HD 201 E3 Samplex 2016, 2017 Flashcards Preview

[HD 201] 3rd Exam > HD 201 E3 Samplex 2016, 2017 > Flashcards

Flashcards in HD 201 E3 Samplex 2016, 2017 Deck (35)
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1

What plane of the pelvis is of particular importance in engagement of fetal head following obstructed labor?

a. Inlet
b. Midplane
c. Outlet
d. False pelvis

B

2

What is the smallest diameter of the pelvis

a. Intertuberous
b. Interspinous
c. Obstetric conjugate
d. Diagonal conjugate

C

3

How to measure the transverse diameter of pelvic inlet?

a. Clinical/measured pelvimetry
b. Radiological pelvimetry (X-ray)
c. 1.5-2.0 less than diagonal

B

4

Dorsal lithotomy position during 2nd stage of labor to increase:

a. Pelvic outlet by 1-2cm
b. Pelvic inlet by 2-4cm
c. Pelvic midplane
d. Pelvic inlet by 3-5cm

A

5

Dorsal lithotomy position during 2nd stage of labor to increase pelvic outlet is due to:

a. Upward gliding of sacroiliac joint
b. Anterior displacement of coccyx
c. Posterior displacement of sacrum
d. Widening of symphysis pubis

A

6

Complaint felt by the mother when she said the baby “dropped”.

a. Engagement
b. Descent
c. Lightening
d. Fetal lie

C

7

Lightening due to:

a. Formation of lower uterine segment
b. Decrease in amniotic fluid
c. False labor
d. Change in gravity

A

8

Uterine phase where lightening occurs

a. Phase 1
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 4

B

9

Following factors predominant during phase 3 parturition except

a. Progesterone
b. Prostaglandin
c. Oxytocin
d. Relaxin

A

10

Why do pregnant women limit intake of shellfish and fish such as mackerel or tuna?

a. Increase in omega-3 fatty acids which may be harmful to baby
b. Increase allergenic and the allergy may be passed to baby
c. Increase in mercury content
d. Expensive

C

11

True statements during active labor EXCEPT:

a. Upper segment is firm during contractions
b. Lower segment is softer and more passive
c. Lower segment contracts, retracts, expels
d. Softened cervix dilates and forms an expanded thinned out tube

C

12

The uterine phase of parturition which is characterized by uterine contraction and retraction to prevent puerperal haemorrhage:

a. Phase 1
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 4

D

13

During labor in occiput posterior position, head has to rotate by how many degrees?

a. 45⁰
b. 90⁰
c. 135⁰
d. 180⁰

C

14

On Leopold’s, cephalic prominence felt on same side as fetal back. How would you describe the fetal head?

a. Engaged
b. Floating
c. Extended
d. Flexed

C

15

A 30 year old primigravid at 38wk AOG with hypertonia and gestational diabetes mellitus was brought to the ER. Cervix dilated, fetal head station +2. How often should the fetal heart tones be auscultated?

a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 30 minutes

A

16

An 18 y/o G1P1 (1001) patient complained of left breast pain. PE showed cracking of skin in the areola of the left breast.

a. Nipple soreness
b. Mastitis
c. Breast abscess
d. Engorgement

A

17

This is responsible for suppressing the growth of pathologic bacteria

a. Fats
b. Water
c. Proteins
d. Carbohydrates

D

18

Main component of milk in terms of quantity

a. Fats
b. Water
c. Carbohydrates
d. Proteins

B

19

Component of milk important in development of neurons

a. Fats
b. Water
c. Carbohydrates
d. Proteins

A

20

Component of milk important for the development of muscle mass

a. Fats
b. Water
c. Carbohydrates
d. Proteins

D

21

A 1-wk-old irritable infant was noted to have whitish plaque on her tongue. Inspection of the mother showed bilateral erythematous breasts on the periareolar area. What is the diagnosis?

a. Tongue tied
b. Oral thrush
c. Dried breast milk
d. Oral herpes

B

22

A 4x4 bluish mass at 7’oclock position is observed in a 20 yr old G1P1 (1001). All internal examination was normal. What is the diagnosis?

a. Vulvar hematoma
b. Vaginal hematoma
c. Vulvo-vaginal hematoma
d. Pelvic hematoma

A

23

IUD string not found. What can you recommend?

a. Gentle probing using Randall stone clamp
b. CT
c. X-ray
d. Oral contraceptives

A

24

True statements about female sterilization EXCEPT:

a. Safer than vasectomy
b. 0.5/100 pregnancy during 1st year of use
c. Effective immediately
d. Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy

A

25

Pregnancy after vasectomy may be due to the following EXCEPT:

a. Unprotected sex immediately after ligation
b. Incomplete occlusion of seminal vesicle
c. Recanalization
d. Sexual intercourse after 5 ejaculation

B

26

What is the most commonly used intravenous anesthesia?

a. Meperidine
b. Fentanyl
c. Morphine

A

27

What is the most common complication of paracervical block?

a. Local anesthesia toxicity
b. Postpartum meuropathy
c. Parametrial hematoma
d. Fetal bradycardia

D

28

When is the best time to administer epidural analgesia?

a. Rupture of membrane
b. 2-3cm dilated
c. Induction of labor
d. When patient feels pain

D

29

Prohibited acts EXCEPT

a. Perform tubal ligation with woman’s consent even without husband’s consent
b. Refuse to give reproductive care due to religion
c. Refuse to give reproductive care due to grades
d. Provide incorrect information regarding health care

A

30

True statement about the Phase 2 except

A. Uterine changes during the last 10 weeks of pregnancy
B. Most myometrial changes occur in preparation for labor contractions
C. Formation of the lower uterine segment
D. Myometrial oxytocin receptors markedly increased

A

31

Painful causes of painful uterine contractions during labor except

A. Hypoxia of the contracted myometrium
B. Compression of the nerve ganglia in the cervix
C. Stretching of the lower uterine segment
D. NOTA

C

32

True statements about asynclitism

A. Severe degrees are common
B. Severe forms may lead to CPD even in normal sized pelvis
C. Shifting from posterior to anterior aids in internal rotation
D. With extreme posterior asynclitism the anterior parietal bone can be easily palpated

B

33

True statements about involution except

A. The uterus has descended into the cavity of true pelvis within 2 weeks
B. The uterus returns to its non-pregnant size within 8 weeks
C. The fundus is palpable below the umbilicus immediately after placental expulsion
D. Complete placental involution up to 6 weeks

B

34

21 y/o G1P1 complains of difficulty of urination, delivered via outlet forceps extraction under epidural anesthesia 6 hours ago to a live baby boy 3.5 kg. Her preop haemoglobin is 120. What is the first stage in the management of this patient?

A. Urinalysis
B. Repeat CBC
C. Do internal examination
D. Insert urinary catheter

C

35

True statement about DMPA except

A. Delayed return of fertility
B. Can be used by breastfeeding women
C. Contraindicated with patients with ischemic heart disease
D. Prevents cervical CA

D