to the administrative Division and fill out an RT-2
(TB Rope 6)
A - Member will continue to respond. If assigned to a structural
response, the officer will notify dispatch that the unit is responding
"under staffed". Inform IC that member is without personal harness.
Member will not enter the IDLH.
206
Below are 4 terms related to fire dynamics that are new to the FDNY. Which term/definition is stated incorrectly?
A) Flow path is the movement of heat and smoke from the higher air pressure within the fire area to all other low air pressure areas both inside and outside the fire building.
B) Heat release rate is the rate at which energy (heat) is released by the burning of a fuel and oxygen mixture.
C) Ventilation profile is the appearance of the fire buildings ventilation points showing the flow paths of heat and smoke out of the structure as well as any air movement into the structure.
D) Ventilation limited fire is a fire in which the heat release rate or growth of the fire is enlarged because the fire is consuming all the available oxygen coupled with new oxygen coupled with new oxygen entering the fire area.
D) Ventilation limited fire is a fire in which the heat release rate or growth of the fire is enlarged because the fire is consuming all the available oxygen coupled with new oxygen coupled with new oxygen entering the fire area. (INCORRECT)
(TB Search Glossary)
* Ventilation limited fire - Heat release rate or growth of fire is being
SLOWED because the fire is consuming the available oxygen and NO
NEW OXYGEN is entering the fire area.
207
Water problems such as a burst lengths affect fire department operations in negative ways. Which of the following is not in accord with FDNY procedures regarding loss of water?
A) A burst length should be transmitted as an "urgent" HT message. The IC shall ensure that members operating above the fire are aware of the problems on the fire floor.
B) If there's any indication of a delay in putting water on an uncontrolled fire, all members operating above should seek refuge by returning to the fire floor or floor below
C) Members may resume operations on floor above once the water problem on the fire floor has been resolved.
D) Searching for fire extension is the only valid reason to remain above uncontrolled fire.
D) Searching for fire extension is the only valid reason to remain above uncontrolled fire. (INCORRECT)
(TB Search 9.3)
* Searching for fire extension IS NOT a valid reason to remain above an
uncontrolled fire.
208
You're working in L-126 and respond to a PD fire. While operating your Irons firefighter informs you that his heads up display has a yellow light flashing slowly. Which choice demonstrates a correct response to the firefighter?
A) You have 1/4 of air remaining and must leave the area immediately.
B) You have 1/2 a cylinder of air remaining and you can continue to operate.
C) You have a full cylinder of air remaining and you can continue to operate.
D) You have a malfunctioning mask and must leave the hazardous area immediately.
B) You have 1/2 a cylinder of air remaining and you can continue to operate.
(TB SCBA 3.8.9)
A - 1/4 cylinder indicated by the red light at the far left flashing rapidly
at 10 times per second. A member must notify their officer and
leave the area immediately with another member equipped with an
SCBA.
C - Full cylinder - 2 green lights glowing near center of display
209
Select the appropriate code signal required to be transmitted by the first arriving company officer for an incident where a large amount of Fluoroprotein foam will be needed.
A) 10-87
B) 10-86
C) 10-60
D) 10-66
B) 10-86
(TB Foam / Comm 8)
10-86 = Fluoroprotein foam operation
10-87 = Hi-Expansion Foam operation
210
The FDNY has the ability to deal with all types of foam incidents. Which general consideration applying to flammable/combustible liquid incidents is incorrect?
A) Position apparatus upwind and uphill
B) Eliminate all sources of ignition starting with upwind and uphill
C) Identify the product
D) Have Rescue, Squad or HazMat Company 1 take explosive readings
B) Eliminate all sources of ignition starting with upwind and uphill (INCORRECT)
(TB Foam 7.1)
* Start eliminating sources of ignition DOWNHILL/DOWNWIND.
211
During a familiarization drill inside a bulk oil facility, a Battalion Chief gathers members together for a discussion on foam operations. The Chief states that if the product inside one of the fuel storage tanks catches fire, foam should be applied into the "window". Which statement is correct regarding this tactic proposed by the a Chief?
A) It is an opening in the tank, directly below the top lip, which is installed to facilitate foam application.
B) It is an area in the fire plume located on the downwind side of the tank
C) It is a small area where flames are somewhat subdued
D) There are more convection currents in this area.
C) It is a small area where flames are somewhat subdued.
(TB Foam 7.2.4)
A - INCORRECT
B - Area in fire plume located on UPWIND side of tank
C - Correct (flames aren't as tall in the "window" area of tank)
D - There are LESS convection currents in this area.
212
An uncontained burning fuel spill that is flowing down a grade in a roadway should be strategically extinguished and controlled by first arriving units in all but which of the following ways?
A) Work against the run of the spill, either directly or from the flanks towards the source of the spill
B) Employ a foam stream directly onto the burning fuel spill
C) Dig a hole ahead of the spill and establish a heavy foam blanket
D) Try to find the source of the leak and shut it down if possible
B) Employ a foam stream directly onto the burning fuel spill (INCORRECT)
(TB Foam 7.3.3)
* DO NOT employ a foam stream DIRECTLY onto a burning fuel spill
213
Members of a Squad company have entered a foam blanket in an attempt to shut down a faulty fuel valve a substantial distance away. You are an Engine Company officer ordered to protect these members during their task utilizing a foam handline. In this instance, you should direct your Nozzle FF to?
A) Aim the nozzle to apply foam at the back of the Squad members knees.
B) Apply foam over the heads of the Squad members
C) Keep nozzle shutdown but have it ready to operate should a burn-back situation occur.
D) Follow the squad members into the foam blanket and use the foam handline as a lifeline.
A) Aim the nozzle to apply foam at the back of the Squad members knees.
(TB Foam 7.3.6)
214
According to Training Bulletins: Foam Operations, the specific gravity of water is?
A) 0
B) 1
C) Less than 1
D) More than 1
B) 1
| TB Foam, 7.4.1
215
The danger of a Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE) during tank truck accidents with subsequent fire has been reduced in the newer tank trucks having aluminum shells due to?
A) Reduction in capacity
B) Elasticity of the shell
C) Melting of the shell
D) Strength of the shell
C) Melting of the shell
| TB Foam, 7.4.3
216
The best place to establish a Foam Assembly Point for the Foam Carrier or Foam Tender is?
A) At the Staging Area
B) Adjacent to the ICP
C) At an intersection
D) At the Operations Post
C) At an intersection
| TB Foam 7.4.4
217
Jet A fuel used in aircraft is most accurately described in which choice?
A) Similar to unleaded gasoline but with higher octane
B) A polar solvent (alcohol) liquid
C) The equivalent of reformulated gasoline
D) A kerosene-based fuel
D) A kerosene-based fuel
| TB Foam 7.5
218
Regarding airplane incidents on airport property, what is the major priority of the FDNY in relation to Port Authority Police Departments (PAPDs) "larger" Oshkosh crash truck vehicle?
A) Supply these types of trucks with water
B) Supply these types of trucks with Fluoroprotein Foam.
C) Supply these types of trucks with Alcohol Resistant Fluoroprotein Foam (AR-FP)
D) Supply these types of trucks with Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFF)
A) Supply these types of trucks with water
| TB Foam, 7.5.1
219
All Oil Bulk Facilities in NYC have fire protection systems in place and our first consideration is to supply these systems with what is needed. Which of the following is not required from the FDNY?
A) Water
B) Foam concentrate
C) Foam solution
D) Fire & Ice powder
D) Fire & Ice powder (INCORRECT)
| TB Foam 7.6.1
220
Which is an inaccurate statement pertaining to bulk oil tank fires?
A) Large quantities of water and foam concentrate are necessary.
B) Patience is needed not to start foam operations until enough foam is on site.
C) Quick water applied to exposures before they become involved is essential.
D) A partially full tank is less dangerous than a full tank.
D) A partially full tank is less dangerous than a full tank (INCORRECT)
(TB Foam 7.6.4)
* Partially full tank is MORE DANGEROUS than a full tank
221
Fire department units frequently operate at elevator emergencies throughout the city. A newly promoted lieutenant would know which of the following to be correct about elevator operations?
A) The officer requested EMS only after confirming injuries to the trapped occupants in an elevator.
B) Units should contact responsible building management personnel upon arrival to an elevator incident and shall delay operations until building personnel arrive.
C) The function of the FDNY at elevator operations is the safe removal of persons trapped in an elevator car or hoistway and reactivation of elevators.
D) Electrical problems are the most frequent cause of elevator malfunction.
D) Electrical problems are the most frequent cause of elevator malfunction.
(TB - Elevators 2.1)
A - If there is ANY indication of an injured occupant, the officer shall
request EMS. There DOES NOT have to be a confirmed injury to a
trapped occupant for EMS to be called.
B - Call building management personnel, however DO NOT WAIT for
them to arrive to begin operations.
C - Once elevator power is removed DO NOT reactivate them.
222
FDNY elevator emergencies are divided into incidents and emergencies. All but which of the following are in accordance with FDNY policy?
A) An injured occupant in an elevator constitutes an emergency.
B) The only conditions that qualify as an emergency are injuries and panic.
C) Primary removal procedures are simple approaches performed without turning off the elevator power.
D) A stuck elevator with trapped passengers not in immediate danger and no evidence of injury is an incident.
B) The only conditions that qualify as an emergency are injuries and panic. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 2.4)
Conditions that qualify as an elevator emergency:
1. Injuries
2. Panic
3. Endangered by Fire
223
Which comment made during drill on locating a stalled elevator car is not correct?
A) Open the hoistway for at first floor with elevator key and look up shaft. Key devices are usually required at the lower levels and may be present at all levels.
B) If available use the intercom or telephone system of the stuck car. Passengers may be able to give their approximate location.
C) Regardless of potential damage, enter a car in the same bank and open the top hatch to determine the stalled cars location.
D) Use the floor selector in the machinery room, it indicates the exact location of the elevator car.
C) Regardless of potential damage, enter a car in the same bank and open the top hatch to determine the stalled cars location. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 3.2.1)
* Enter car in the same bank and open the top hatch to determine the
stalled cars location IF NO DAMAGE WILL BE DONE.
224
During which removal procedure(s) is power removed from the elevator? (More than 1 correct)
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Emergency
B) Secondary
C) Emergency
(TB - Elevators 3.3)
Primary = power remains ON
Secondary & Emergency = power turned OFF
225
You are a lieutenant working in a ladder company dispatched to a stuck occupied elevator. Upon arrival you confirm a stuck elevator car at the 3rd floor and the doors will not open. There is 1 adult and 1 child inside the car. You determine this to be an elevator incident. Which of the following would be an incorrect action?
A) Activate Fireman Service (if available). Fireman Service will not override the Emergency Stop Button.
B) If Fireman Service is not being utilized but the Emergency Stop Button has been activated, the passengers must be instructed to deactivate the Emergency stop button.
C) If primary removal procedures fail, call for an elevator mechanic, the number is required to be posted.
D) Even though it is not an emergency, secondary Removal Procedures may be initiated prior to the arrival of the mechanic.
A) Activate Fireman Service (if available). Fireman Service will not override the Emergency Stop Button. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 3.3)
* Phase I = Fireman Service WILL OVERRIDE emergency stop button.
226
Several precautions must be in place when removing power during secondary power removal. Which of the following is incorrect?
A) Dispatch 2 members to the elevator machinery room to shut off the power to the stalled car. After power is removed, one member may reposition to a lower landing away from the machinery room noise to relay HT messages.
B) The machinery room may be located at the top of the shaft, at the bottom of the shaft or 2 levels above the highest floor serviced by the elevator.
C) If any doubt exists as to which motor operates which elevator, open as many elevator power switches as required to insure a safe operation.
D) Insure the power is not restored for the duration of the operation. Upon completion of the operation DO NOT restore power to the stalled car.
A) Dispatch 2 members to the elevator machinery room to shut off the power to the stalled car. After power is removed, one member may reposition to a lower landing away from the machinery room noise to relay HT messages. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 3.5.1)
* After power is removed, BOTH MEMBERS WILL REMAIN at the
power switch.
227
As operations proceed beyond primary removal procedures, members must be aware of additional precautions. All of the following are correctly stated except which point?
A) Members are not to enter the shaft or remove passengers from the car until assured power has been removed.
B) When passengers are removed from a car between floors they should be taken up and out of the car. This eliminates the possibility of a passenger falling down the shaft after exiting the elevator.
C) Members operating in the shaft are to be secured by a LSR of PSS.
D) Members shall not normally be permitted to enter the shaft below the elevator car.
C) Members operating in the shaft are to be secured by a LSR of PSS. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 3.5.2)
* Members secured by LSR only (NOT PSS)
228
Which statement concerning secondary removal procedures is not accurate?
