HD 201 E1 Samplex 2009 Flashcards by UPCM 2018

Group of cells in the embryonic disc or embryoblast that is related to the amniotic cavity

A. Epiblast
B. Hypoblast
C. Mesoblast
D. Endoblast

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Forms the roof of the primary yolk sac

A. Epiblast
B. Hypoblast
C. Mesoblast
D. Endoblast

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Structure/s that comprise or form the chorion

A. Extraembryonic mesoderm
B. The two layers of the trophoblast
C. Syncitiotrophoblast layer only
D. A and B

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Thickened area in the hypoblast that indicates the future cranial region of the embryo

A. Prechordal plate
B. Cloacal membrane
C. Primitive pit
D. Primitive groove

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Site of origin of the oogonia

A. Amniotic cavity
B. Chorionic cavity
C. Yolk Sac
D. Intraembryonic coelom

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The embryonic endoderm gives rise to the following EXCEPT

A. Blood vessels associated with tissues and organs
B. Epithelial linings of the respiratory passages
C. Gastrointestinal tract
D. Glandular cells of the liver and pancreas

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Future site of the anus

A. Prechordal plate
B. Oropharyngeal membrane
C. Cloacal membrane
D. Primitive pit

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Induction of the neural plate formation is dependent on

A. Development of the primitive streak
B. Formation of the secondary yolk sac
C. Formation of the notochord
D. Development of the three germ layers

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True of neural tube defects EXCEPT

A. One of the most common congenital anomalies
B. Persistence of the primitive streak
C. Results from disturbances of neurulation
D. Neural folds fail to fuse

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Contributes to the formation of the face and neck

A. Pharyngeal arch
B. Auricular Hillock
C. Mesonephric ridge
D. Somites

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True of the chorionic villi

A. It is the chorion laeve that contributes to the formation of the placenta
B. Chorionic villi cover the entire chorionic sac up to the eight week of life
C. The chorionic villi associated with the deciduas basalis degenerate and disappear
D. Secondary chorionic villi consists of a core of cytotrophoblast surrounded by syncitiotrophoblast

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Hormone secreted by the synictiotrophoblast that serves as a basis for pregnancy tests

A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. Lactogen
D. Human chorionic gonadotrophin

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Endometrial tissue accumulate glycogen and lipid in their cytoplasm in response to implantation and increasing progesterone content

A. Luteinization
B. Spermiation
C. Decidualization
D. Ovulation

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Intervillous space containing maternal blood is derived from the following structure

A. Lacuna in syncytiotrophoblast
B. Lacuna developing in cytotrophoblast
C. Eroded maternal blood vessels
D. Eroded deciduas basalis

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Structure that disappear over large areas of the placental villi with increasing age of the placenta

A. Syncitiotrophoblast
B. Cytotrophoblast
C. Connective tissue of villi
D. Endothelium of fetal capillaries

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Characteristic of the maternal surface of the placenta

A. Cobblestone appearance of the maternal surface
B. This is where the umbilical cord is attached
C. Chorionic vessels from the umbilical vessels are clearly visible
D. Covered with shiny amniotic membrane

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Superficial part of the deciduas overlying the conceptus

A. Deciduas basalis
B. Deciduas parietalis
C. Deciduas capsularis
D. All of the above

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Components of the placenta

A. Chorion frondosum
B. Decidua basalis				
C. Chorion laeve
D. A and B
E. B and C

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Chorionic villi that lacks connective tissue and fetal blood vessels

A. Primary villi
B. Secondary villi
C. Tertiary villi
D. Stem villi

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True of the placenta EXCEPT

A. Umbilical vein in the cord carries oxygen poor blood
B. Placental septa divides placenta into irregular convex areas called cotyledons
C. Placenta is thickest at its center and diminishes in thickness towards the periphery
D. Fetal surface is smooth shiny and transparent

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The acellular glycoprotein layer surrounding the primary oocyte

A. Corona radiata
B. Zona pellucida
C. Zona compacta
D. Zona basalis

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Causes completion of meiosis I

