HD 202 E1 Samplex 2018 Flashcards
(188 cards)
1
Q
True of properly timed cord
a. Has a significant impact of post-partum hemorrhage
b. Clamp and Cut within 1-3 seconds
c. Minimizes transfusion of blood
d. Prevents intraventricular hemorrhage among preterm infants
A
D
2
Q
True of properly timed cord clamping
a. Has a significant impact of post-partum hemorrhage
b. Clamp and Cut within 1-3 seconds
c. Minimizes transfusion of blood
d. Prevents intraventricular hemorrhage among preterm infants
A
D
3
Q
True of fetal hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve
a. Shifted to the right
b. Shifted to the left
c. Is not significantly different from that of the mother
d. Is one of the mechanisms the fetus uses to maintain adequate oxygenation
A
D
4
Q
True of oxygen margin of safety
a. Refers to fetus’ ability to increase fractional oxygen extraction
b. Shifted to the left
c. Is not significantly different from that of the mother
d. Is one of the mechanisms the fetus uses to maintain adequate oxygenation
A
A
5
Q
True of fetal breathing movements in utero
a. Allows for perfusion of fetal lungs
b. Results in 20% decrease in oxygen consumption
c. Increases muscle tone
d. Is an abnormal observation
A
B
6
Q
True of the biophysical profile for determining fetal well-being
a. Is inaccurate
b. Normal range is 7-9
c. Reactive nonstress test suggests that the fetal heart rate increases in response to fetal movement
d. NOTA
A
C
7
Q
True about Barker’s Hypothesis
a. Low birth weight would increase the incidence of adult onset diseases such as hypertension, diabetes, and cancer
b. Decreased maternal cortisol increases the risk for adult-onset hypertension
c. Increased maternal cortisol increases the risk for adult-onset hypertension
d. NOTA
A
C
8
Q
True of Neonatal resuscitation
a. Consists of series of interventions designed to provide adequate ventilation, oxygenation, and cardiac output
b. Ensure smooth transition from uterus to an extrauterine environment
c. Resuscitation of depressed infants in the first few minutes of life may affect the quality of person’s life
d. AOTA
A
D
9
Q
Neonates source of fuel for energy
a. Oxygen
b. Glucose
c. Both
d. Neither
A
C
10
Q
ABCs of resuscitation
a. Airway, bag +mask, circulation
b. Airway, breathing, chest compression
c. Airway, bag + mask, chest compression
d. Airway, breathing, circulation
A
D
11
Q
True of Thermoregulation
a. Accomplish prior to resuscitation
b. Is important to prevent fatal hypothermia
c. Pre heated radiant warmer
d. AOTA
A
D
12
Q
Chest compressions are initiated when:
a. HR is <80 despite adequate bag + mask ventilation
A
A
13
Q
Initial assessment of neonate includes:
a. Determining if amniotic fluid is meconium stained
b. Determining if infant is breathing or crying
c. Determining if infant is of timely gestation
d. AOTA
A
D
14
Q
What does “Ventilation” is the key” mean?
a. The need to bag and ventilate all babies
b. Ventilation is the key to a better life
c. Important that air is breathed into the baby’s lungs
d. NOTA
A
C
15
Q
True of Philippine mortality statistics
a. The Philippines is one of 42 countries that comprise 90% of maternal deaths
b. Reaching the MDG for maternal mortality means decreasing it to a ratio by 2015
c. Lowering maternal mortality means addressing neonatal mortality
d. AOTA
A
D
16
Q
Core steps of essential intrapartum & neonatal care
a. Rapid initial assessment
b. Prevention of hypothermia
c. Assessment of gasping or not breathin
d. Non-separation of baby and mother prior to completion of first breastfeeding
A
D
17
Q
Which about sexual differentiation is true?
a. SRY gene is found in Chromosome Y
b. Genes for androgen receptors are found in chromosome X
c. Autosomal chromosomes don’t play a role in sexual differentiation
d. AOTA
e. A and B only
A
E
18
Q
Genetic sex is determined by:
a. X or Y chromosome
b. Presence of internal genitalia
c. External genitalia
d. Parental social cues
A
A
19
Q
hCG plays a role in:
a. testicular descent
b. sexual libido
c. steroidogenesis
d. AOTA
A
D
20
Q
A female exposed to excess maternal adrenal androgens after the 20th week of fetal development will have?