A) Passengers of the struck car can assist in their removal. Direct the passenger of the car to attempt to open the car door by physically exerting pressure toward the open position.
B) Elevator keys are used in secondary removal procedures.
C) If an elevator has a 2 speed system, the IC may direct members in the elevator machinery room to shut power to the stuck car and turn it on again.
D) If the procedure in choice "c" fails, power can remain on.
D) If the procedure in choice "c" fails, power can remain on.
(TB - Elevators 3.6)
* If elevator has 2 speed system, you can shut off power to elevator
and turn it back on in an attempt to fix the elevator. If this procedure
fails, power must be SHUT OFF.
229
During a drill on the "poling" method to remove passengers from a multi car hoistway the lieutenant made the following comments. All are correct except?
A) The adjacent car should be positioned to give access to upper portion of the hoistway door to be opened.
B) Member in the adjacent car inserts pole or hook between the striking post and the hoistway door and trips the lock.
C) The lock is tripped by either depressing the locking arm or pushing on the roller.
D) Have member work from an adjacent car which is nearest the leading edge side of hoistway door of the stuck car.
C) The lock is tripped by either depressing the locking arm or pushing on the roller. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevator 3.6.4)
* On hinge type of door = push on the roller
Sliding type of door = depress the locking arm
230
When may forcible entry of hoistway and elevator car doors be attempted?
A) The last step in primary removal
B) During secondary removal procedures
C) The initial step in emergency removal procedures
D) The last resort during the emergency removal procedures
D) The last resort during the emergency removal procedures
(TB - Elevator 3.7.3)
* Forcible entry of hoistway and elevator car doors should be a last
resort and ONLY attempted in emergency situations (Injury/Panic/Fire)
231
You are the officer in command at an elevator emergency and have decided, after primary and secondary removal efforts failed, to remove occupants via the top hatchway. Which is the incorrect procedure?
A) Lower a portable ladder to the elevator roof. An extension ladder is preferred (tie the halyard around the rungs of both sections of the ladder)
B) Only two firefighters are to be permitted on the roof of the car at one time and both must be secured with a LSR.
C) After the top hatch is opened, a small portable ladder is lowered into the elevator.
D) Members are to remain in physical contact with trapped persons while they are being removed. Each person should be secured with a LSR.
A) Lower a portable ladder to the elevator roof. An extension ladder is preferred (tie the halyard around the rungs of both sections of the ladder) (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 3.7.2 A)
* Use a STRAIGHT LADDER if possible
232
During elevator removal procedures, FDNY members may be required to remove and then restore power to an elevator car. Do you agree or disagree with this statement?
A) Agree
B) Disagree
A) Agree
(TB - Elevators 3.6.3)
* 2 times you can remove and restore power to elevators
1. Side exit removal
2. Elevator has 2 speed system
233
Which of the following is the preferred forcible entry method for elevators?
A) Rabbit tool
B) Maxi force airbag system
C) Forcible entry tools
D) Elevator keys
B) Maxi force airbag system
| TB - Elevators 3.7.3
234
Which of the following comments about forcible entry during elevator operations is not accurate?
A) The jaws of the Rabbit Tool are inserted between the jamb and the leading edge of the hoistway door as close to the center as possible.
B) Air bags are placed between the leading edge of the door and jamb as high as possible to apply a more direct force on the linkage and the locking mechanism.
C) If using forcible entry tools from the landing above, a hook is also necessary.
D) Upon completion of forcible entry operations, notify building personnel to secure the hoistway door or have police or security warn people of the danger.
A) The jaws of the Rabbit Tool are inserted between the jamb and the leading edge of the hoistway door as close to the center as possible. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 3.7.3)
* This bulletin still refers to the Rabbit Tool.
You want to insert the tool between the jamb and the leading edge of
the hoistway door AS HIGH AS POSSIBLE.
235
Consider the following statements mentioned during annual,education day about elevator pit operations. Which are the correct statements?
1. A jump pit is entered via portable ladder from the lowest hoistway door.
2. A walk in pit usually has 6' to 10' from lowest landing to base of pit.
3. It is mandatory that elevator power always be shut off prior to
conducting any operations in both jump and walk in pits.
4. The walk in pit is accessed via a door opened with an emergency
elevator key.
5. For additional safety in a jump pit, trip the lower limit switch and
secure it in the open position.
A) 1,3,5
B) 1,2,5
C) 2,4
D) 1,4,5
E) 2,3
B) 1,2,5
(TB - Elevators 4.1)
3 - In EXTREME EMERGENCIES you can enter a walk in pit BEFORE
power is removed.
4 - The walk in pit is accessed via a door opened with a REGULAR
KEY (NOT an elevator key or 1620 key)
236
You are a lieutenant conducting drill on elevator operations and the fireman service function. While discussing the keyed switches you made the following statements. Which is incorrect?
A) Both the lobby keyed switch and the elevator car keyed switch can be either two or three position switches.
B) The key may be removed from the lobby key switch in all positions.
C) A two position lobby key switch is required to have a "door open" button on the same faceplate as the key switch.
D) The key may be removed from the elevator car switch in only the HOLD and NORMAL positions.
B) The key may be removed from the lobby key switch in all positions (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 5.2.1)
* Key may be removed from lobby key switch in the NORMAL or
FIREMAN SERVICE positions (NOT in door open position)
237
You are a lieutenant of E-12 responding to an EMS run on the 17th floor of a project building, as you arrive you observe an EMS ambulance parked out front. The dispatcher informs you that it is a confirmed cardiac arrest. You enter the lobby and proceed to the elevators and realize they are being operated in fireman service. You would be correct if you performed which action?
A) Use an available service elevator if possible.
B) Contact the EMS dispatcher to notify the EMS unit to release the elevator.
C) Contact the on scene EMS unit on HT Channel 1
D) Contact the EMS unit on the EMS/Fire IO frequency which is Channel 10 on the HT.
D) Contact the EMS unit on the EMS/Fire IO frequency which is Channel 10 on the HT.
(TB - Elevators 5)
238
While conducting BISP in an officer building you want to use an elevator on fireman service to go to the top floor. Which action was incorrect?
A) You used a 1620 key in the lobby and manually recalled the elevators by switching to "fireman service" or "on"
B) After all elevator cars returned to the lobby, you turned the lobby switch to "normal" before placing the elevator car to fireman service.
C) Upon reaching the desired floor you pressed and held the "door open" button until the door was fully open.
D) After arriving on the top floor, you needed to leave the car so you placed the car in "hold" and removed the key.
B) After all elevator cars returned to the lobby, you turned the lobby switch to "normal" before placing the elevator car to fireman service. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 5.2.2)
* Lobby switch should be switched to "normal" BEFORE placing the
elevator car to fireman service.
239
You are the Captain of a Ladder Company arriving at a 50 story office building in response to a Class 3 alarm. Upon entering the lobby you observe that all elevator doors are closed and are informed that Phase I recall has been initiated. Which is an incorrect statement about this situation?
A) All cars need to be accounted for and examined.
B) You need to determine if the recall was manual or automatic.
C) If the lobby keyed switch is found in the "fireman service" position momentarily switch it to "normal" and then back to "fireman service"
D) If Phase I was initiated automatically, place the lobby keyed switch in the hold position.
D) If Phase I was initiated automatically, place the lobby keyed switch in the hold position. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 5.3.1)
* Place lobby key switch in the "DOOR OPEN" position.
240
Which of the following will automatically initiate a Phase I recall of elevators? (More than 1 correct)
A) Activation of tenant occupancy smoke detector
B) Water flow from sprinkler
C) Smoke detector activation in MER
D) Activation of manual pull station
E) Activation of elevator landing smoke detector
B) Water flow from sprinkler
E) Activation of elevator landing smoke detector
(TB - Elevators 5.3.1)
241
The FDNY has a specific safety procedure when using fireman service elevators during fire operations. Which step is stated incorrectly?
A) After entering the car and pressing the "door close" button, select any floor.
B) As soon as the car begins to move, press the "call cancel" button
C) If the car does not stop at the next available floor immediately attempt to stop the car by forcing the doors open.
D) The elevator should be stopped every five floors to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor.
C) If the car does not stop at the next available floor immediately attempt to stop the car by forcing the doors open. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 5.3.2)
* If car doesn't stop at the next available floor, select the NEXT
AVAILABLE SAFE FLOOR. If it still doesn't stop, then you are
permitted to force the door open.
242
# Choose the inaccurate statements about elevator operations in fireman service: (More than 1 incorrect)
A) An elevator can only be placed in or taken off "fireman service" when the car is at the landing where the lobby keyed switch is.
B) The "door open" and "door close" buttons are constant pressure buttons.
C) If a member leaves an elevator car in "fireman service" before the doors are fully opened, the door will close behind him and the car will return to the lobby or terminal floor.
D) The emergency stop button in the car is operational during Phase II but not during Phase I.
E) Not more than 6 members plus the OV operating the elevator are permitted in any elevator car.
F) Members may take an elevator to the 6th floor for a confirmed fire on the 8th floor.
B) The "door open" and "door close" buttons are constant pressure buttons. (INCORRECT)
C) If a member leaves an elevator car in "fireman service" before the doors are fully opened, the door will close behind him and the car will return to the lobby or terminal floor. (INCORRECT)
E) Not more than 6 members plus the OV operating the elevator are permitted in any elevator car. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 5.3.2)
B - Door open = constant pressure button (need to hold the entire time)
Door close = only have to press once
C - If you leave elevator car in fireman service before the doors are fully
opened the doors will close behind you and become ISOLATED
AND O.O.S. (Doors will close and the elevator will just stay there
becoming useless)
E - No more than 6 MEMBERS TOTAL (including the OV) are permitted
in an elevator car.
243
You are the Captain of the 4th arriving ladder company at a 10-76. You report to the lobby command post and are ordered to perform searches on the upper floors. Which is a correct statement about which elevator you should use?
A) You may use the service elevator if it has been converted for fireman service.
B) Even if it is the only elevator, you may never use a fireman service elevator that serves all floors to go above the fire.
C) You should avoid elevators with a blind shaft on the fire floor.
D) If your elevator car operates erratically, press the call cancel, wait for the car to stop then press the desired floor button again.
B) Even if it is the only elevator, you may never use a fireman service elevator that serves all floors to go above the fire.
(TB - Elevators 6.1.5)
A - CANNOT USE service elevator unless IC declares it safe. This
wouldn't be something that is done in the early operations of the
fire.
B- NEVER use a fireman service elevator that serves all floors to go
above the fire.
C - You SHOULD USE elevators with a blind shaft on the fire floor.
D - If the elevator is operating erratically, EXIT AT THE NEAREST SAFE
FLOOR.
244
In rare instances members may become trapped in elevators during fire operations. Which are the correct actions/statements for this situation?
A) A hoseline can be used from the floor below on a 30 degree fog pattern between the car and the hoistway door.
B) If the elevator car opens on the fire floor, close the door. If the car fails to move after selecting a lower floor, members should immediately leave the car.
C) Members may use rope or hose to slide to the floor below depending on the circumstances.
D) The top emergency exit hatch should not be opened as this may create a flow path.
A) A hoseline can be used from the floor below on a 30 degree fog pattern between the car and the hoistway door.
C) Members may use rope or hose to slide to the floor below depending on the circumstances.
(TB - Elevators 6.3)
B - If elevator car opens on the fire floor, close the door. If the car fails
to move after selecting a lower floor, CHECK THE EMERGENCY
STOP BUTTON.
D - You SHOULD OPEN the top emergency exit hatch to relieve smoke.
245
If an elevator is provided with an emergency side exit door, it must have all but which of the following features?
A) Hinged to open into the shaft
B) Opened by hand from shaft side.
C) Lined up with and within 3' of the door of adjacent car.
D) Electrical door contact that prevents motion of car when door is open.
A) Hinged to open into the shaft. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 7.3.3)
* Hinged to open into the ELEVATOR CAR.
246
Elevators approved for installation after March 1991 are required to have a three positioned keyed switch in the car. The new third position, "hold", has all of the following characteristics except which?
A) Allows firefighters to leave the car without danger of a person without a key moving the car.
B) Elevator cannot be moved when switch is in "hold" position.
C) To operate the elevator in "hold" position, a 1620 key must be used to turn switch back to fireman service.
D) A car found on "hold" by a member should never be moved without first informing the IC.
D) A car found on "hold" by a member should never be moved without first informing the IC. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 5.2.2)
* Inform the FFs WORKING ON THAT FLOOR before moving an
elevator car that has been placed in the "hold" position.