A. Fertilization
B. Cortical reaction
C. Acrosome reaction
D. Ovulation

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Causes completion of meiosis II

A. Fertilization
B. Cortical reaction
C. Acrosome reaction
D. Ovulation

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The lining epithelium of the fallopian tube

A. Simple squamous ciliated
B. Simple cuboidal ciliated
C. Simple columnar ciliated
D. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated

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The secretory stage of the menstrual cycle is characterized by which of the following A. Glands become tortuous B. Rapid regeration of the endometrium C. Coiled arteries appear only at the base of the endometrium D. Endometrium hypertrophies owing to cellular proliferation of gland cells

Which layer of the uterus is shed off during menstruation A. Parametrium B. Stratum functionalis C. Myometrium D. Stratum basalis

Which is not found in the Graafian follicle A. Corona radiata B. Granulosa layer C. Theca interna D. Germinal epithelium

Which stage of ovarian follicle development do you expect to see for the first time the theca folliculi A. Primordial B. Primary C. Secondary D. Graafian

Which structure in the ovary is essential for the endometrium to undergo its secretory phase A. Corpus luteum B. Corpus albicans C. Theca folliculi D. Ovarian follicle

During ovulation what happens to the oocyte A. Starts cleavage B. Completion of meiosis 1 and 2 C. Becomes impenetrable to sperm D. Becomes a secondary oocyte

Endocrine component of the testis A. Sertoli cell B. Leydig cell C. Spermatogonia D. Spermatocyte

Rete testis are found in the connective tissue of A. Mediastinum testis B. Septula testis C. Lobuli testis D. Tunica albuginea

Inclusion peculiar to the human Sertoli cell A. Crystal of Reinke B. Crystal of ferritin C. Crystal of Charcot-Bottcher D. Crystal of guanine

Longest stage in meiosis of the primary spermatocyte A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Telophase D. Anaphase

True of male germ cell differentiation A. Daughter cells in spermatogenesis are completely separated from each other after each cell division B. Spermatocytogenesis refers to the changes spermatids undergo to transform into mature sperms C. Sertoli cells do not participate in movement of the differentiating germ cells D. In meiosis, the spermatocyte undergo two divisions that reduce chromosome number in half

Initiates the formation of the axoneme in the sperm flagellum A. Appearance of the acrosomal granule B. Migration of centriole in posterior pole of the nucleus C. Condensation of the nucleoplasm D. Movement of cytoplasm to the posterior pole of the nucleus

The secondary spermatocytes are seldom seen in histologic preparations because A. They are very small B. Are lost in the sertoli cell C. Immediately divide to become spermatids D. Are seldom formed from primary spermatocytes

Which is lined with alternating groups of tall and low cells resulting in its irregular lumenal outline A. Rete testis B. Ductus epididymis C. Tubuli recti D. Ductuli efferentes

The walls of the vas deferens is thick primarily because it has a very prominent A. Mucosa B. Serosa C. Adventitial D. Muscle layer

Which segment of the tail of the spermatozoon has a mitochondrial sheath A. End piece B. Neck piece C. Middle piece D. Principal piece

Fetal head size at 16 weeks is A. 1/2 CRL B. 1/3 CRL C. 1/4 CRL D. 1/5 CRL

By the end of the 5th month, CRL is 15 which is A. 1/2 B. 1/3 C. 1/4 D. 1/5 of the total length of the newborn

Weight gain of the fetus is greatest at 200-300 g/week during the last A. 4 weeks B. 6 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 10 weeks

Has the largest circumference by the end of the 9th month, thus very important in the passage of the fetus in the birthcanal A. Head B. Chest C. Abdomen D. Pelvis

The fetal face looks more human by the end of this period A. 10 weeks B. 12 weeks C. 14 weeks D. 16 weeks

The fetus has a well-rounded contour during the last 2 months due to deposition of A. Visceral fat B. Subcutaneous fat C. Vernix caseosa D. Any of the above

The large swelling or herniation in the umbilical cord at 6 weeks is due to/the A. Spleen B. Liver C. Stomach D. Intestines

