HD 202 E3 Samplex 2018 Flashcards
(99 cards)
1
Q
A technique developed by Winnicott involves drawing a scribbled design and asking the child to use his or her imagination to complete the drawing by turning it into anything he or she thinks of, and telling a story about the completed picture
A. Mood Machine
B. Squiggles Game
C. Play assessment
D. Mental Health Assessment Form (MHAF)
A
B
2
Q
A child’s lack of appropriate smiling, tearfulness, anxiety, euphoria and anger are indicators of a child’s
A. Thought Process and Content
B. Affect
C. Mood
D. Social Relatedness
A
C
3
Q
When an examiner evaluates the appropriateness of the child’s response to the interviewer, eye contact, degree of familiarity or withdrawal in the interview process, general and specific areas of confidences and success with family and peer relationships, the examiner is assessing
A. Judgment and Insight
B. Cognition
C. Thought Process and Content
D. Social Relatedness
A
D
4
Q
In conducting a clinical interview with a young person, what is the interviewer’s first task?
A. To engage the child and develop a rapport
B. To inquire about the child’s concept of the interview by asking the child what the parents have told him/her
C. To learn about the child’s relationships with family members and peers, academic achievement and peer relationships
D. To estimate the child’s cognitive functioning
A
A
5
Q
The parent interview should include:
A. Parents’ account of the reason for referral and the child’s current difficulties, impact of the child’s symptoms on the parents and the family
B. A history of the child’s past and current development in the context of the family
C. Genogram
D. All of the above
A
D
6
Q
An assessment of the child’s judgment and insight includes asking the adolescent about his weaknesses, his likes and dislikes and his position on issues such as corporal punishment or bullying.
A. True
B. False
A
B
7
Q
The school-age child responds best to open-ended questions for them to construct a chronological narrative.
A. True
B. False
A
B
8
Q
The purpose of a family interview is to observe the attitudes and behavior of the parents toward the patient and the responses of the children to their parents
A. True
B. False
A
A
9
Q
A biopsychosocial formulation refers to an integration of the biological predisposition, psychodynamic factors, environmental stressors and life events that have led to the child’s current problems and level of functioning.
A. True
B. False
A
A
10
Q
Family assessment should include family composition, dynamics and problem solving practices
A. True
B. False
A
A
11
Q
Major factors that shape parenting style include/s:
A. Parent's personality B. Goodness of fit within the parent-child relationship C. Other factors in the environment D. None of the above E. All of the above
A
E
12
Q
The following statement/s is/are true about child rearing:
A. Every stage of a child’s life brings on different characteristics and needs
B. One parenting style will be effective for all children
C. There is no need for dynamic parenting
D. Only B and C are true
E. None of the above
A
A
13
Q
Families in special circumstances include/s:
A. Solo parent families B. Families with adopted children C. Military families D. None of the above E. All of the above
A
E
14
Q
Reason/s for separation is/are:
A. Divorce B. Legal Separation C. Abandonment D. Temporary absence of OFW parent E. All of the above
A
E
15
Q
Because of the temporary absence of a parent due to overseas or distant urban jobs, the following have assumed the role of the absentee parent:
A. Grandparent B. Uncle/ Aunt C. Nanny D. Godparent E. All of the above
A
E
16
Q
MD, a 45-year-old bank manager develops a depression after her restaurant business went bankrupt. MD has always been proud of her material possessions and continues to motivate herself in increasing her economic status in life. MD believes that this is her main source of fulfillment in life.
- Which model of mental health is most appropriate to use in assessing the case of MD
A. Mental health as positive psychology
B. Mental health as resilience
C. Mental health as above normal
D. Mental health as social and emotional intelligence
E. Mental health as subjective well-being
A
C
17
Q
MD, a 45-year-old bank manager develops a depression after her restaurant business went bankrupt. MD has always been proud of her material possessions and continues to motivate herself in increasing her economic status in life. MD believes that this is her main source of fulfillment in life.
In using the model of Abraham Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, MD's needs may best be classified as... A. Biological and physiological B. Belongingness and love C. Self-actualization D. Safety E. Esteem
A
A
18
Q
Which of the following statements best describes a good clinician?