a. Testis
b. Vagina
c. Ambiguous external genitalia
d. AOTA
A
C
21
Q
Major site of degradation of sex steroids:
a. brain
b. kidney
c. liver
d. heart
A
C
22
Q
Prior to puberty, the expected profile of a 7-year old child is:
a. Low FSH, low LH, low estradiol
b. Low FSH, low LH, high estradiol
c. High FSH, high LH, low estradiol
d. high FSH, high LH, high estradiol
A
A
23
Q
Which of the following is the correct sequence of female pubertal development:
a. Thelarche, Adrelarche, growth spurth, Menarch
b. Adrelarche, growth spurt, thelarche, menarche
c. Growth spurt, Menarch, Thelarche, Adrelarche
d. Menarche, Thelarche, Adrelarche, Growth Spurt
A
A
24
Q
Which of the following is a characteristic of post-menopausal women?
a. Low estradiol, high FSH, High LH
b. Low estradiol, low FSH, low, LH
c. Normal estradiol, high FSH, high LH
d. Normal estradiol, low FSH, low LH
A
A
25
All of the following hormones attached to a membrane receptor except:
a. LH
b. FSH
c. GnRH
d. Estradiol
D
26
Which of the following findings hint that the female is in the second half of the ovarian cycle
a. beady cervical mucus
b. increased basal body temperature
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
C
27
Dr. Buenaluz fears that she is nearing menopause. She may expect the following changes except:
a. Increase in transport globulins
b. Increase in LDL
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
A
28
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in male pubertal growth
a. Testicular growth, pubic hair, growth spurt, penile enlargement
b. Penile enlargement, pubic hair, growth spurt, testicular growth
c. Testicular growth, pubic hair, penile enlargement, growth spurt
d. Testicular growth, penile enlargement, pubic hair, growth spurt
C
29
What is the normal adult testicular size:
a. 2cm long X 2cm wide
b. 2cm long X 3cm wide
c. 5cm long X 3cm wide
d. 7cm long X 5cm wide
C
30
The following are secreted by sertoli cells except:
a. Estradiol
b. Acid phosphatase
c. Androgen binding protein
d. Meiosis inhibiting factor
B
31
Which of the following substances ensures a high concentration of testosterone in the seminiferious tubule
a. Acid phosphatase
b. Androgen binding Protein
c. Anti-meiotic Hormone
d. Inhibin
B
32
Injecting male sterior hormones in preparation for a body building competition may result in
a. Testicular shrinkage
b. Muscle hypertrophy
c. Infertility
d. AOTA
D
33
Movement of sperm cells from the seminiferous tubule is due to the
a. Contraction of tubule
b. Relaxation of tubule to allow flow
c. Ciliary movement in the tubule
d. NOTA
A
34
Organ responsible for forming the second fraction of ejaculate
a. Prostate
b. Vas Deferens
c. Epididymis
d. Seminal Vesicle
B
35
Scalloped Appearance
a. Rete Testis
b. Tubuli Recti
c. Ductuli Efferentes
d. Epididymis
C
36
Nutrition for the sperm cell as they travel along the reproductive tract comes from
a. 1st fraction
b. 2nd fraction
c. 3rd fraction
d. 4th fraction
C
37
On seminanalysis, patient was noted to have sperm with irregular shape. In which phase of spermatogenises could this have resulted from
a. Golgi Phase
b. Cap Phase
c. Maturation Phase
d. NOTA
A
38
The midpiece of the sperm cell is related to which organelle
a. RER
b. Nucleus
c. Golgi Apparatus
d. Mitochondria
D
39
Which of the following cases show a patient most susceptible to infertility
a. Construction worker who regularly works with machinery
b. 24 year old social drinker
c. Retired 60year old with no chronic diseases
d. NOTA
A
40
The extraembryonic mesoderm are formed from:
a. Primary yolk sac
b. Secondary yolk sac
c. Amniotic cavity
d. Chorionic cavity
A
41
Localized thickening of hypoblast
a. Prechordal plate
b. Cloacal plate
c. Oropharyngeal membrane
d. Bucopharyngeal membrane
A
42
Epiblast is associated with
a. Primary yolk sac
b. Secondary yolk sac
c. Amniotic cavity
d. Chorionic cavity
C
43
Process by which epiblast gives rise to 3 germ layers
a. Gastrulation
b. Neurulation
c. Involution
d. Blastulation
A
44
Allantois is a diverticulum of the
a. Primary yolk sac
b. Definitive yolk sac
c. Amniotic Cavity
d. Chorionic Cavity
B
45
Chorionic villi associated with decidua that are compressed:
a. Decidua basalis
b. Decidua capsularis
c. Decidua parietalis
d. Decidua vera
B
46
Structure in placenta membrane that disappears at term
a. Syncytiotrophoblast
b. Mononucleated layer of cells
c. Villi
d. Chorionic plate
B
47
As the zygote invades the endometrium during implantation
a. The endometrial cells accumulate glycogen and nutrients
b. The endometrial cells atrophy
c. The endometrial cells release inhibitory granules
d. The endometrial cells do nothing
A
48
Primary yolk sac develops from the
a. Extracoelomic space
b. Amniotic cavity
c. Chorionic Cavity
d. Blastocoele
D
49
Somites form from the:
a. Paraxial mesoderm
b. Intermediate mesoderm
c. Lateral plate mesoderm
d. AOTA
A
50
Which is the origin of the three germ layers?
a. Epiblast
b. Hypoblast
c. Yolk sac
d. Trophoblast
A
51
Primordium of intervillous space
a. Lacunae of cytotrophoblast
b. Lacunae of syncytiotrophoblast
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
B
52
Ultrasound can detect a mass at the coccygeal area of the fetus. What is the probable origin?
a. Allantois
b. Ileal diverticulum
c. Primitive Streak
d. NOTA
C
53
What lines the extraembryonic coelom?
a. Amniotic membrane
b. Heusser’s membrane
c. Exocoelomic membrane
d. Chorionic membrane
D
54
Between which two membranes does the extraembryonic mesoderm lie?
a. Epiblast and Hypoblast
b. Cytotrophoblast and syncitiotrophoblast
c. Exocoelomic and syncitiotrophoblast
d. Cytotrophoblast and chorionic membrane
D
55
Characteristics or one-week old blastocyst
a. Has a single layer of trophoblast and at embryonic pole
b. Developed amniotic cavity
c. Attached to the uterine endometrium
d. Surrounded by a degenerating zona pellucida
C
56
Early Stage of Cleavage are characterized by
a. Increase in number of cells inside the zona pellucida
b. Increase in size of cells inside the zona pellucida
c. Increase in size and number of cells inside the zona pellucida
d. Formation of zona pellucida
A
57
Development of primary oocytes occur
a. Before birth
b. At birth
c. During puberty
d. During pregnancy
A
58
Completion of meiosis I
a. Ovulation
b. Fertilization
c. During puberty
d. Before birth
A
59
pending sign of ovulation
a. Macula pellucida
b. Macula densa
c. Fovea
d. NOTA
A
60
A male cannot breastfeed because of
a. No secretory alveoli
b. No ducts
c. No breast fat
d. No progesterone and oxytocin
A
61
Mammary gland secretory alveoli appear when
a. Pregnancy occurs
b. Puberty
c. Baby sucks on the nipple
d. NOTA
A
62
What type of gland is the mammary gland?
a. Simple tubular
b. Compound tubular
c. Tubular-acinar
d. Simple coiled
C
63
A polar body forms
a. Before fertilization
b. After fertilization
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
C
64
The antrum is a characteristic of:
a. Secondary Follicle
b. Graafian Follicle
c. Primary Follicle
d. AOTA
e. A and B only
E
65
What area in the female experiences the greatest change in the menstrual cycle?