247
For security reasons, some occupants lock the hoistway door on their floor when closing the door. If you are in an elevator that arrives at the selected floor but a door does not open, you would be correct to perform which actions? (More than 1 correct)
A) If the elevator car door does not open, attempt to force the door without causing damage.
B) If the car door opens but the hoistway door does not, conventional forcible entry is permitted even if damage results.
C) You can drop down to a floor where exit is possible and use the stairs.
D) Use a 1620 key, it may open a locked elevator or hoistway door.
C) You can drop down to a floor where exit is possible and use the stairs.
D) Use a 1620 key, it may open a locked elevator or hoistway door.
(TB - Elevators 6.5.1)
A - If elevator doesn't open, DROP DOWN to a floor where it will open.
B - If car door opens but hoistway door does not, TRY TO OPEN
DOOR WITH A 1620 KEY. Do not damage the door.
248
All members must be aware of the implications of discrimination, harassment, and sexual harassment. Which of the following is incorrect concerning these topics?
A) The recipient determines whether or not the behavior is unwelcome. The impact, not the intent, is the determining factor in assessing whether sexual harassment has occurred.
B) Disparate treatment includes excluding someone from meals, when others who do not belong to the protected groups are not excluded.
C) The workplace includes Fire Department affiliated functions (including parades, runs, ball games, company dances, parties and picnics), whether they occur on or off duty in the confines of NYC.
D) Repeatedly asking a person for a date when he or she has made it clear that the answer is "no" is an example of verbal sexual harassment.
C) The workplace includes Fire Department affiliated functions (including parades, runs, ball games, company dances, parties and picnics), whether they occur on or off duty in the confines of NYC.
(TB - EEO 1.3.1)
* The workplace is any FD function INSIDE OR OUT OF NYC.
249
Communication, record keeping, and support are essential elements in eliminating discrimination. Which choice incorrectly describes these actions?
A) If a person feels threatened or uncomfortable, the harassed individual may communicate this directly to their officer and/or an FDNY EEO Officer/EEO Counselor.
B) If it is the complainants officer who is engaging in the offensive conduct, the complainant should communicate with someone at the next level of supervision and/or the EEO Officer/EEO Counselor.
C) Offensive material should be removed by the complainant from bulletin boards. Evidence should be dated by the officer and forwarded to the EEO Officer, after making a copy of the material.
D) A detailed personal journal should be a bound notebook rather than loose-leaf.
E) Co-workers can act as a support, and can be extremely helpful as witnesses to support complaints.
C) Offensive material should be removed by the complainant from bulletin boards. Evidence should be dated by the officer and forwarded to the EEO Officer, after making a copy of the material. (INCORRECT)
(TB - EEO 2, 3.1)
* OFFICER or EEO OFFICER should remove offensive materials from
bulletin boards. Officer shall date this evidence and forward it to the
EEO Officer AFTER A TELEPHONE NOTIFICATION.
250
There are several actions that must be taken when a member utilizes the EEO complaint procedure. Which choice is not in accordance with these procedures?
A) The chain of command from the member to the EEO Officer is bypassed.
B) The EEO Officer shall make the final decision regarding EEO complaints.
C) Company Journal or Log entries shall not be taken with regards to any details of EEO complaints.
D) A complaint must be filed with the Fire Department EEO Officer within 1 year from the date the alleged harassment/discrimination occurred.
B) The EEO Officer shall make the final decision regarding EEO complaints. (INCORRECT)
(TB - EEO 7.1)
* FIRE COMMISSIONER makes final decision regarding EEO
complaints.
251
Lt. Smith is working a 9x6 tour in Engine 300, when a firefighter approaches him and notifies him of an alleged incident of harassment. Which action taken by Lt. Smith should be corrected?
A) After listening objectively to the complaint and determining that it is EEO related, Lt. Smith contacted the EEO Officer immediately.
B) The EEO Officer requested that Lt. Smith conduct an investigation. Lt. Smith declined due to his knowledge that only BITS or the Inspector General can request this.
C) Lt. Smith provided a copy of the Fire Departments EEO Complaint Procedure PA/ID 1/77 to the member.
D) Lt. Smith informed the member that they had the option of filing directly with BITS if the complaint is sexual harassment.
E) Lt. Smith completed a Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report submitted directly to the EEO Officer without intermediate endorsements. No copies were retained by Lt. Smith.
B) The EEO Officer requested that Lt. Smith conduct an investigation. Lt. Smith declined due to his knowledge that only BITS or the Inspector General can request this. (INCORRECT)
(TB - EEO 7.2)
* BITS OR THE EEO OFFICER can request that Lt. Smith conduct an
investigation.
252
At incinerator operations, locating and clearing the blockage is extremely important. Which is the incorrect choice concerning these operations?
A) If you open a chute door on a floor and smoke comes out, the blockage is generally above that floor.
B) When you open a chute door and a draft goes inward or there is little smoke, the blockage is generally below that floor or the blockage has freed itself.
C) A blockage can be pushed down with a hook or a bent reinforcing rod that is about 10 feet long and bent into an L-shape.
D) Never drop anything from above to free the blockage.
D) Never drop anything from above to free the blockage. (INCORRECT)
(TB Fires 7, 2.2)
* Never drop anything THAT ISNT SECURED BY A ROPE.
253
Which is the incorrect tactic implemented at an incinerator fire?
A) Units were unable to free the blockage, so they burned it off.
B) After all other options failed, a hoseline was used from the floor above to extinguish the fire. Units were unable to shut the auxiliary gas burner until after they flooded the shaft.
C) A blockage between the incinerator and the first floor was cleared by the LCC using a hook to pull it down from below. After clearing the blockage, the LCC shut off the auxiliary burner.
D) When opening a chute door, members stood to the side of the hopper door on the hinged side.
C) A blockage between the incinerator and the first floor was cleared by the LCC using a hook to pull it down from below. After clearing the blockage, the LCC shut off the auxiliary burner. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Fires 7, 2.3)
* Incinerators are designed to burn.
* BEFORE OPERATIONS BEGIN, shut down the auxiliary burner.
254
Compactor rooms and units require several types of fire protection. Which one of the following is incorrect concerning this protection?
A) The compactor room should be fire resistive, protected by a fire door and supplied with an automatic sprinkler.
B) A water outlet and a hose are required in the compactor room.
C) Sprinkler heads shall be provided in compactor units. They shall be arranged so that they may be readily replaced, unless the heads are electrically operated.
D) Electrically operated sprinkler heads are open, and are thermostatically controlled to operate at approximately 135 degrees F.
E) In refuse chutes in new construction, sprinklers shall be provided spaced not more than 3 stories apart for the height of the chute.
E) In refuse chutes in new construction, sprinklers shall be provided spaced not more than 3 stories apart for the height of the chute. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Fires 7, 7.1)
* Sprinklers no more than TWO (2) STORIES apart.
255
A compactor fire is more serious than an incinerator fire. A compactor fire is a structural fire while an incinerator fire which does not extend or communicate from the shaft is an emergency. Which is the correct action to take at a compactor chute fire?
A) Freeing the blockage is the first option. The possibility of extension is greater in the chute than in the unit.
B) The officer and forcible entry team must first locate the electrical shutoff and shut power to the unit before operations commence.
C) The first engine company will proceed to the floor where the burning material is located and stretch a line and extinguish the fire.
D) After the fire is extinguished, open the compactor unit door before the line is shut down and sprinkler OS&Y is closed to ensure complete extinguishment.
B) The officer and forcible entry team must first locate the electrical shutoff and shut power to the unit before operations commence.
(TB - Fires 7, 8.2)
A - Freeing the blockage is the first option for an INCINERATOR. The
possibility of extension is greater in the UNIT than in the CHUTE for
compactor fires.
B - Correct
C - First Engine Company will proceed to THE FLOOR ABOVE THE
BURNING MATERIAL, stretch a line and extinguish fire.
D - After fire is extinguished, open the compactor unit door AFTER
shutting down the line and sprinkler OS&Y valve is closed to ensure
complete extinguishment.
256
If there is a fire in the compactor shaft or unit, who will operate with the engine company?
A) The OV FF
B) The a Roof FF
C) The LCC
D) One member of the Forcible Entry team
A) The OV FF
(TB - Fires 7, 8.2)
"COVE" (Compactor - OV - Engine)
* Roof FF goes to the roof
LCC is directed by his officer
FE Team goes to compactor room with Officer
257
Immediately upon arrival at an operation on a highway, the officer in command must take steps to prevent escalation of an incident in the form of a secondary collision. Which is not one of these steps?
A) Where weather conditions or smoke blowing across the highway limits visibility, the highway must be closed.
B) At least one vehicle, other than the pumper being used to extinguish fire, shall be used to divert or block oncoming traffic for the duration of the incident or until PD arrives and assumes traffic control.
C) When there is a fire in a flammable liquid tank truck located on a grade, the apparatus must be placed to the rear of the incident.
D) Blocking apparatus shall be placed at least 50 feet behind the first operating unit to create a safe working area.
C) When there is a fire in a flammable liquid tank truck located on a grade, the apparatus must be placed to the rear of the incident. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Fires 4.7)
* Fire in a flammable liquid tank truck located on a grade = Highway
must be closed and apparatus placed UPHILL FROM INCIDENT.
258
Engine 100 is extinguishing a vehicle fire on the Long Island Expressway in Queens, where the posted speed limit is 50 mph. Ladder 200 is blocking the right lane to the rear of Engine 100. The Officer of Ladder 200 notes that the fastest speed expected on the roadway is 70 mph. What is the minimum distance of the furthest flare?
A) 310 feet from the rear of Engine 100
B) 550 feet from the rear of Engine 100
C) 310 feet from the rear of Ladder 200
D) 550 feet from the rear of Ladder 200
D) 550 feet from the rear of Ladder 200
(TB - Fires 8.1)
* Fastest expected speed X First digit of expected speed + 60
* 70 X 7 + 60 = 550
* Minimum distance to the furthest flare placed 550 feet from the rear of
the BLOCKING APPARATUS.
259
Gaining safe access to express highway incidents is extremely important. Which is an incorrect statement concerning access and safety procedures?
A) Never operate across a center divider.
B) Never take a partial lane.
C) Never allow traffic to come around both sides of an accident scene.
D) Never assume traffic will behave the way you expect.
A) Never operate across a center divider. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Fires 8, 9.1)
* AVOID operating across a divider.
You can operate across a divider if ABSOLUTELY NECESSARY.
260
The many hazards at motor vehicle fires require members to follow safety precautions. Which of the following is not one of them?
A) Approach the vehicle from the sides and upwind if possible, and position the line between the motor vehicle and exposures.
B) For a fire in an engine compartment where the hood is difficult to open, operate through the front grill.
C) Use a coarse spray stream when magnesium parts are on fire. This can be accomplished by removing the tip and partially opening the nozzle.
D) At van fires, the engine cover in the passenger compartment should be removed from the side after the fire is knocked down.
B) For a fire in an engine compartment where the hood is difficult to open, operate through the front grill. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Fires 8, 11.1)
* PRY SIDE OF HOOD OPEN AND OPERATE (do not operate through
grill)
261
Units are encountering hybrid vehicles much more frequently. All of the following are correct procedures to follow except which one?
A) Never cut any high voltage cables. On most of these vehicles the high voltage cables are colored Orange, although some cables are Blue.
B) Make sure the ready light is not on.
C) On a hybrid vehicle with a keyless start system, make sure the ignition is off and the key or key fob is at least 10 feet away from the vehicle.
D) Avoid contact with the high voltage cables unless the high voltage battery in the back of the vehicle has first been disconnected.
E) At a hybrid vehicle fire, always make sure that the high voltage battery case is cooled down to prevent re-ignition.
C) On a hybrid vehicle with a keyless start system, make sure the ignition is off and the key or key fob is at least 10 feet away from the vehicle. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Fires 8, 11.6)
* FIFTEEN (15) FEET AWAY
262
A lieutenant supervising the 0900 SCBA roll call inspection of the units SCBAs should correct a firefighter if she were to make which statement?
A) The SCBA will protect a member against exposure to heat and flame.
B) The SCBA will not protect against heat exhaustion
C) The SCBA is never to be used underwater
D) All members entering a confined space shall operate with SCBA until the space is deemed safe.
A) The SCBA will protect a member against exposure to heat and flame. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA 2.1)
* SCBA WILL NOT PROTECT a member against exposure to heat and
flame.
263
The lieutenant from L-115 has asked a firefighter from his unit to. Hex, whether any of the cylinders on the units apparatus are in need of a hydrostatic inspection. The firefighter asks how often the cylinders are required to be hydrostatically inspected. The answer the lieutenant should give is listed in which choice?