A. He/she consistently espouses one model of mental health for all of his/her patients
B. He/she uses a particular model of mental health for particular patients
C. He/she knows when to use a particular model of mental health at a particular point in time
D. He/she remains faithful to the biomedical model.
E. Since behavior, feelings, and thoughts are the concern, biological aspects of patients are not important to deal with
A
C
19
Q
“Anyone can become angry, that is easy. But to be angry with the right person, to the right degree, at the right time, for the right purpose, & in the right way, that is not easy.” These words of ___ capture the essence of social-emotional intelligence (SEI).
A. Sigmund Freud B. Voltaire C. Lawrence Kohlberg D. George Vaillant E. Aristotle
A
E
20
Q
Who provided the first model of adult social development and used this model to define mental health?
A. Erik Erikson B. Harry Stack Sullivan C. Sigmund Freud D. George Vaillant E. AristotlE
A
B
21
Q
The highest indication of mental health or maturity according to Erik Erikson is
A. Trust B. Integrity C. Autonomy D. Industry E. Generativity
A
B
22
Q
Joey is a 16-year-old high school boy who starts to adopt colloquial words from his peers that his parents find inappropriate for their social status. According to Erik Erikson, Joey is manifesting which task of human development?
A. Integrity B. Generativity C. Identity D. Trust E. Intimacy
A
C
23
Q
Mr. Reyes is a 75 - year old man who heads a big family. In his old age, he ensures that religious rituals are preserved in his family especially among his grandchildren. Mr. Reyes is demonstrating which task of adult development?
A. Integrity B. Generativity C. Career Consolidation D. Trust E. Keeper of the meaning
A
E
24
Q
Karen has no difficulty acknowledging and “laughing” at her own mistakes and incapacities. What kind of defense mechanism is she most likely using?
A. Sublimation B. Reaction Formation C. Humor D. Altruism E. Anticipation
A
C
25
One of the leading causes of Death, 65 yrs and older, Philippines:
```
A. Malnutrition
B. Pneumonia
C. Infectious diarrhea
D. Depression
E. Alzheimer's Dementia
```
B
26
The term for programmed cell death is:
A. Senescence
B. Apoptosis
C. Cell Cycle
D. Life Expectancy
B
27
The Life Expectancy of Filipinos
A. Is determined by 70% of our genes
B. Is largely dependent on maternal and child mortality
C. Has remained stable over the past few decades.
D. Is highest among those aged 80 and older.
B
28
One of the 5 Principles of Aging includes
A. The hallmark of aging lies not in the resting level of performance, but how the organism adapts to external stress.
B. Aging is a predictable experience. The older we get, the more like each other we become
C. Anatomy increases the likelihood or severity of disease
D. The longer we live, the more time to be immune to risk factors of disease
A
29
The study on Quality of Life of Filipino older persons include the following findings:
A. QOL of older Filipinos is generally poor.
B. Having enough time to enjoy retirement by being free from work are desirable goals.
C. Mobility and body image are important items in the physical domain.
D. It is closely linked to his/her role, status, and continued service to family.
D
30
Quality of Life is:
A. The supreme criterion by which the success of a government can be judged
B. Dependent on the subjective rating of health status.
C. Defined by the WHO as a population's perception of their psychological health
D. Measured by the degree to which pleasant affect dominates
A
31
Nutritional status of Older Filipinos based on the FNRI Study 2008
A. Higher prevalence of obesity than chronic energy deficiency
B. One third have anemia
C. One half of the population have elevated cholesterol
D. More people have diabetes than hypertension
B
32
Health Services utilization of Older Filipinos based on the BSNOH Study
A. Geriatric health services and screening for common geriatric syndromes are easily accessed.
B. Vaccination is free thus are usually acquired.
C. Nutritional screening by measurement of height and weight is standard.
D. Visual screening fairly good but hearing evaluation is poor
D
33
Cause by normal physiologic aging
A. Weight loss
B. Osteoporosis
C. Dementia
D. Presbyopia
D
34
Life Span of the human species
A. 78 years
B. 85 years
C. 100 years
D. 120 years
D
35
Domains in measuring Quality of Life
A. Education
B. Economic
C. Mental
D. Physical
D
36
Functional Health of Older Filipinos is best described by this statement
A. Physical disability deteriorates more rapidly among men
B. Functional health is improving over time for all age groups
C. Approximately 15% of people age 60 and older have difficulty walking
D. Females are more functionally intact over time.
B
37
Under the law, privileges of Senior Citizens include
A. 20% discount on all medications plus VAT
B. Free flu and pneumonia vaccine for those with senior citizens ID cards
C. Mandatory Philhealth coverage
D. Social pension of P 2,000 for every indigent senior citizen
C
38
Senescence is
A. That phase in the life span which is associated with an increasing risk of dementia
B. Progressive, universal and intrinsic only among mammals
C. Understood to be the direct cause of death for all living beings
D. The progressive accumulation of changes that lead to aging
B
39
Describes the population growth rate of the Philippines since the 1960s
A. Number of persons above the age of 15 is steadily declining
B. Percentage of children continues to grow rapidly
C. Persons age > 60 is the fastest growing sector of the population
D. Continued growth rates for the adult sector
C
40
The following disease states are usually limited to the elderly except
```
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Cirrhosis
C. Prostatic adenocarcinoma
D. Temporal arteritis
E. Osteoporosis
```
B
41
Which of the following best illustrates the immune Theory of aging
```
A. Osteoporosis in the elderly
B. Cerebrovascular disease
C. Increased risk for pneumonia
D. Wear and tear of teeth
E. Senile dementia
```
C
42
The following mechanisms and examples pertains to the stochastic mechanism of aging
A. Increased chromosomal abnormalities with age due to DNA breaks
B. Decrease in the number of T - Cell activity
C. Increased susceptibility to certain bacterial infections
D. The onset of menopause at 45-55 years of age in women
A
43
All the following theories fall under the stochastic or "wear and tear" theory of aging except:
```
A. Somatic mutation theory
B. Free radical theory
C. Rate of living theory
D. Immune Theory
E. Error Catastrophe Theory
```
D
44
The specific example of some animals where overproduction in sex hormones produces an initial advantage of improved reproduction countered later in life with increased risk of prostate cancer illustrate which particular theory of aging?
```
A. Somatic mutation theory
B. Free radical theory
C. Rate of living theory
D. Immune Theory
E. Antagonistic Pleitropy theory
```
E
45
The finding that energy restriction without malnutrition in rats serves to prolong life is an illustration of which theory of aging
```
A. Somatic mutation theory
B. Free radical theory
C. Rate of living theory
D. Immune theory
E. Error catastrophe theory
```
C
46
The following are natural age related changes in the vascular system except
```
A. Calcification of the heart valves
B. Thickening of the arteries
C. Decreased elasticity of the blood vessels
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Increase cardiac muscle mass
```
D
47
The following changes occur in the skeletal system as we age, except
A. Starting at age 55 calcium is lost and bone density decreases
B. There is thinning of the vertebrae resulting in decrease in height
C. The vertebrae calcify making bending difficult
D. There is wearing away of the joints’ cartilage
E. None of the above.
A
48
Which of the following examples show the effect of aging on episodic memory?