a. Endometrium
b. Ovary
c. Vagina
d. Cervix
A
66
Within the ovary, primordial follicles begin their development
a. During prenatal period
b. At birth
c. At puberty
d. During pregnancy
A
67
Epithelium present in the female reproductive tract
a. Simple columnar
b. Stratified squamous
c. Stratified columnar
d. Only A, and B
e. A, B and C
D
68
Which phase of the menstrual cycle has tubular endometrial glands
a. Follicular
b. Menstrual
c. Luteal
d. Only A, and B
A
69
Increased thickness of the endometrium during the follicular phase is due to:
a. Cellular proliferation
b. Cellular hypertrophy
c. Nonessential cell death
d. A and B only
A
70
What is not found in a graafian follicle?
a. Corona radiate
b. Germinal epithelium
c. Theca Interna
d. Granulosa cells
B
71
The plasma level of certain steroid hormones are increased during pregnancy, elevation of the blood levels of which of the following is a result of decreased clearance due to an increase in binding protein
a. cortisol
b. progesterone
c. estrogen
d. oxytocin
A
72
Hemochorion nature of placenta results in a directional secretion of steroids such that
a. 85% or more of placental progesterone enters maternal circulation
b. 75% or more of placental progesterone enters maternal circulation
c. 65% or more of placental progesterone enters maternal circulation
d. NOTA
A
73
In which condition is fetal estrogen production increased?
a. Anencephaly
b. Fetal adrenal hypoplasia
c. fetal erythroblastosis
d. NOTA
C
74
Low maternal hCG is associated with
a. Anencephaly
b. ectopic pregnancy
c. fetal erythroblastosis
d. NOTA
B
75
Which is a biologic function of hPL
a. promotes maternal lipolysis
b. inhibits insulin secretion
c. promotes maternal lipogenesis
d. NOTA
A
76
Which placental hormone acts to prevent pituitary FSH, preventing ovulation
a. inhibin
b. activin
c. progestin
d. NOTA
A
77
Slow block to polyspermy
a. release of cortical lysozomal enzymes
b. depolarization causing repulsion of sperms
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
A
78
Blastocyst needs to lose this structure
a. Corona radiata
b. zona pellucida
c. corona radiate
d. cumulus oophorus
B
79
IUD interferes with implantation by
a. causing a local inflammatory response
b. destroying the ovum before implantation
c. physically blocking the ovum in the fallopian tube
d. NOTA
A
80
Sperm gain ability to penetrate the corona after
a. priming
b. capacitation
c. meiosis II
d. ejaculation
B
81
An ectopic pregnancy can be ruled out by the presence of
a. Elevated hCG levels in the blood
b. Gestational sac
c. Elevated hCG levels in urine
d. NOTA
B
82
The definitive oocyte with its haploid number of chromosomes is formed after:
a. Sperm penetrates the ovum’s cytoplasm
b. The first mitotic division
c. Sperm penetrates the corona
d. NOTA
A
83
Protein important during phase 3 of fertilization
a. Egg Integrin
b. Sperm Disintegrin
c. Alpha Fertilin
d. AOTA
D
84
Invading blastocyst starts to penetrate the endometrium because of the
a. Chorionic Plate
b. Syncytiotrophoblast
c. Cytotrophoblast
d. Extraembryonic mesoderm
B
85
Implantation is completed when it has invaded
a. Endometrium
b. Inner third of myometrium
c. Maternal blood vessels
d. AOTA
D
86
Fetal growth of 200-300 g/week
a. 3rd month
b. 2nd month
c. 5th month
d. last 4 weeks
D
87
Estimation of gestation age during the 7th to 14th weeks is done using
a. CRL
b. CHL
c. BPL
d. FL
A
88
Fetal length at 16 weeks
a. ½ CRL
b. 1/3 CRL
c. ½ CHL
d. ¼ CHL
B
89
Period of rapid brain development
a. 4th month
b. 5th month
c. 7th month
d. 8th month
C
90
prenatal growth is mainly influenced by
a. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
b. Growth Hormone (GH)
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
C
91
Half of birth length
```
A. 12 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 28 weeks
E. 32 weeks
```
B
92
Bone marrow site of erythropoiesis
```