A) Yearly
B) Every 5 years
C) Every 7 years
D) Every 15 years
B) Every 5 years
(TB - SCBA 3.2)
* Hydrostatic test = every 5 years
* Serviceable life of the cylinder = 15 years
264
You are a covering lieutenant working a 9x6 tour in Engine 456. You notice that this company is the battalion cylinder depot. From your knowledge of Scott 4.5 cylinders utilized by the FDNY, which is the correct statement?
A) Any cylinder with a blue top should be placed OOS.
B) All spare cylinders in quarters, including those on the apparatus and spare apparatus should be inspected weekly during MUD.
C) It is permissible to utilize company or spare SCBAS when practicing drag rescue techniques.
D) Any stored cylinder found below FULL (4500 psi) shall be placed out of service, tagged and returned to MSU.
D) Any stored cylinder found below FULL (4500 psi) shall be placed out of service, tagged and returned to MSU.
(TB - SCBA 3.2)
A - Blue to cylinders for TRAINING ONLY
B - Spare cylinders in quarters and on apparatus are inspected
WEEKLY ON MONDAYS.
C - Only use cylinders that COME WITH THE EMERGENCY REMOVAL
TRAINING KIT (which are old, expired cylinders) for use when
practicing drag techniques.
265
Lieutenant Baker has been asked by a junior firefighter, at what times should the cylinders worn by the members on their SCBAS be replaced. Which is the correct response to this question?
A) When the vibralert in the facepiece activates
B) Prior to operating, whenever the remote gauge reads less than full
C) While operating, when the Heads Up Display on the regulator has one green light flashing.
D) While operating, when the remote gauge reads less than 1/2
B) Prior to operating, whenever the remote gauge reads less than full
(TB - SCBA 3.3.1)
A - Change cylinder when the vibralert in the REGULATOR actuates
B - Change cylinder when remote gauge reads less than full
C - Change cylinder when HUD on regulator has one RED LIGHT
FLASHING.
D - Change cylinder when remote gauge reads less than ONE
QUARTER (1/4)
266
The heads up display on the regulator is a visual indicator of the air supply in the cylinder. A member operating with an SCBA would know that an incorrect indicator light on their HUD can be found in which answer below?
A) Two green lights glowing - full cylinder
B) One orange light glowing - 3/4 cylinder remaining
C) One yellow light slowly flashing - 1/2 cylinder remaining
D) One red light rapidly flashing - 1/4 cylinder remaining
B) One orange light glowing - 3/4 cylinder remaining (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA 4.1.1)
2 green lights glowing = FULL CYLINDER
1 green light glowing = 3/4 CYLINDER
1 yellow light slowly flashing = 1/2 CYLINDER
1 red light rapidly flashing = 1/4 CYLINDER
267
A lieutenant should order all SCBAs within his well trained unit to be inspected at which time?
A) Prior to the 0900 and 1800 roll calls
B) Prior to each use
C) Immediately before the start of MUD
D) After each 10-75 regardless of whether the SCBA was utilized
C) Immediately before the start of MUD.
(TB - SCBA 4.1.1)
A - IMMEDIATELY AFTER 0900 and 1800 roll calls
B - AFTER each use
C - Correct (Immediately before the start of MUD)
D - If the SCBA was not used then you DONT NEED TO INSPECT
268
Lieutenant Able is informed by a firefighter that the harness assembly on one of the SCBA units has a crack and must be placed OOS. Lieutenant Able performed the following actions. Which one was incorrect?
A) He had the mask harness placed out of service and replaced wit a battalion spare.
B) He prepared an RT-2 and had the harness delivered to the Mask Service Unit.
C) He recorded the defect on the SCBA Record Card (SD-30)
D) He prepared a report to the Chief of Operations via the chain of command stating full particulars, the name of the member discovering the defect, and the name of the member who last utilized the harness.
D) He prepared a report to the Chief of Operations via the chain of command stating full particulars, the name of the member discovering the defect, and the name of the member who last utilized the harness. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA 4.1.3)
* Anytime the FACEPIECE IS DAMAGED = Prepare a report to the Chief
of Operations via the chain of command stating the full particulars, the
name of the member discovering the defect, and the name of the
member who last utilized the FACEPIECE
269
Lieutenant Baker is operating at a CO emergency when he suffered what he believes is a malfunction of his SCBAs Pressure Reducer Assembly (PRA) primary system. The only correct answer is regard to a primary system failure of an SCBA can be found in which choice?
A) There is a rapid discharge of all cylinder pressure in excess of 185 psi into the atmosphere.
B) The member should partially close his cylinder valve
C) All breathing air to the facepiece will be cut off
D) The members vibralert will actuate
D) The members vibralert will actuate
(TB - SCBA 3.6.2)
A - Failure of BOTH primary and secondary systems will cause a rapid
discharge of all pressure in excess of 185 psi into the atmosphere.
B - Close cylinder valve partially for failure in BOTH primary and
secondary systems.
C - A malfunction of the PRAs primary system will still allow breathing
air into the facepiece. (Notify officer / leave with another member)
270
The vibralert on the members facepiece will activate when cylinder pressure reaches approximately what percent of cylinder capacity?
A) 40 %
B) 33 %
C) 25 %
D) 15 %
C) 25 %
| TB - SCBA 3.8.5
271
All SCBAs utilized by members of the department are equipped with a PAK ALERT SE-7. A member incapacitated, unconscious, or unmoving for more than how many seconds will cause the PAK ALERT alarm to become active?
A) 30 seconds
B) 20 seconds
C) 12 seconds
D) 32 seconds
B) 20 seconds
(TB - SCBA 3.10.6)
12 seconds = pre alarm
20 seconds = full alarm
272
The facepiece is an integral part of the SCBA. Which statement made during a drill is inaccurate?
A) If a members facepiece is placed OOS the member should utilize a proper size spare.
B) When donning the facepiece, the top straps are tightened first, then the bottom straps.
C) The facepiece is disinfected and cleaned after each use and as part of each inspection.
D) If the voicemitter is not present place the facepiece out of service.
B) When donning the facepiece, the top straps are tightened first, then the bottom straps. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA 3.9)
* Tighten the BOTTOM STRAPS FIRST then the TOP STRAPS LAST.
273
While operating within the confines of an IDLH atmosphere, firefighters using SCBA often have to pass through narrow spaces or the SCBA itself may become entangled on an object. Which one of the following emergency SCBA procedures is incorrect?
A) The low profile maneuver is used when a firefighter becomes entangled in the rear.
B) When passing through a narrow opening such as wall studs, it is permissible to use the swim move. If the swim move cannot be performed use the reduced profile maneuver.
C) A firefighter finding it necessary to pass beneath low clearance overhead obstructions while crawling through a confined area should use the low profile maneuver.
D) During all emergency procedures it is necessary that the member's facepiece remain on.
A) The low profile maneuver is used when a firefighter becomes entangled in the rear. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA 6.1-6.4)
* The QUICK RELEASE is used when a firefighter becomes entangled
in the rear.
274
You are a ladder company lieutenant standing fast near the command post of a fourth alarm in Williamsburg. The IC has just ordered you to assist in the rescue of several trapped members and civilians within the building. From your knowledge of the FAST PAK, which statement is incorrect?
A) For trapped members or civilians, a spare SCBA can be utilized.
B) For trapped civilians, a FAST PAK other than the FAST unit's FAST PAK shall be utilized.
C) The nearest available FAST PAK can be used for a trapped member.
D) In an extreme emergency the nearest available FAST PAK should be used for members or civilians.
D) In an extreme emergency the nearest available FAST PAK should be used for members or civilians. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA 6.6.3)
* Nearest available FAST PAK should be used for MEMBERS ONLY.
FAST unit FAST PAK CANNOT BE USED ON CIVILIANS.
275
A member wishing to transmit a message via HT while using the SCBA would be incorrect to perform which action?
A) Keep the facepiece on at all times.
B) Remove the microphone from the harness clip
C) Place the microphone in the vicinity of the voicemitter and transmit his message.
D) After completing the radio transmission, replace the microphone in the harness clip.
C) Place the microphone in the vicinity of the voicemitter and transmit his message. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA 7.2)
* Place microphone DIRECTLY ON VOICEMITTER.
276
While advancing a 2 1/2" line in a commercial occupancy the lieutenant of Engine 157 comes across an immediately dangerous situation. In order to nonverbally inform the Nozzle FF of this situation, the lieutenant should perform which action?
A) Gran the Nozzle FF by his SCBA and pull the member in a safe direction.
B) Strike the Nozzle FF with four strong blows on the back and pull the member in the direction of safety.
C) Immediately push the Nozzle FF in the desired direction.
D) Provide four distinct blows on the Nozzle FFs shoulder and pull the member in the specific desired direction.
D) Provide four distinct blows on the Nozzle FFs shoulder and pull the member in the specific desired direction.
(TB - SCBA 7.4.1)
* Always four distinct blows on SHOULDER (never on back)
277
All SCBAs within a unit shall be cleaned and disinfected during roll call inspection after assignment, and after each use. A firefighter studying for lieutenant would be incorrect to believe which statement in regard to disinfection and cleaning procedures?
A) A hypochlorite solution of 1/2 cup of household chlorine bleach to one gallon of water is recommended.
B) Never increase the concentration of household bleach beyond the recommended amount.
C) Grossly contaminated SCBAs or components that cannot be cleaned or disinfected due to blood or bodily fluids shall be double clear nagged and sent to SOC for decontamination.
D) The nose cup in the facepiece need not be disassembled during cleaning.
A) A hypochlorite solution of 1/2 cup of household chlorine bleach to one gallon of water is recommended. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA 8.1 - 8.5)
* Hypochlorite solution = ONE QUARTER (1/4) cup bleach
1 Gallon of water
278
A probationary FF in Engine 33 has asked you, a firefighter attending Fire Tech, what the decals with white lettering on a colored background on each SCBAs pressure reducer assembly means. He is particularly concerned with the SCBA with the white lettering on an orange background reading 33-2. You explained that his SCBA is described in which choice below?
A) Engine 33 Nozzle
B) Ladder 33 Chauffeur
C) Battalion Spare # 2
D) Engine 33 Spare # 2
C) Battalion Spare # 2
(TB - SCBA 10.3)
ORANGE = Battalion spare
RED = Truck
BLACK = Engine
279
Which of the following choices represents an incorrect point about the SCBA?
A) An approved CBRN regulator can be identified by its orange background label. An approved back frame assembly can be identified by a CDC NIOSH sticker.
B) The SCBA should never be used under water.
C) Contact lenses may not be worn with the SCBA.
D) The serviceable life of a cylinder is 15 years. Hydrostatic testing is done every 5 years. Ten minute escape cylinders used by SOC are hydrostatically tested every 3 years.
C) Contact lenses may not be worn with the SCBA (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA)
* Contacts MAY BE WORN with the SCBA
280
A manual shutoff switch is mounted on top of the regulator assembly
to stop the flow of air into the facepiece prior to facepiece removal. If
the switch is not pressed, a full 45 minute cylinder can be depleted in
approximately how long?
A) 60 seconds
B) 2 minutes
C) 3 minutes
D) 4 minutes
D) 4 minutes
| TB - SCBA 3.8.2
281
As a sharp Fire Officer you would know that which item below is incorrect about the use of the PAK Tracker by the FAST unit?
A) Upon arrival at the scene, the FAST unit shall report in to the incident command post with their assigned PAK Tracker and bring it to their assigned position.
B) A member of the FAST unit other than the member monitoring the EFAS shall monitor the PAK Tracker.
C) The FAST units PAK Tracker must remain in the monitoring mode near the incident command post.
D) When the PAK Tracker received an alarm signal, the FAST member monitoring the PAK Tracker shall immediately notify their company officer with the identity on the LCD display (i.e. the members unit and assignment)
C) The FAST units PAK Tracker must remain in the monitoring mode near the incident command post. (INCORRECT)
(TB SCBA 8, 4.2)
* FAST units PAK Tracker must remain in monitoring mode NEAR THE
FAST UNITS ASSIGNED LOCATION.
282
You arrive as an additional engine for a fire in the cockloft of a one story Taxpayer. As you report in the the command post, the IC transmits a 2nd alarm and orders you to deploy the cockloft nozzle just inside the Taxpayer. In order to position the cockloft nozzle 6 lengths of hose will be required. Which is the correct operating pressure (normally supplied) for the cockloft nozzle from the list below?
A) 70 psi
B) 75 psi
C) 170 psi
D) 125 psi
C) 170 psi
(TB Tools 18, 1.4)
* The cockloft nozzle requires the same pressure as the 1 3/4" line.