Quickening can be felt by most mothers during the A. 3rd month B. 4th month C. 5th month D. 6th month

There is a 90% chance of survival if the fetus is born after surfactant starts to be secreted at A. 22 weeks B. 24 weeks C. 26 weeks D. 28 weeks

The sex of the external genitalia can already be recognized by ultrasound during the A. 3rd month B. 4th month C. 5th month D. 6th month

Capacitation entails the removal of which of the following from the plasma membrane of the acrosome A. Seminal plasma proteins B. A glycoprotein coat C. Both of the above D. None of the above

The 2nd phase of fertilization is the A. Penetration of the zona pellucida B. Penetration of the corona radiata C. Metabolic activation of the oocyte D. Fusion of the oocyte and sperm plasma membranes

Allows the sperm to penetrate zona A. Capacitation B. Acrosin C. Trypsin-like substance D. Cortical lysosomal enzymes

Prevents other sperms from penetrating zona after the successful entry of one sperm A. Capacitation B. Acrosin C. Trypsin-like substance D. Cortical lysosomal enzymes

Polyspermy can lead to A. Trisomy B. Triploidy C. Monosomy D. All of the above

The oocyte finishes meiosis II A. Shortly after ovulation B. At ovulation C. After sperm penetration D. After fertilization

The following are true as a result of fertilization EXCEPT: A. Diploid number of chromosomes is restored B. Biparental inheritance does not result in variation of the human species C. Chromosomal sex of the embryo is determined D. Cleavage begins

Blastomeres at the end of day 4 lose this allowing implantation to begin A. Plasma membrane B. Nuclear membrane C. Zona pellucida D. Polar body

Implantation involves A. Endometrial action B. Trophoblastic action C. Both of the above D. None of the above

25% of spontaneous abortions A. Are due to major chromosomal abnormalities B. Are due to teratogenic agents C. Are due to unknown causes D. None of the above

Which of the following is not true of the chemical characteristics of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)? A. Glycoprotein B. Highest carbohydrate content of any human hormone C. Both alpha and beta subunits are necessary for bioactivity D. The beta subunit is functionally most like the beta subunit of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

Where is the complete molecule of hCG primarily produced? A. Syncytiotrophoblast B. Cytotrophoblast C. Chorioamnionic membrane D. Hofbauer cells

The maximum levels of hCG in maternal serum occur at what week of pregnancy? A. 4th B. 10th C. 16th D. 20th

What is the best known function of hCG? A. Maintenance of corpus luteum B. Protection against paternal antibodies C. Stimulation of human placental lactogen (hPL) secretion D. Stimulation of fetal ovaries to produce estrogen

Which of the following is not true of hPL? A. Structurally similar to growth hormone and production B. Levels peak early in gestation, then decline C. Metabolic role not completely understood D. Produced mostly by trophoblasts

What is the immediate precursor for estrogen biosynthesis in the human placenta? A. Acetate B. Cholesterol C. Progesterone D. Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate

What is the quantitatively important source of placental estrogen precursor in the human? A. Maternal adrenal gland B. Syncytiotrophoblast C. Cytotrophoblast D. Fetal adrenal gland

Which of the following is the enzyme complex responsible for converting precursor substrate to estrogen in the placenta? A. Aromatase B. Cyclooxyreductase C. Hydroxylase D. Isomerase

What is the placental enzyme that “protects” the female fetus from virilization in a pregnant woman with an androgen secreting ovarian tumor? A. Aromatase B. Sulfatase C. 17 alpha hydroxylase D. 3 beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

What is the precursor for the biosynthesis of progesterone by the placenta? A. Placental acetate B. Maternal cholesterol C. Fetal pregenolone D. Fetal cholesterol

Which of the following findings hint that the female is in the second half of the ovarian cycle? A. Thick cervical mucus B. Increased appetite C. Basal body temperature higher by 0.5 degrees D. All of the above

Which of the following hormones are responsible for pubic hair development in girls? A. Testosterone B. Estradiol C. DHEA D. Progesterone

All of the following hormones are produced in the granulose cell, EXCEPT: A. Estradiol B. Androstenedione C. Progesterone D. Testosterone

Which of the following statements is true of puberty in females? A. Menses is noted at the onset of puberty. B. The breast bud develops first. C. The growth spurt is observed after the onset of menses. D. All of the above statements are true.