A. 12 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 28 weeks
E. 32 weeks
```
D
93
Lung surfactant
```
A. 12 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 28 weeks
E. 32 weeks
```
C
94
Quickening
```
A. 12 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 28 weeks
E. 32 weeks
```
B
95
Human looking face
```
A. 12 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 28 weeks
E. 32 weeks
```
A
96
3. True of fetal hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve
a. Shifted to the right
b. Shifted to the left
c. Is not significantly different from that of the mother
d. Is one of the mechanisms the fetus uses to maintain adequate oxygenation
D
97
4. True of oxygen margin of safety
a. Refers to fetus’ ability to increase fractional oxygen extraction
b. Shifted to the left
c. Is not significantly different from that of the mother
d. Is one of the mechanisms the fetus uses to maintain adequate oxygenation
A
98
5. True of fetal breathing movements in utero
a. Allows for perfusion of fetal lungs
b. Results in 20% decrease in oxygen consumption
c. Increases muscle tone
d. Is an abnormal observation
B
99
6. True of the biophysical profile for determining fetal well-being
a. Is inaccurate
b. Normal range is 7-9
c. Reactive nonstress test suggests that the fetal heart rate increases in response to fetal movement
d. NOTA
C
100
7. True about Barker’s Hypothesis
a. Low birth weight would increase the incidence of adult onset diseases such as hypertension, diabetes, and cancer
b. Decreased maternal cortisol increases the risk for adult-onset hypertension
c. Increased maternal cortisol increases the risk for adult-onset hypertension
d. NOTA
C
101
8. True of Neonatal resuscitation
a. Consists of series of interventions designed to provide adequate ventilation, oxygenation, and cardiac output
b. Ensure smooth transition from uterus to an extrauterine environment
c. Resuscitation of depressed infants in the first few minutes of life may affect the quality of person’s life
d. AOTA
D
102
1. Neonates source of fuel for energy
a. Oxygen
b. Glucose
c. Both
d. Neither
C
103
9. ABCs of resuscitation
a. Airway, bag +mask, circulation
b. Airway, breathing, chest compression
c. Airway, bag + mask, chest compression
d. Airway, breathing, circulation
D
104
10. True of Thermoregulation
a. Accomplish prior to resuscitation
b. Is important to prevent fatal hypothermia
c. Pre heated radiant warmer
d. AOTA
D
105
11. Chest compressions are initiated when:
| a. HR is <80 despite adequate bag + mask ventilation
A
106
12. Initial assessment of neonate includes:
a. Determining if amniotic fluid is meconium stained
b. Determining if infant is breathing or crying
c. Determining if infant is of timely gestation
d. AOTA
D
107
13. What does “Ventilation” is the key” mean?
a. The need to bag and ventilate all babies
b. Ventilation is the key to a better life
c. Important that air is breathed into the baby’s lungs
d. NOTA
C
108
14. True of Philippine mortality statistics
a. The Philippines is one of 42 countries that comprise 90% of maternal deaths
b. Reaching the MDG for maternal mortality means decreasing it to a ratio by 2015
c. Lowering maternal mortality means addressing neonatal mortality
d. AOTA
D
109
15. Core steps of essential intrapartum & neonatal care
a. Rapid initial assessment
b. Prevention of hypothermia
c. Assessment of gasping or not breathin
d. Non-separation of baby and mother prior to completion of first breastfeeding
D
110
16. Which about sexual differentiation is true?
a. SRY gene is found in Chromosome Y
b. Genes for androgen receptors are found in chromosome X
c. Autosomal chromosomes don’t play a role in sexual differentiation
d. AOTA
e. A and B only
E
111
18. Genetic sex is determined by:
a. X or Y chromosome
b. Presence of internal genitalia
c. External genitalia
d. Parental social cues
A
112
19. hCG plays a role in:
a. testicular descent
b. sexual libido
c. steroidogenesis
d. AOTA
D
113
21. A female exposed to excess maternal adrenal androgens after the 20th week of fetal development will have?
a. Testis
b. Vagina
c. Ambiguous external genitalia
d. AOTA
C
114
22. Major site of degradation of sex steroids:
a. Brain
b. kidney
c. liver
d. heart
C
115
23. Prior to puberty, the expected profile of a 7-year old child is:
a. Low FSH, low LH, low estradiol
b. Low FSH, low LH, high estradiol
c. High FSH, high LH, low estradiol
d. high FSH, high LH, high estradiol
A
116
24. Which of the following is the correct sequence of female pubertal development:
a. Thelarche, Adrelarche, growth spurth, Menarch
b. Adrelarche, growth spurt, thelarche, menarche
c. Growth spurt, Menarch, Thelarche, Adrelarche
d. Menarche, Thelarche, Adrelarche, Growth Spurt
A
117
25. Which of the following is a characteristic of post-menopausal women?
a. Low estradiol, high FSH, High LH
b. Low estradiol, low FSH, low, LH
c. Normal estradiol, high FSH, high LH
d. Normal estradiol, low FSH, low LH
A
118
26. All of the following hormones attached to a membrane receptor except:
a. LH
b. FSH
c. GnRH
d. Estradiol
D
119
27. Which of the following findings hint that the female is in the second half of the ovarian cycle
a. beady cervical mucus
b. increased basal body temperature
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
C
120
29. Dr. Buenaluz fears that she is nearing menopause. She may expect the following changes except:
a. Increase in transport globulins
b. Increase in LDL
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
A
121
30. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in male pubertal growth
a. Testicular growth, pubic hair, growth spurt, penile enlargement
b. Penile enlargement, pubic hair, growth spurt, testicular growth
c. Testicular growth, pubic hair, penile enlargement, growth spurt
d. Testicular growth, penile enlargement, pubic hair, growth spurt
C
122
31. What is the normal adult testicular size:
a. 2cm long X2 cm wide
b. 2cm X3 cm
c. 5cm X3cm
d. 7cm X 5cm
C
123
32. The following are secreted by sertoli cells except:
a. Estradiol
b. Acid phosphatase
c. Androgen binding protein
d. Meiosis inhibiting factor
B
124
33. Which of the following substances ensures a high concentration of testosterone in the seminiferious tubule
a. Acid phosphatase
b. Androgen binding Protein
c. Anti-meiotic Hormone
d. Inhibin
B
125
34. Injecting male sterior hormones in preparation for a body building competition may result in
a. Testicular shrinkage
b. Muscle hypertrophy
c. Infertility
d. AOTA
D
126
36. Movement of sperm cells from the seminiferous tubule is due to the
a. Contraction of tubule
b. Relaxation of tubule to allow flow
c. Ciliary movement in the tubule
d. NOTA
A
127
40. Organ responsible for forming the second fraction of ejaculate
a. Prostate
b. Vas Deferens
c. Epididymis
d. Seminal Vesicle
B
128
41. Scalloped Appearance
a. Rete Testis
b. Tubuli Recti
c. Ductuli Efferentes
d. Epididymis
C
129
42. Nutrition for the sperm cell as they travel along the reproductive tract comes from
a. 1st fraction
b. 2nd fraction
c. 3rd fraction
d. NOTA
C
130
43. On seminanalysis, patient was noted to have sperm with irregular shape. In which phase of spermatogenises could this have resulted from