50 psi at the nozzle and 20 psi friction loss per each length.
50 + (6 x 20) = 170 psi
283
You are the 4th due Engine at a 10-77. Upon your arrival at the command post the IC orders you to deploy the High Rise Nozzle on the floor below the fire. As you are proceeding to the deployment location you consider the following items. Which is the only correct item that you considered?
A) Supplied by a 1 3/4" hose line, the HRN will produce flows of 200-225 gpm at 50 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing.
B) Units should not use the standpipe pressure gauge
C) Putting the nozzle into operation will require the services of two engine companies.
D) As a general rule when supplying the HRN with 4 lengths of 2 1/2" hose, the pressure at the outlet gauge should be 70 psi with water flowing and 80 psi when using 3 lengths.
C) Putting the nozzle into operation will require the services of two engine companies.
(TB Tools 7, 4.3)
A - HRN supplied by 2 1/2" HOSE LINE
B - Units MUST USE the standpipe pressure gauge
C - Correct
D - 3 lengths of 2 1/2" = 70 psi
4 lengths of 2 1/2 = 80 psi
284
You are the first due truck officer at the scene of a natural gas odor. You are investigating the odor inside an unoccupied structure when you notice that your MSA ALTAIR Digital Gas Meter has a series of crosses under the COMB/EX icon. You would know to transmit which of the following to the IC?
A) A Mayday
B) An Urgent
C) A normal notification to the IC
D) None of the above
B) An Urgent
(TB Emergencies 2, Addendum 1)
Comb/EX
+++ = You are in the explosive range (only operate in this
atmosphere for life saving purposes / give an URGENT
and withdraw)
285
___________ have been issued small and extra large SCBA face pieces to be used as spares for units under their command. U its requiring a spare small or extra large facepiece shall contact their ____________.
A) Battalions / Battalion
B) Divisions / Division
C) Boroughs / Borough
D) SCBA depots / Depot
B) Divisions / Division
| TB - SCBA 3.9.2
286
Upon notification of an alleged incident of harassment, discrimination and/or retaliation of any kind by a member, the Officer on Duty (Supervisor) is required to do the following. Which choice below is incorrect?
A) Explain that complaints will be heard and issues dealt with in a timely, sensitive, confidential, but firm manner.
B) Listen objectively to the complainant. If the alleged incident is EEO related, the EEO officer shall be contacted immediately.
C) Interrogations or investigations of the alleged incident shall not be initiated, except if requested by the EEO officer or Bureau of Investigations and Trials (BITS)
D) Record an entry in the company journal indicating the actions taken and the details of the EEO complaint.
D) Record an entry in the company journal indicating the actions taken and the details of the EEO complaint. (INCORRECT)
(TB - EEO 7.2)
* NO JOURNAL OR LOG ENTRY SHALL BE MADE INDICATING THE
DETAILS OF AN EEO COMPLAINT.
287
Which is the most correct procedure while operating with elevators at building fires?
A) When it is confirmed that the fire is on the 8th floor or below, units should avoid the use of elevators.
B) Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within 5 floors of the fire floor.
C) The elevator should be stopped every seven floors (precautionary stops) to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor.
D) Not more than 5 members are to be permitted in any elevator car. This precaution is required to prevent overloading.
B) Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within 5 floors of the fire floor.
(TB Elevators 6)
A - SEVENTH (7th) FLOOR or below, take stairs
B - Correct
C - Precautionary stops every FIVE (5) FLOORS
D - No more than SIX (6) members in an elevator car
288
Which is an incorrect procedure from the list below when operating at a major indoor gas leak?
A) Shut the gas valve as close to e source as possible, and ventilate when it is safe to do so.
B) Start venting at the upper levels of the building when possible, and then work down to the first floor and out of the building.
C) Check at least 2 exposures on each side of the affected occupancies for the presence of a gas odor or leak.
D) Department fans are not intrinsically safe and should not be used to vent gas,
C) Check at least 2 exposures on each side of the affected occupancies for the presence of a gas odor or leak. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Emergencies Natural Gas 4.4)
* Check at least THREE (3) EXPOSURES on each side.
289
Concrete slabs with access manholes placed in pairs typically cover which type of vaults?
A) Natural gas vault
B) Steam vault
C) Electrical vault
D) None of the above
B) Steam vault
| TB - Emergencies Steam
290
The FDNY is accustomed to responding to many kinds of unusual incidents on a daily basis. Ice, cold water and surf rescues although uncommon, can be among our most difficult and dangerous responses. There will be times when we should not enter the water. Some factors that effect this decision will be listed below. which choice in not entirely accurate?
A) Water/weather conditions: factors such as wave height, presence of riptides, sweep tides or lightning storms.
B) Location of Victim: how far out the victim is and if they can be reached safely.
C) Skill level of the rescuer: can the rescuer reach the victim under the above circumstances or will the rescuer eventually become a victim.
D) Day and Night operations: members should not be allowed past the line of sight from the shore.
D) Day and Night operations: members should not be allowed past the line of sight from the shore. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Emergencies, Water Rescue 1, section 4)
* Members should not be allowed past the line of sight from the shore
for NIGHT OPERATIONS ONLY.
291
As a sharp fire officer in a Satellite Unit you would know that a building storing cartons with the following dimensions, 50' x 100' with a 10' ceiling and constructed using steel bar joists would require a ________ CFM Hi-Ex Foam generator in order to suppress a fire in this type of building?
A) 2,500
B) 10,000
C) 5,000
D) 7,500
B) 10,000
(TB - Foam 12.17)
Formula = 50 x 100 x 10 ➗ 5 minutes
292
Foam is a fire extinguishing agent designed for certain unusual type incidents. There are two main categories of foam in use in the FDNY - low expansion foam and high expansion foam (Hi-Ex). Which statement below does not show proper knowledge in the use of foam?
A) Low expansion foam is extremely useful on fires involving flammable and combustible liquids.
B) Low expansion foam is extremely useful on spills involving flammable and combustibles and liquids.
C) Hi-ex foam is suitable for outdoor flammable liquid fires.
D) Hi-ex foams are intended to fight fires of class "A" combustible materials in areas that are inaccessible to firefighters, such as cellars and ship holds.
C) Hi-ex foam is suitable for outdoor flammable liquid fires. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Foam 2.1)
* Hi-ex IS NOT SUITABLE for outdoor flammable liquid fires.
293
Foam concentrate is a mixture of various foam forming agents, surfactants and in some cases, anti-freeze compounds, specifically formulated to produce a mass of air filled bubbles which when mixed with water and air, will float on the surface of a fuel. A study group made the following statements regarding foam concentrate. Which one should be corrected?
A) There are a wide variety of foam concentrates. There is not any one specific foam concentrate that will solve every problem the department faces.
B) Failure to use the correct type of foam can result in failure to extinguish the fire, sudden ignition of a spill, and could cause injury or death to members operating in the vicinity.
C) Only in extreme circumstances (e.g. A fast moving gasoline fire), should members mix different types of foam concentrate in the tanks of Foam Carriers or Foam Tenders.
D) At an incident it is permissible to apply two different types of low expansion finished firefighting foams simultaneously is necessary.
C) Only in extreme circumstances (e.g. A fast moving gasoline fire), should members mix different types of foam concentrate in the tanks of Foam Carriers or Foam Tenders. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Foam 2.3.1)
* Different types of foam ARE NOT COMPATIBLE and should NEVER
be mixed for storage (i.e. In the tanks of Foam Carriers or Foam
Tenders)
294
It is imperative that the correct foam concentrate is used for the correct situation. To insure that the foam concentrates do not get mixed, they are color coded (banded) around the top. Match the foam concentrate with the color band used to identify it.
1. Fluoroprotein A) Black
2. Alcohol B) Yellow
3. Hi-Expansion C) Green
4. AFFF D) Brown
1. Fluorprotein = BROWN
2. Alcohol = GREEN (Heineken)
3. Hi-Expansion = YELLOW
4. AFFF = BLACK
(TB - Foam 2.3.1)
295
During a recent company drill, Lt. Hernandez was discussing foam operations with his engine company. Lt. Hernandez was correct when he stated that a first alarm assignment of 3 engines and 2 ladders should provide _________ gallons of foam concentrate and up to __________ foam hand lines for control.
A) 50 / 2
B) 50 / 3
C) 65 / 2
D) 65 / 3
D) 65 / 3
| TB - Foam 6.1.3
296
During MUD, the BC asked members of your engine company to each name an incident at which a foam HANDLINE used in conjunction with an eductor would be useful. In which choice should you have corrected your firefighter?
A) An oil burner with fire outside the pit
B) A car fire with a ruptured gas tank
C) A gas pump knocked over at a gas station
D) A gasoline spill that is approximately 800 square feet
D) A gasoline spill that is approximately 800 square feet. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Foam 5.2)
* Approximately SIX HUNDRED (600) SQUARE FEET.
297
The ore mixing foam solutions by FDNY units are restricted to the premixing of AFFF to hand held extinguishers and the premixing of Fluorprotein foam solution into the 500 gallon booster tank of an engine company. Which is an incorrect point about dumping the solution into the 500 gallon booster tank?
A) Four 5 gallon cans should be dumped into the booster tank, this will create a 3% solution.
B) The pumper that is being used should not be connected to a hydrant
C) This evolution should be used only when a foam eductor cannot be placed into operation.
D) The FDNY purchases foam concentrate that is used in 3% - 6% proportioning ratios. Units shall identify the foam to be used in order to set up operating equipment at the correct flow rate.
A) Four 5 gallon cans should be dumped into the booster tank, this will create a 3% solution. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Foam 4.2)
* THREE (3), Five gallon cans should be dumped into the booster tank
which will create a 3% solution.
* Four 5 gallon cans are required to be dumped into the booster tank
for a SEVEN HUNDRED AND FIFTY (750) gallon tank.
298
Captain Carter is working a 9x6 tour in Engine 207 when they are dispatched, along with Satellite 6, to a fire in a bulk oil storage facility. While enroute, the Captain is reviewing all he knows about the Satellite Unit capabilities at foam operations. In how many of the following thoughts was he correct?
1. The Satellite carries a 7,500 CFM High Expansion Foam Generator
2. They also carry approx. 32, 5 gallon cans of Hi-Ex Foam.
```
3. The 2,000 GPM pumper provides the proportioning function through
their FIMM (Foam Injecting Metering Module) when concentrate is
pumped into it.
```
4. The accompanying Satellite apparatus provides large capacity
nozzles, both 500 and 1,000 gpm aerating foam nozzles.
5. The 500 gpm model may be placed directly onto the discharge
threads of any 2 1/2" appliance, including a TL.
6. The 1,000 gpm Angus Cannon can be used on the Satellite monitor
or can be fitted with a special adapter for attachment to any TL
waterway.
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
D) 6
(TB - Foam 6.4.1)
* ALL ARE CORRECT
299
Units are operating at the scene of an aircraft emergency at LaGuardia Airport. Port Authority Crash Trucks are on scene and have knocked down the fire prior to FDNY arrival. Which point below is incorrect when operating at incidents such as this?
A) Ensuring an adequate delivery of water is a primary function of the FDNY at airport emergencies.
B) Port Authority Crash Trucks are mandated by the FAA to use AFFF, due to its fast knockdown capability of jet fuels.
C) FDNY units may be tasked with overhauling the scene which could involve entering a foam blanket that is floating on jet fuel.
D) Prior to and throughout the entry to this area, AFFF should be applied to provide maximum security to our members.
D) Prior to and throughout the entry to this area, AFFF should be applied to provide maximum security to our members. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Foam 3.6.2)
* Prior to and throughout entry to this area, A BLANKET OF AERATED
FLUOROPROTEIN OR ALCOHOL RESISTANT FLUOROPROTEIN
FOAM SHOULD BE APPLIED to provide maximum security to our
members.
300
Fluoropolydol should be used at a _____ % rate for hydrocarbons and a ________ % rate for polar solvents.
A) 4 / 8
B) 8 / 4
C) 3 / 6
D) 6 / 3
C) 3 / 6
| TB Foam
301
Probationary firefighters were discussing details of the FAST pak at the fire academy. All were reprimanded due to incorrect statements except one. Which choice is correct?
A) There is a 20 ft high pressure hose with Universal Air Coupling (UAC)
B) There is a 5 ft low pressure hose attached to a manifold with Schrader and Hansen fittings.
C) The FAST Pak has a CBRN approved regulator and facepiece
D) Units assigned to FAST Paks have a decal affixed to an apparatus compartment door with the wording "FAST PAK" to quickly identify its location. The decal has red lettering on a white background.