A female fetus exposed to excess maternal adrenal androgens whould have the following genitalia: A. Ovaries B. Penis C. Fallopian tubes D. All of the above

Which of the following statements is true of steroidogenesis? A. Testosterone is converted from estradiol by aromatase. B. Dihydrotestosterone results from the action of 5 alpha reductase on testosterone. C. Cortisol and thyroxin share a common precursor, cholesterol. D. All of the above

Several proteins like the forward mobility protein are added to the spermatozoa to enhance motility. This takes place in the: A. Epididymis B. Vas deferens C. Prostate D. Seminal Vesicles

Capacitation occurs in the: A. Epididymis B. Cervix C. Vas deferens D. Uterus

The following substances are secreted by the Sertoli cell, EXCEPT: A. Mullerian inhibiting hormone B. Androgen binding protein C. Dihydrotestosterone D. Meiosis inhibiting factor

Which of the following substances ensures high levels of testosterone in the seminiferous tubules for optimum sperm development? A. Activin B. Meiosis inhibiting factor C. Androgen binding protein D. HCG

T/F Teratogenicity occurs only in the first trimester of pregnancy.

T/F Brain development starts from the 1st week to the 40th week of gestation

T/F Because of excellent adaptation of the fetus, maternal nutrition does not influence fetal growth

T/F Of the organ systems, the heart has the highest incidence of major malfunctions.

T/F Problems in primary neurulation will lead to gross neural tube anomalies.

T/F Problems in procencephalic cleavage are often associated with facial anomalies.

T/F Problems in neuronal proliferation will result in hydrocephalus

T/F The occult dysraphic stages results from problems in ventral induction

T/F Problems in migration are always associated with anomalies in the gyri and sulci.

T/F Problems in myelination occurs only after birth

Associated with surfactant deficiency of the lungs ``` A. Annular pancreas B. Hyaline membrane disease C. Obstructive uropathy D. Atrial septal defect E. Lung hypoplasia ```

Results from maldevelopment of the septum secundum. ``` A. Annular pancreas B. Hyaline membrane disease C. Obstructive uropathy D. Atrial septal defect E. Lung hypoplasia ```

Most common cause of demise among infants with congenital diaphragmatic hernia ``` A. Annular pancreas B. Hyaline membrane disease C. Obstructive uropathy D. Atrial septal defect E. Lung hypoplasia ```

Not an uncommon cause of intestinal obstruction ``` A. Annular pancreas B. Hyaline membrane disease C. Obstructive uropathy D. Atrial septal defect E. Lung hypoplasia ```

Results in polycystic appearance of the organ involved. ``` A. Annular pancreas B. Hyaline membrane disease C. Obstructive uropathy D. Atrial septal defect E. Lung hypoplasia ```

Birthweight

Fetuses starved early in development A. Increased odds of heart disease B. Increased fetal cortisol and blood pressure C. Increased odds of obesity and schizophrenia D. Increases the risk of hypercholesterolemia E. Increases the odds of breast cancer.

Exposure to stress during pregnancy A. Increased odds of heart disease B. Increased fetal cortisol and blood pressure C. Increased odds of obesity and schizophrenia D. Increases the risk of hypercholesterolemia E. Increases the odds of breast cancer

Exposure to increased estrogen during pregnancy A. Increased odds of heart disease B. Increased fetal cortisol and blood pressure C. Increased odds of obesity and schizophrenia D. Increases the risk of hypercholesterolemia E. Increases the odds of breast cancer.

Smaller liver mass at birth A. Increased odds of heart disease B. Increased fetal cortisol and blood pressure C. Increased odds of obesity and schizophrenia D. Increases the risk of hypercholesterolemia E. Increases the odds of breast cancer.

HD 201 E1 Samplex 2009 Flashcards

(100 cards)