a. Golgi Phase
b. Cap Phase
c. Maturation Phase
d. NOTA
A
131
44. The midpiece of the sperm cell is related to which organelle
a. RER
b. Nucleus
c. Golgi Apparatus
d. Mitochondria
D
132
45. Which of the following cases show a patient most susceptible to infertility
a. Construction worker who regularly works with machinery
b. 24 year old social drinker
c. Retired 60year old with no chronic diseases
d. NOTA
A
133
46. The extraembryonic mesoderm are formed from:
a. Primary yolk sac
b. Secondary yolk sac
c. Amniotic cavity
d. Chorionic cavity
A
134
47. Localized thickening of hypoblast
a. Prechordal plate
b. Cloacal plate
c. Oropharyngeal membrane
d. Bucopharyngeal membrane
A
135
48. Epiblast is associated with
a. Primary yolk sac
b. Secondary yolk sac
c. Amniotic cavity
d. Chorionic cavity
C
136
49. Process by which epiblast gives rise to 3 germ layers
a. Gastrulation
b. Neurulation
c. Involution
d. Blastulation
A
137
50. Allantois is a diverticulum of the
a. Primary yolk sac
b. Definitive yolk sac
c. Amniotic Cavity
d. Chorionic Cavity
B
138
51. Chorionic villi associated with decidua that are compressed:
a. Decidua basalis
b. Decidua capsularis
c. Decidua parietalis
d. Decidua vera
B
139
52. Structure in placenta membrane that disappears at term
a. Syncytiotrophoblast
b. Mononucleated layer of cells
c. Villi
d. Chorionic plate
B
140
53. As the zygote invades the endometrium during implantation
a. The endometrial cells accumulate glycogen and nutrients
b. The endometrial cells atrophy
c. The endometrial cells release inhibitory granules
d. The endometrial cells do nothing
A
141
54. Primary yolk sac develops from the
a. Extracoelomic space
b. Amniotic cavity
c. Chorionic Cavity
d. Blastocoele
D
142
56. Somites form from the:
a. Paraxial mesoderm
b. Intermediate mesoderm
c. Lateral plate mesoderm
d. AOTA
A
143
57. Which is the origin of the three germ layers?
a. Epiblast
b. Hypoblast
c. Yolk sac
d. Trophoblast
A
144
59. Primordium of intervillous space
a. Lacunae of cytotrophoblast
b. Lacunae of syncytiotrophoblast
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
B
145
61. Ultrasound can detect a mass at the coccygeal area of the fetus. What is the probable origin?
a. Allantois
b. Ileal diverticulum
c. Primitive Streak
d. NOTA
C
146
62. What lines the extraembryonic coelom?
a. Amniotic membrane
b. Heusser’s
c. Exocoelomic membrane
d. Chorionic Membrane
D
147
63. Between which two membranes does the extraembryonic mesoderm lie?
a. Epiblast and Hypoblast
b. Cytotrophoblast and syncitiotrophoblast
c. Exocoelomic and syncitiotrophoblast
d. Cytotrophoblast and chorionic membrane
D
148
64. Characteristics or one-week old blastocyst
a. Has a single layer of trophoblast and at embryonic pole
b. Developed amniotic cavity
c. Attached to the uterine endometrium
d. Surrounded by a degenerating zona pellucida
C
149
65. Early Stage of Cleavage are characterized by
a. Increase in number of cells inside the zona pellucida
b. Increase in size of cells inside the zona pellucida
c. Increase in size and number of cells inside the zona pellucida
d. Formation of zona pellucida
A
150
1. Development of primary oocytes occur
a. Before birth
b. At birth
c. During puberty
d. During pregnancy
A
151
67. Completion of meiosis I
a. Ovulation
b. Fertilization
c. During puberty
d. Before birth
A
152
68. pending sign of ovulation
a. Macula pellucida
b. Macula densa
c. Fovea
d. NOTA
A
153
69. A male cannot breastfeed because of
a. No secretory alveoli
b. No ducts
c. No breast fat
d. No progesterone and oxytocin
A
154
70. Mammary gland secretory alveoli appear when
a. Pregnancy occurs
b. Puberty
c. Baby sucks on the nipple
d. NOTA
A
155
71. What type of gland is the mammary gland?
a. Simple tubular
b. Compound tubular
c. Tubular-acinar
d. Simple coiled
C
156
72. A polar body forms
a. Before fertilization
b. After fertilization
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
C
157
73. The antrum is a characteristic of:
a. Secondary Follicle
b. Graafian Follicle
c. Primary Follicle
d. AOTA
e. A and B only
E
158
75. What area in the female experiences the greatest change in the menstrual cycle?
a. Endometrium
b. Ovary
c. Vagina
d. Cervix
A
159
76. Within the ovary, primordial follicles begin their development
a. During prenatal period
b. At birth