D) Units assigned to FAST Paks have a decal affixed to an apparatus compartment door with the wording "FAST PAK" to quickly identify its location. The decal has red lettering on a white background.
(TB - SCBA Addendum 1, 1.2)
A - High Pressure Hose with Universal Air Coupling = 5 ft long
B - Low Pressure Hose w/ Schrader and Hansen = 20 ft long
C - FAST Pak has a NON-CBRN APPROVED regulator and facepiece
302
Firefighter Jones was conducting a drill in the quarters of Ladder 100. All statements made by this experienced member contained correct information except which choice?
A) The FAST Pak is equipped with a vibra-alert and heads up display indicator.
B) During an operation with the FAST Pak, it is essential that one member of the FAST Unit is assigned to monitor the actual volume of air remaining in the portable cylinder. This member must have audible communication with the extrication team.
C) Always start an operation with a full cylinder
D) Operational time of an SCBA resupplied by a FAST Pak can vary depending on several factors.
A) The FAST Pak is equipped with a vibra-alert and heads up display indicator. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA Add 1, 4.1)
* FAST Pak NOT EQUIPPED with vibralert and HUD.
303
An experienced officer should know which procedure is listed incorrectly in regard to use of the FAST Paks Universal Air Coupling (UAC)?
A) The 5 ft high pressure hose will administer air to a member's SCBA via the UAC and will equalize air in both cylinders in approx 60 seconds.
B) If the UAC on the members SCBA is damaged, do not attempt to connect the UAC airline assembly for the FAST Pak; use one of the low pressure methods.
C) If the dust cap on the UAC of the members SCBA is missing, immediately use one of the low pressure methods.
D) If at any time during the filling process with the UAC, a leak is detected, immediately discontinue e filling procedure and supply via one of the low pressure methods.
C) If the dust cap on the UAC of the members SCBA is missing, immediately use one of the low pressure methods. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA Add 1, 5.3)
* If dust cap is missing, INSPECT the members SCBA for damage. If it
appears to be ok, continue with the high pressure UAC connection. If
it appears to be damaged in any way, discontinue, and go to a low
pressure method.
304
Members shall inspect the Facepiece, adapter and Scott CBRN CAP 1 canister before first use and?
A) Weekly
B) At least every 30 days and/or on the first day of each month
C) Daily
D) At least every 90 days and/or on the first day of each quarter.
B) At least every 30 days and/or on the first day of each month
(TB - SCBA Add 2 5.2)
305
Carbon monoxide combines with hemoglobin (an oxygen carrying constituent of the blood) _______ times more readily than oxygen does.
A) 200
B) 210
C) 2
D) 1.3
B) 210
| TB - SCBA Add 3
306
Which fire gas is identified as being less irritating than formaldehyde but depresses the central nervous system more strongly, and has a fruity odor that may be masked by other odors present?
A) Hydrogen cyanide
B) Carbon monoxide
C) Acetaldehyde
D) Phosgene
C) Acetaldehyde
(TB - SCBA Add 3)
A - Hydrogen cyanide = Almond odor
B - Carbon Monoxide = Odorless
C - Acetaldehyde = Fruity odor
D - Phosgene = Musty Hay
307
The Extended Duration SCBA (EDSCBA) will provide the wearer with up to _______ of breathable air, a significant increase over current SCBAs. This increased operational time will allow members to access areas remote from their point of entry and conduct operations, while still possessing sufficient air to exit safely.
A) 4 hours
B) 3 hours 30 minutes
C) 6 hours
D) 60 minutes
A) 4 hours
| TB - SCBA Add 4, 1.3
308
Prolonged "on air" time provided by the EDSCBA is an asset when dealing with fire and emergency operations in areas such as confined spaces, under river tunnels, sub cellars, below deck ship areas etc. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the EDSCBA, otherwise known as the "Rebreather"?
A) For penetrations less than 300 feet from the safe entry point, the Rebreather may not be needed as SOC units can deploy Supplied Air Respirators fed by hoselines from an Airsource Cart.
B) EDSCBAs when available, may be used to supplement operations during routine structural firefighting or underwater operations.
C) The addition of an ice block to the Rebreather is only required at ambient temperatures above 32 degrees F. At temperatures below 32 degrees F, the ice block should not up be used.
D) The Safety Management Team shall predetermine the duration of operations using EDSCBA prior to entry. Operational plans shall not exceed 3 hours 30 minutes, allowing sufficient exit time for the entry team to reach fresh air.
B) EDSCBAs when available, may be used to supplement operations during routine structural firefighting or underwater operations. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA Add 4, 1.4)
* EDSCBA NOT DESIGNED for routine structural firefighting or
underwater operations.
309
The EDSCBA has a warning alarm on the mask that operates when approximately ________ of operational time remains.
A) 15 min
B) 30 min
C) 60 min
D) 45 min
C) 60 min
| TB - SCBA Add 4 6.1.4
310
Which step below was incorrect as probationary Firefighter O'Neill cleaned and disinfected his SCBA?
A) He depressed the manual shut off, closed the purge knob by turning fully clockwise and sprayed a minimum of 7 full pumps of 60% Isoprpyl Alcohol into the regulator opening.
B) He made sure to wet the immediate area around the opening.
C) He turned the regulator opening face down t shake excess liquid out
D) He allowed for 10 minutes of contact time to disinfect prior to use.
A) He depressed the manual shut off, closed the purge knob by turning fully clockwise and sprayed a minimum of 7 full pumps of 60% Isoprpyl Alcohol into the regulator opening. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA Add 5, 1.5)
* SIX (6) full pumps of SEVENTY (70) PERCENT Isopropyl Alcohol
311
It is strongly recommended that the regulator be thoroughly dry before use. However, in emergency circumstances, the regulator may be used immediately after cleaning and rinsing only if all of the following requirements are satisfied except in which choice?
A) Shake all excess water out of regulator. Open SCBA cylinder valve, the open purge valve to remove any moisture from the regulator spray bar. Finally, close the purge valve.
B) Prevent exposure to temperatures below 40 degrees F while in storage and prior to use.
C) Before entering a hazardous environment, reattach regulator to facepiece and verify that the breathing apparatus is operating normally.
D) Before entering a hazardous atmosphere, verify that visibility is not impaired by fogging or condensation on the facepiece lens.
B) Prevent exposure to temperatures below 40 degrees F while in storage and prior to use. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA Add 5, 2.1)
* THIRTY TWO (32) DEGREES F (Freezing)
312
All choices below contain correct information regarding corrective lenses for facepiece spectacle kits except?
A) Any member who wishes to use corrective lenses with his Scott SCBA/APR/PAPR facepieces, MSA Millenium APR, and/or Draegar Panorama Nova facepiece shall fully complete a Spectacle Kit/Corrective Lens Request Form (MSU-1)
B) Members may wear contact lenses with their Scott SCBA/APR/PAPR facepieces and/or MSA Millenium APR.
C) Members shall submit a corrective lens prescription that is less than 2 years old and that contains their pupillary distance (PD) measurement.
D) If at the time of delivery of the completed spectacle kit, the member is in possession o another spectacle kit, the member shall arrange to return this old spectacle kit to MSU via the chain of command.
C) Members shall submit a corrective lens prescription that is less than 2 years old and that contains their pupillary distance (PD) measurement. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA Add 7, 3.10)
* Prescription less than ONE (1) YEAR OLD.
313
Members of Ladder 100 were training on the use of the Pak Tracker. Retraining was in order as one comment made by the OV firefighter was incorrect. Which statement was incorrect?
A) The Pak Tracker system serves a duel purpose. The first is its monitoring capability, and the second is its tracking capability.
B) The maximum range from an SCBA's transmitter to a Pak Tracker handheld receiver is approximately 950 feet line of sight.
C) The Pak Tracker handheld receiver is not suitable for use in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres.
D) Pak Trackers are currently carried by all ladder, rescue and squad companies.
B) The maximum range from an SCBA's transmitter to a Pak Tracker handheld receiver is approximately 950 feet line of sight. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA Add 8, 1.1)
* NINE HUNDRED (900) FEET line of sight.
314
During a post-incident review of an operation where a "MAYDAY" was transmitted, DC Smith made an incorrect statement regarding the use of the Pak Tracker. Which statement made contained incorrect information?
A) The Pak Tracker shall be brought to the ICP by the FAST Unit, rescue and squad companies.
B) A member of the FAST Unit will monitor the Pak Tracker. The rescue and squad Pak Trackers will remain at the command post as a backup should the FAST unit be deployed.
C) The member monitoring the EFAS shall also monitor the Pak Tracker
D) The Pak Tracker does not possess the ability to be automatically updated when a spare mask is put in service.
C) The member monitoring the EFAS shall also monitor the Pak Tracker. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA Add 8, 4.1)
* A member OTHER THAN THE MEMBER MONITORING EFAS shall
monitor the Pak Tracker.
315
All of the following are appropriate actions to take when the Pak Tracker received an alarm signal except?
A) The FAST member monitoring the Pak Tracker shall immediately notify their company officer with the identity on the LCD display (members unit and assignment)
B) The FAST Unit officer shall notify the IC of the activation, and attempt to contact the member to determine whether the signal is for an emergency or an inadvertent activation.
C) If the PASS activation is for a life threatening emergency, or if no contact can be established, the FAST unit officer shall immediately notify the IC with an "URGENT" transmission.
D) When the IC decides to utilize the "tracking" capability of the Pak Tracker, the Pak Trackers left at the command post by rescue and squad can be used immediately for their monitoring and identification capability.
C) If the PASS activation is for a life threatening emergency, or if no contact can be established, the FAST unit officer shall immediately notify the IC with an "URGENT" transmission. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA Add 8, 4.3)
* Give a MAYDAY, this could be a possible downed member.
316
When the Pak Tracker receives a signal from a PASS device that has been in full alarm for ________ seconds, the receiver will emit a 2 tone audible alarm, and the LCD display will show the SCBAs identity (unit and member assignment) and relative signal strength.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 30
D) 60
B) 10
| TB - SCBA Add 8, 5.2
317
Which choice contains correct information regarding the capacity of the Pak Tracker?
A) While the Pak Tracker can receive and store up to 36 SCBA identities, the LCD display screen is only large enough to display two lines of information.
B) While the Pak Tracker can receive and store up to 33 SCBA identities, the LCD display screen is only large enough to display two lines of information.
C) While the Pak Tracker can receive and store up to 33 SCBA identities, the LCD display screen is only large enough to display one line of information
D) While the Pak Tracker can receive and store up to 36 SCBA identities, the LCD display screen is only large enough to display three lines of information
A) While the Pak Tracker can receive and store up to 36 SCBA identities, the LCD display screen is only large enough to display two lines of information.
(TB - SCBA Add 8, 5.3)
* 36 IDs / 2 lines of information
318
Which choice contains incorrect information regarding the operation of the Pak Tracker?
A) The Pak Tracker receiver can only lock onto one SCBA at a time.
B) Once a Pak Tracker has locked onto the signal of one specific PASS alarm, it no longer has the ability to receive any additional PASS alarm signals.
C) A signal from an activated PASS alarm may be evident at a greater distance than the audible PASS alarm.
D) Immediately when an SCBAs PASS alarm is activated in the full alarm mode, the PASS alarm transmits a signal that can be received by the Pak Tracker handheld receiver and the Pak Tracker receiver will emit a 2 tone audible alarm and display the ID (unit and member assignment) of the SCBA.
D) Immediately when an SCBAs PASS alarm is activated in the full alarm mode, the PASS alarm transmits a signal that can be received by the Pak Tracker handheld receiver and the Pak Tracker receiver will emit a 2 tone audible alarm and display the ID (unit and member assignment) of the SCBA. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA Add 8, 5.4)
* NOT IMMEDIATELY, however after 10 seconds in full alarm, the PASS
alarm will transmit a signal that can be received by the Pak Tracker.
319
A member of a busy Queens truck company was incorrect when he made which comment regarding utilization of the Pak Tracker?
A) Pointing the Pak Tracker in the direction of the strongest relative signal and moving in that direction should lead to the activated SCBA. When the signal strength rises above the 50% level, the row of LEDs will begin to light starting with the red at the bottom, yellow in the middle, and green at the top.
B) The Pak Tracker receiver averages four readings per second. Where there are features such as doors, hallways, openings, or windows, take readings at each feature to determine where the strongest signal is coming from.
C) Use the Pak Tracker in a sweeping motion, very quickly in a horizontal direction, when the signal may be coming from a higher or lower floor in the building.
D) Always pause 3 to 4 seconds for a reading.