c. At puberty
d. During pregnancy
A
160
77. Epithelium present in the female reproductive tract
a. Simple columnar
b. Stratified squamous
c. Stratified columnar
d. Only A, and B
e. A, B and C
D
161
78. Which phase of the menstrual cycle has tubular endometrial glands
a. Follicular
b. Menstrual
c. Luteal
d. Only A, and B
A
162
79. Increased thickness of the endometrium during the follicular phase is due to:
a. Cellular proliferation
b. Cellular hypertrophy
c. Nonessential cell death
d. A and B only
A
163
80. What is not found in a graafian follicle?
a. Corona radiate
b. Germinal epithelium
c. Theca Interna
d. Granulosa cells
B
164
81. The plasma level of certain steroid hormones are increased during pregnancy, elevation of the blood levels of which of the following is a result of decreased clearance due to an increase in binding protein
a. cortisol
b. progesterone
c. estrogen
d. oxytocin
A
165
84. Hemochorion nature of placenta results in a directional secretion of steroids such that
a. 85% or more of placental progesterone enters maternal circulation
b. 75% or more of placental progesterone enters maternal circulation
c. 65% or more of placental progesterone enters maternal circulation
d. NOTA
A
166
85. In which condition is fetal estrogen production increased?
a. Anencephaly
b. Fetal adrenal hypoplasia
c. fetal erythroblastosis
d. NOTA
C
167
87. Low maternal hCG is associated with
a. Anencephaly
b. ectopic pregnancy
c. fetal erythroblastosis
d. NOTA
B
168
1. Which is a biologic function of hPL
a. promotes maternal lipolysis
b. inhibits insulin secretion
c. promotes maternal lipogenesis
d. NOTA
A
169
89. Which placental hormone acts to prevent pituitary FSH, preventing ovulation
a. Inhibin
b. activin
c. progestin
d. NOTA
A
170
91. Slow block to polyspermy
a. release of cortical lysozomal enzymes
b. depolarization causing repulsion of sperms
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
A
171
93. Blastocyst needs to lose this structure
a. Corona radiata
b. zona pellucida
c. corona radiate
d. cumulus oophorus
B
172
94. IUD interferes with implantation by
a. causing a local inflammatory response
b. destroying the ovum before implantation
c. physically blocking the ovum in the fallopian tube
d. NOTA
A
173
95. Sperm gain ability to penetrate the corona after
a. priming
b. capacitation
c. meiosis II
d. ejaculation
B
174
1. An ectopic pregnancy can be ruled out by the presence of
a. Elevated hCG levels in the blood
b. Gestational sac
c. Elevated hCG levels in urine
d. NOTA
B
175
96. The definitive oocyte with its haploid number of chromosomes is formed after:
a. Sperm penetrates the ovum’s cytoplasm
b. The first mitotic division
c. Sperm penetrates the corona
d. NOTA
A
176
97. Protein important during phase 3 of fertilization
a. Egg Integrin
b. Sperm Disintegrin
c. Alpha Fertilin
d. AOTA
D
177
98. Invading blastocyst starts to penetrate the endometrium because of the
a. Chorionic Plate
b. Syncytiotrophoblast
c. Cytotrophoblast
d. Extraembryonic mesoderm
B
178
99. Implantation is completed when it has invaded
a. Endometrium
b. Inner third of myometrium
c. Maternal blood vessels
d. AOTA
D
179
100. Fetal growth of 200-300 g/week
a. 3rd month
b. 2nd month
c. 5th month
d. last 4 weeks
D
180
101. Estimation of gestation age during the 7th to 14th weeks is done using
a. CRL
b. CHL
c. BPL
d. FL
A
181
102. Fetal length at 16 weeks
a. ½ CRL
b. 1/3 CRL
c. ½ CHL
d. ¼ CHL
B
182
103. Period of rapid brain development
a. 4th month
b. 5th month
c. 7th month
d. 8th month
C
183
104. prenatal growth is mainly influenced by
a. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF
b. Growth Hormone (GH)
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
C
184
```
105. Half of birth length
A. 12 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 28 weeks
E. 32 weeks
```
B
185
```
106. Bone marrow site of erythropoiesis
A. 12 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 28 weeks
E. 32 weeks
```
D
186
```
107. Lung surfactant
A. 12 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 28 weeks
E. 32 weeks
```
C
187
```
108. Quickening
A. 12 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 28 weeks
E. 32 weeks
```
B
188
```
109. Human looking face
A. 12 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 28 weeks
E. 32 weeks
```
A