C) Use the Pak Tracker in a sweeping motion, very quickly in a horizontal direction, when the signal may be coming from a higher or lower floor in the building. (INCORRECT)
(TB - SCBA Add 8, 7.6)
* Use horizontally in a horizontal motion VERY SLOWLY.
If signal coming from an upper or lower floor sweep VERTICALLY.
320
All of the following situations would be considered elevator emergencies except which one?
A) A stuck elevator with trapped passengers.
B) An elevator car with passengers that is stuck with a small fire in a fluorescent light fixture on the elevator car.
C) An elevator that is stalled between floors with a person who suffered a broken finger when the elevator suddenly stopped.
D) A stuck elevator car with 5 people inside are starting to panic since they can't escape.
A) A stuck elevator with trapped passengers.
(TB - Elevators 2.4.1)
* Incident = Stuck elevator with no injuries
* Emergency = Stuck with injuries, stuck with panic, fire
321
Elevators are complex machines which due to lack of maintenance and improper use may develop problems over time. Problems arise from defective or non-functioning electrical or mechanical devices and equipment. Which problem listed below is the most frequent cause of elevator malfunction?
A) Lack of maintenance
B) Mechanical problems
C) Electrical problems
D) Overloading of the elevator car
C) Electrical problems
| TB - Elevators 3.1
322
Members of L-101 arrive at a stuck elevator in a 10 story multiple dwelling. There is only one elevator in the building and it serves all 10 floors including the basement. There is an elevator machinery room on the roof of the building on the roof of the building. L-101 has no information other than the fact that there is a stuck elevator inside the building. Which action taken by the members of L-101 was incorrect while trying to locate the elevator?
A) If available use the intercom or telephone system of the stuck car. Passengers may be able to give their approximate location. Check the floor indicator on the lobby control panel.
B) If the hoistway door has a glass panel, check the shaft before opening the door. Look for the governor ropes and counterweight. The governor rope is generally located on either side near one of the far corners of the shaft.
C) Use the floor selector in the machinery room. It indicates the exact location of the elevator car.
D) If the counterweight is located at the 4th floor, the elevator car will be found on the 5th floor.
D) If the counterweight is located at the 4th floor, the elevator car will be found on the 5th floor. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 3.2.1)
* It will be found on the 7th floor
* In a 6 story building where elevator serves the basement, if
counterweight is on the first floor, the stalled car would be on the 5th
floor.
323
Primary removal procedures are simple approaches performed without turning off the electrical power. There are two types of primary removal procedures, checking the electrical contacts and the fireman service feature. Which statement below is correct regarding primary removal procedures?
A) The order of preference during primary removal procedures is to first check the electrical contacts and if that doesn't work then try the fireman service feature.
B) During primary removal procedures, when activating the fireman service feature, the fireman service will not override the emergency stop button.
C) Fireman service should be deactivated when the car responds by returning to the lobby or if it is clear that the car is not responding.
D) Summon an elevator mechanic if primary removal procedures fail. Secondary removal procedures may not be initiated prior to the arrival of the mechanic.
C) Fireman service should be deactivated when the car responds by returning to the lobby or if it is clear that the car is not responding
(TB - Elevators 3.3)
A - There are two types of primary removal procedures. The order in
which they are tried is not important. Try all if necessary.
B - Fireman service WILL override the emergency stop button.
C - Correct
D - Secondary procedures MAY BE initiated prior to the arrival of the
elevator mechanic.
324
The telephone number of an elevator mechanic is required to be posted in the vicinity of the elevator lobby. The elevator mechanics phone number is often posted in the vicinity of the elevator machinery room near the elevator power switch. Do you agree or disagree with this statement?
A) Agree
B) Disagree
B) Disagree
(TB - Elevators 3.4.1)
* Telephone number of an elevator mechanic is required to be posted in
the MACHINERY ROOM NEAR THE ELEVATOR POWER SWITCH.
325
When discussing elevator power removal procedures during drill, L-100 made the following statements. Which one is the only correct statement?
A) The elevator machinery room may be found at the top of the shaft, bottom of the shaft, or one level above the highest floor serviced by the elevator.
B) Members should be equipped with a handie talkie and forcible entry tools. Immediately upon arrival in the elevator machinery room, shut the power to the stalled elevator car.
C) After members shut power to the elevator, they may leave the elevator machinery room to complete other required duties.
D) Each elevator is controlled by its own power switch. If any doubt exists as to which power switch controls which elevator, open as many elevator power switches as required to insure a safe operation.
D) Each elevator is controlled by its own power switch. If any doubt exists as to which power switch controls which elevator, open as many elevator power switches as required to insure a safe operation.
(TB - Elevators 3.5.1)
A - Elevator machinery room = Top of shaft
Bottom of shaft
TWO (2) lvls above highest fl. serviced
B - Shut off power to elevator WHEN DIRECTED TO DO SO.
C - After shutting off power REMAIN at the power switch to ensure it is
not restored.
326
Units are operating at a stuck occupied elevator where the side exit door is going to be used to remove the passengers. Members should know that the stuck elevator must be within ______ feet of the adjoining cars side door and that planks of ______ feet or longer should be used as a bridge between cars.
A) 3 / 6
B) 2 / 4
C) 4 / 8
D) 4 / 6
A) 3 / 6
| TB - Elevators 3.7.2
327
Lt. Jones is a newly promoted lieutenant working his first day tour in L-26. Lieutenant Jones was promoted out of an Engine company in an area with mostly private dwellings and does not have much experience with elevators. Lucky for him, the members of L-26 are very experienced in dealing with all types of elevator emergencies. While operating at a stuck elevator, Lt. Jones made the following statements during secondary removal procedures at a stuck elevator. Which is the only correct one?
A) If the elevator has a two speed system, commonly found in buildings over 15 stories, have members in the elevator shut off the power and then turn it back on. If the car is to restart it will do so within 30 seconds.
B) When using the poling method the member in the adjacent car inserts a pole or a hook between the striking post and the hoistway door and trips the lock.
C) When using the poling method, if a hinge type door is found, members should push up on the locking arm. If sliding type elevator doors are found members should depress the roller.
D) All are incorrect
B) When using the poling method the member in the adjacent car inserts a pole or a hook between the striking post and the hoistway door and trips the lock.
(TB - Elevators 3.6)
A - Two speed systems are commonly found in building over TEN (10)
stories in height. If the car is to restart it will do so within TEN (10)
seconds.
B - Correct
C - Hinge type door = DEPRESS ROLLER
Sliding type door = PUSH-UP LOCKING ARM
328
E,regency removal procedures may only be used during an emergency or when directly advised by an elevator mechanic. Which procedure regarding top hatch removal is incorrect?
A) Open a hoistway door or access panel on the floor above the stuck car. Provide adequate lighting and only allow a maximum of 2 firefighters on the roof of an elevator car.
B) When lowering a portable ladder to the elevator roof, use a straight ladder if possible. If an extension ladder is used, tie the halyard around the rungs of both sections of the ladder.
C) All members working in the shaft are to be secured with a lifesaving rope. A small portable ladder will be lowered into the elevator when the top hatch is opened.
D) Both members, equipped with Handie talkies, will enter the elevator car and these members will determine the order of removal of stuck passengers. Each person must be secured with a LSR.
D) Both members, equipped with Handie talkies, will enter the elevator car and these members will determine the order of removal of stuck passengers. Each person must be secured with a LSR. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 3.7.2 A)
* ONE MEMBER equipped with a handie talkie will enter the elevator
car. This member will determine order of removal.
329
Upon completion of forcible entry operations at a stuck elevator which of the following personnel would be responsible for warning people of the danger of an unsecured hoistway door?
1. Police
2. Maintenance personnel
3. Security
4. Floor wardens
A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) All D) None E) 2 and 3
A) 1 and 3
| TB - Elevators 3.7.3
330
If unit encounters a hinged type door during an elevator operation, where forcible entry procedures are going to be employed they should knock out the glass panel if present to breach the hoistway shaft above the hoistway door and then push down the roller. Where will the roller be located?
A) On the same side of the hinges on the shaft wall
B) On the opposite side of the hinges on the shaft wall
C) Neither A or B are correct
D) They can be found either on the same side or opposite.
B) On the opposite side of the hinges on the shaft wall.
| TB - Elevators 3.7.3 A
331
Which method used on sliding type elevator doors during forcible entry procedures is the preferred forcible entry method?
A) Rabbit tool
B) Forcible entry tools
C) Air bags
D) Hydra Ram
C) Air bags
(TB - Elevators 3.7.3 B)
* Air bags are less likely than the other methods to push the
door off its hinges or out of its track.
332
After concluding operations at an incident where a person fell into a walk pit, members made the following statements about operations in walk pits. Which statement below is incorrect?
A) Power should be shut off using the elevator power switch and entrance to the pit is made via the pit door.
B) The door to the walk in pit is not required to have an interlock switch.
C) The door to the walk in pit is opened by a regular key. Emergency elevator keys are not usable.
D) Under no circumstances shall entry into a walk in pit be made before the power to the elevator car is shut off.
D) Under no circumstances shall entry into a walk in pit be made before the power to the elevator car is shut off. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Elevators 4.2.2)
* UNDER EXTREME EMERGENCIES where immediate action is
necessary to save life, a walk in pit may be entered prior to power
removal.
333
A jump pit is usually ______ to _______ feet from the lowest landing to the base of the pit. A walk in pit is usually _______ to ________ feet from the lowest landing to the base of the pit. Access to a walk in pit is via a door located at the bottom of the shaft. This door is ___________ to have an interlock switch.
A) 4 to 6 / 6 to 10 / Required
B) 2 to 3 / 6 to 8 / Not Required
C) 4 to 6 / 6 to 10 / Not Required
A) 2 to 3 / 6 to 8 / Required
C) 4 to 6 / 6 to 10 / Not Required
| TB - Elevators 4.1.1
334
Lower limit switches prevent the car from entering the pit. These switches will be found in both jump pits and walk in pits. Buffers are devices used to stop the car from descending beyond the normal limits of elevator travel and may be filled with combustible or inflammable liquid. According to this bulletin these "buffers" will be found in?
A) Walk in pits
B) Jump pits
A) Walk in pits
| TB - Elevators 4.2.1
335
When looking at a fireman service lobby switch, one may see the words normal, fireman service and door open. Sometimes the words listed above are abbreviated using the words off, on, and DO. The word "off" is used as an abbreviation for the ___________ position on the switch plate.
A) Door open
B) Fireman service
C) Normal
D) Hold
C) Normal
(TB - Elevators page 15 picture)
* Door open = DO
* Fireman service = ON
* Normal = OFF
336
There are three types of suspended scaffold incidents which members of the FDNY respond to. From the following, indicate the one that generally would not require a fire department response.
A) An unoccupied scaffold is stalled against the side of a multiple dwelling.
B) A scaffold is swinging in the wind and striking the side of a Class E building.
C) A stalled scaffold with painters on it is stalled against the side of a 16 story MD. The workers are in no danger but cannot get off the scaffold.
D) A construction worker is hanging off his harness from an off level, severely tilted scaffold.
A) An unoccupied scaffold is stalled against the side of a multiple dwelling. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Suspended Scaffold Emergencies 2.1)
* OCCUPIED scaffold stalled alongside the side of a MD.
337
The IC at a scaffold incident would be correct if he were to make the following notifications via the department radio as conditions indicate?
A) EMS and NYPD
B) Department of Buildings Derrick and Crane Unit, Scaffold Company involved.
C) Rescue 1, Squad 1, or Squad 41 for their high angle equipment
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
(TB - Suspended Scaffold 2.2)
1. EMS and NYPD
2. Department of Buildings Derrick and Crane Unit, Scaffold Company
involved.
3. Rescue 1, Squad 1, or Squad 41 for their high angle equipment
338
Ladder 1 arrives first to the scene of an unoccupied swinging scaffold. Prior to operating, the lieutenant would be incorrect if he were to remind the member of which of the following?
A) In all instances the area should be taped off to vehicular and pedestrian traffic.
B) The taped off area marks the danger area for both members and civilians
C) The apparatus should be parked in an area clear of the taped off area.
D) In all instances members shall enter the building from an area outside of the taped off area.
D) In all instances members shall enter the building from an area outside of the taped off area. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Suspended Scaffold 3.1)
* Enter from outside the area of danger IF POSSIBLE.
339
A study group made the following statements in regard to general operational guidelines during suspended scaffold operations. Which one requires correcting?
A) If arc welding is being performed insure the unit has a proper secondary ground.
B) Prior to removing a window, seek assistance from building maintenance or a glazier
C) If necessary to dismantle the scaffold, perform this action from the exterior of the building.
D) Before leaving the scene, insure all hazardous conditions have been alleviated.
C) If necessary to dismantle the scaffold, perform this action from the exterior of the building. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Suspended Scaffold 3.3)
* If necessary to dismantle, do so from the INTERIOR of the building
340
As a last resort, which method should be utilized to remove stranded workers from an occupied stalled scaffold?
A) Through an open window
B) Removing a window
C) LSR
D) TL or Aerial Ladder
B) Removing a window
(TB Suspended Scaffold 5.3)
* Last resort is removing a window because of the damage
it causes to the building and the danger of falling glass.
341
Ladder 130 arrives at the scene of an unoccupied swinging scaffold during a windy night. Proper actions for the boss to take at this type of incident are found in all but which choice?
A) Inspect the exterior of the building for damaged or loose building/scaffold material which may have fallen
B) Survey the roof to determine if the anchoring system of the scaffold has been compromised. If any roof rigging is suspect, attempt to secure it with a utility rope.
C) After securing the scaffold, send members onto the scaffold to secure any loose material or debris.
D) The scaffold should be secured from either within the building or roof level. Avoid operating beneath the scaffold.
C) After securing the scaffold, send members onto the scaffold to secure any loose material or debris. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Suspended Scaffold 4.1)
* AT NO TIME WILL MEMBER GO OUT ONTO AN UNOCCUPIED
SCAFFOLD.
342
You are the Captain of a unit that has just arrived at the scene of an occupied stalled scaffold with two window washers on it. The workers do not appear to be in any distress. Actions you performed would include all of the following except?
A) If the scaffold has a jammed wire rope hoist, have the workers momentarily operate the hoist in an attempt to free the wire.
B) Locate a window near the workers and attempt to speak with them. If not possible, lower a FDNY HT to the workers.
C) Utilize either a TL or Aerial ladder if within reach of either.
D) Send a team to the roof to inspect the scaffold rigging system and worker safety lines. If the worker safety lines are suspect, lower the end of a LSR to the, and allow them to attach the snap hook to their safety harness.
A) If the scaffold has a jammed wire rope hoist, have the workers momentarily operate the hoist in an attempt to free the wire. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Suspended Scaffold 5.1)
* NEVER allow workers to continue to operate the hoist.
343
You are a lieutenant operating at an occupied stalled scaffold in Queens. A supervisor from the scaffold company is on scene, and believes that the stall was caused by an overheated hoist motor. In this situation, you would be correct if you were to perform which action?
A) Do not press the reset button on the hoist motor under any circumstances.
B) Allow the motor to cool for at least 15 minutes and have a worker press the reset button, and if successful have the worker operate the hoist.
C) Allow the motor to cool for at least 20 minutes and have an FDNY member press the reset button, and have the FDNY member operate the hoist if successful.
D) Immediately have an FDNY member press the reset button, then insure that a scaffold worker operates the hoist.
B) Allow the motor to cool for at least 15 minutes and have a worker press the reset button, and if successful have the worker operate the hoist.
(TB - Suspended Scaffold 5.4)
* Cool for 15 minutes
Scaffold worker will press reset button and operate hoist.
344
There are several moods for removing injured personnel from an occupied hanging or off level scaffold. From the following acceptable methods, choose the one that should be used at an incident on the 15th floor of a High Rise building where the scaffold is tilted slightly off level, two workers are trapped but in no immediate danger of falling, and there are no other immediately dangerous conditions which dictate immediate action?
A) By raising an Aerial to the side of the scaffold and having the worker climb down.
B) Via high angle equipment carried by special units of the FDNY.
C) By removing a window and hauling a trapped worker through the opening while attached to an FDNY LSR which is attached to a substantial object.
D) By hauling the injured worker through an open window while still attached to his safety line.
B) Via high angle equipment carried by special units of the FDNY.
(TB - Suspended Scaffold 5.5)
* Use high angle rope equipment unless workers are in DANGER OF
FALLING OR OTHER IMMINENTLY DANGEROUS CONDITION
DICTATES IMMEDIATE ACTION.
345
At which one of the following emergencies would it be proper for a lieutenant to instruct a probationary firefighter to turn a shutoff valve counter clockwise to shut down the flow of a product? Indicate all that are correct.
A) A leaking propane cylinder in a bar-b-que
B) A water main shutoff during a water main break
C) The shutoff valve to an oxygen cylinder
D) A fire hydrant after a fire
E) The street shutoff of a fire hydrant which your unit has been unable to stop the flow.
D) A fire hydrant after a fire
E) The street shutoff of a fire hydrant which your unit has been unable to stop the flow
(TB - Basic Emergencies 2.1)
* Hydrant and street shutoff for hydrants are shut down COUNTER
CLOCKWISE.
* Water mains, oxygen and propane cylinders are shut off
CLOCKWISE.
346
After a torrential rainstorm L-118 is called to an alarm for a flooded condition on the roof of a five story MD. In regard to flooded roofs, members of this unit would be incorrect if they had which thought?
A) If a siphon with an FDNY hose cannot be used, remove a brick at the highest point on the parapet to serve as a scupper.
B) Use as few members on the roof as possible and use a 6 foot hook to clear the blockage from the drains.
C) Keep in mind that each square foot of water over 12" deep weights 62 pounds.
D) Under no circumstances shall members ever use their hands to clear the blockage.
A) If a siphon with an FDNY hose cannot be used, remove a brick at the highest point on the parapet to serve as a scupper. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Basic Emergencies 5.1)
* Remove a brick from the LOW POINT of the parapet wall.
347
A running fire hydrant in your district is causing a flooded condition in front of a local business. The hydrant has no operating nut and must be shut down at the street shutoff. The correct action for your u it to perform, is best found in which answer?
A) The operating nut is usually found off center on the sidewalk side of the chamber.
B) It may be necessary to divert some water into the chamber after removing the cover to clear the chamber of mud and debris.
C) Place the wrench on the operating nut and turn counterclockwise 17 half turns.
D) Not until about 10 half turns will there be a noticeable decrease in the flow of water.
B) It may be necessary to divert some water into the chamber after removing the cover to clear the chamber of mud and debris.
(TB - Basic Emergencies 6.2)
A - Operating nut found on the STREET SIDE of chamber
C - Counterclockwise 17 FULL TURNS to shutoff.
D - After 17 FULL TURNS there will be a decrease in water flow.
348
Units are often called to operate at radiator steam leaks where the flow valve has been blown off. While attempting to close the flow of steam at a recent radiator incident of this type, a fire tech student had the following to say. He should be corrected by his lieutenant in which statement?
A) It may be necessary to shut down the steam at the boiler.
B) Insure that the flow handle is in the closed position.
C) The use of cotton thread, crayon, string or wax may help in obtaining a seal.
D) Wear gloves or use a towel over the main valve to divert the flow of steam while resetting the valve.
B) Insure that the flow handle is in the closed position. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Basic Emergencies 7.2)
* Flow valve in OPEM POSITION.
349
Prior to an impending hurricane, a lieutenant was drilling his members in regard to what to do when responding to the numerous expected alarms for live wires down in the street. The lieutenant would be correct if he were to make which statement?
A) If people are trapped in their car with live electrical wires, it is permissible to attempt to remove them.
B) Members may attempt to remove live electrical wires only when they present an imminent danger to life.
C) Arcing, whipping wires should be weighted down with a heavy non-conductive object, such as tires or wood.
D) Avoid metal gratings, manholes, fences, puddles and wet grass. Be aware that the ground nearby or a fallen wire may be energized.
D) Avoid metal gratings, manholes, fences, puddles and wet grass. Be aware that the ground nearby or a fallen wire may be energized.
(TB - Basic Emergencies 8.1)
A - DO NOT attempt to remove victims from a vehicle with live
electrical wires on it, until the utility company arrives and de-
energizes wires.
B - Even if life is in danger DO NOT attempt to remove live wires.
Hooks, even wooden hooks conduct electricity.
C - TAKE NO ACTION until utility company de-energizes live wires.
350
Operations at power generating stations and substations should be conducted with extreme caution. An officer would be acting incorrectly if he were to believe which statement prior to operating at an alarm of this type?
A) All electrical equipment shall be considered live and energized until verification of power removal is made by the on-site utility company representative.
B) Do not under any circumstances bring metal ladders or tools inside the gates of a generating station.
C) Members shall never enter a substation until the arrival of a power company representative.
D) Be aware of metal overhead piping, known as bus bars. They carry high voltage and/or amperage.
C) Members shall never enter a substation until the arrival of a power company representative. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Basic Emergencies 8.3)
* It is permissible to enter a substation without the utility company
representative IF HUMAN LIFE IS IN JEOPARDY.
351
A lieutenant is critiquing an incident involving a fluorescent light fixture. In which statement was he not entirely correct?
A) Fluorescent light fixtures require high voltage to function.
B) The size of the ballast will vary depending on the size of the light tubes.
C) Overheated ballasts will not contain PCB contaminated oil as all PCB contaminated ballasts have been phased out beginning in 1979.
D) If an overheated ballast is not leaking, members should use their sense of smell and touch to locate the fixture.
C) Overheated ballasts will not contain PCB contaminated oil as all PCB contaminated ballasts have been phased out beginning in 1979. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Basic Emergencies 9.1)
* Overheated ballasts WILL CONTAIN PCB CONTAMINATED OIL
352
An engine company control person has been ordered by his officer to shut off the power to an oil burner at a 10-32. The FF finds a red painted switch outside the oil burner room in the basement of the occupancy. Remote switches found at this location are usually found in which types of buildings?
A) Rowframes and Brownstones
B) Old Law Tenements
C) Private Dwellings
D) New Law Tenements
D) New Law Tenements
| TB - Basic Emergencies 10.1
353
Gas leaks (10-40 Code 1) are a common response for FDNY units. While operating at a gas leak, a member of a Bronx Ladder Company had the following thoughts. The FF should be corrected in which one?
A) To shut down the gas to the stove, insure that the butterfly valve is parallel to the gas piping.
B) Do not restore the gas service until after the leak has been shut down.
C) Spraying or brushing a liquid detergent on the area of the suspected leak may help find it.
D) Gas may leak from the ceilings around light fixtures in older buildings.
A) To shut down the gas to the stove, insure that the butterfly valve is parallel to the gas piping. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Basic Emergencies 11, 12)
* Shutoff gas at stove = valve PERPENDICULAR to gas piping
354
A FF from a Brooklyn study group made the following four statements concerning automobile accidents and emergencies. In which one did he provide incorrect information?
A) It is safer to disconnect the negative battery terminal first.
B) A leaking fuel line may be plugged with a pencil, golf tee, shaved stick, or chock. As an alternative, crimp the fuel line.
C) Use of a cable is preferred over a chain when towing a vehicle, due to its greater strength.
D) Catalytic converters can reach temperatures of 2000 degrees and cause burns to members. Use caution when operating at overturned vehicles.
C) Use of a cable is preferred over a chain when towing a vehicle, due to its greater strength. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Basic Emergencies 14.1)
* Use of CHAINS if preferable over the use of cable.
If cable snaps, it can cause serious injuries.
355
E-266 operated at the following four CFRD emergencies during a recent day tour. In which one could it be said that they were not acting accordingly?
A) A stainless steel fishing hook with the barb embedded into a patient's finger was pushed through until the barb protruded through his finger. The hook was then cut at the bard or shank and removed. No EMS was available at this incident.
B) A teenager with a non embedded fishing hook in his leg had the hook gently backed out of the leg by members of the unit.
C) An adult male had his fiancées engagement ring stuck on his finger. The finger was lubricated with soapy water and cooled to decrease swelling and assist in removal.
D) Members were attempting to cut through a woman's stainless steel ring which was stuck on her finger utilizing the ring cutter in the EMS bag.
D) Members were attempting to cut through a woman's stainless steel ring which was stuck on her finger utilizing the ring cutter in the EMS bag. (INCORRECT)
(TB - Basic Emergencies 16, 17)
* Ring cutter WILL NOT CUT stainless steel.
356
What type of locks are vice grips used on?
A) Mortise
B) Rim
C) Police
D) Padlocks
A) Mortise
| TB - Forcible Entry 4.1 C
357
What type of principle is used to open rim locks when employing the Through the Lock method?
A) Cam
B) Screwdriver
C) Hammer
D) None of the above
B) Screwdriver
| TB - Forcible Entry 4.2
358
What differentiates electronically opened security doors from manual and mechanically operated doors?
A) Chain hoist
B) Absence of any raising mechanism housing at drum level
C) The number of padlocks
D) Large metal housing covering the motor
D) Large metal housing covering the motor
| TB - Forcible Entry 10.1