A. They can usually recall the “good old days”
B. They can’t remember where they put their keys
C. They can’t remember the names of the children
D. They are able to recall the lyrics of old songs
E. It’s hard for them to memorize phone numbers
B
49
The following changes in higher cortical function occurs in the elderly except
A. Decline in the ability to learn a new information
B. Decline in reaction time
C. Less efficiency in performing complex tasks
D. Decreased performance on time tasks
E. None of the above.
E
50
Which of the following changes in the optical system explains presbyopia in the elderly
```
A. Increased opacity of the lens
B. Miotic, poorly reactive pupils
C. Loss of lens elasticity
D. Loss or deterioration of photoreceptors
E. Thickening of the cornea
```
C
51
The following changes occur in the aging heart except
```
A. Increased weight
B. Increased size of myocyte
C. Decreased number of myocyte
D. Decreased lumen of cardiac chambers
E. None of the above
```
D
52
The following statements regarding the decline in muscular strength in aging are true except
A. There is generally a steep decline in muscular strength beginning at age 40
B. Aging skeletal muscle exhibit less specific force, endurance and recovery from fatigue
C. Decrease in muscle strength is caused partly by varying degrees of denervation
D. There is preferential atrophy of fast twitch compared to slow-twitch muscle fibers
A
53
Deteriorating quality of sleep is a frequent complaint in the elderly. The following statements regarding changes in the sleep pattern of the elderly are true except
A. There is an increase in the frequency and duration of wakefulness at night
B. EEG recording showed diminution of deeper, slow-wave sleep
C. There is less frequent shift from one sleep stage to another
D. All are true
C
54
The following are usual age related changes in the cardiovascular system except
A. Atrophy and thinning out of the left ventricle
B. Calcification of the heart valves
C. Loss of elasticity of the arterial walls
D. Decrease in blood flow to the various organs
A
55
The following are changes in the respiratory system that can reduce the efficiency of the respiration and impair the elderly person’s ability to perform physical activities
A. Atrophy of the muscles of the ribcage
B. Lung tissue become less elastic
C. Reduced activity of the cilia
D. All of the above
D
56
The following statements regarding impairment of higher cortical function in the elderly are true, except
A. Intelligence as measured by standard IQ test usually starts to decrease by age 60
B. Semantic and procedural memory is usually preserved
C. The ability to learn new information declines
D. Less efficiency in performing complex task
A
57
Which of the following statements regarding changes in the peripheral nervous system is false
A. Muscle fiber exhibit less specific force, endurance and recovery
B. There is less calcium released in response to muscular action potential
C. There is decrease in nerve conduction velocity
D. There is preferential atrophy of the slow-twitching muscle fibers
D
58
Regular physical exercise provides the following advantages to the elderly except
```
A. Increased aerobic capacity
B. Increased arterial stiffness
C. Increases muscle glycogen stores
D. Increase muscle oxygen utilization
E. Increased cardiac end diastolic volume and ejection fraction
```
B
59
The following statement regarding blood pressure in the elderly are true except
A. Blood pressure increases steadily beginning at age 20
B. Beyond age 70, arterial pressure plateaus or even decline
C. Environment and lifestyle may have a big effect on blood pressure
D. Impaired baroreceptor response can cause orthostatic hypotension in the elderly
E. None of the above
A
60
Andropause is best described as:
A. Slow decline of testosterone at age 40
B. Slow decline of testosterone starting age 60
C. Rapid decline of testosterone from age 50
D. Rapid decline of testosterone from age 70
A
61
The following cells are responsible for secreting testosterone
A. Seminiferous tubules
B. Sertoli Cells
C. Leydig cells
D. prostatic epithelium
C
62
The active intracellular androgenic hormone is
A. Testosterone
B. Androstenedione
C. Dehydroepiandrostenedione
D. Dihydrotestosterone
D
63
Testosterone is generally unavailable to the cells since most of it is bound to
A. Albumin
B. Beta globulin
C. sex hormone binding protein
D. gamma globulin
C
64
The following are manifestations of hypogonadism except
A. Diminished sexual desire
B. Loss of visceral fat
C. Osteoporosis
D. Loss of muscle volume
B
65
Blood exam for testosterone testing is best done
A. in the morning
B. afternoon
C. early evening
D. Anytime
A
66
Metabolic syndrome in men is central obesity of >90 cm waist circumference and
A. Triglycerides of 1.5 mmol/L
B. BP of 110/75mm Hg
C. FBS of 5.0 mmol/L
D. HDL of 90 mmol/L
D
67
Metabolic syndrome is mainly a complex association of abnormalities on low testosterone and insulin resistance which increase the risk for
A. Prostate cancer
B. Heart disease
C. hepatitis
D. dementia
B
68
Before starting treatment for hypogonadism, the clinician must make sure that the patient must be clear of:
A. Heart disease
B. diabetes mellitus
C. Prostate cancer
D. hypertension
C
69
Testosterone can be given safely. One preparation which must not be prescribed due to liver toxicity
A. cyprionate prep
B. alkylated forms
C. emanthate prep
D. intramuscular preparations
B
70
The process of erection is a neurovascular event which requires
A. Smooth muscle relaxation of arteries and constriction of the subtunical veins
B. Smooth muscle relaxation of the arteries and the subtunical veins
C. Smooth muscle contraction of the sinusoids and the relaxation of the subtunical veins
D. Smooth muscle contraction of the sinusoids and the subtunical veins
A
71
Erectile dysfunction is a condition that is affected adversely by the following
A. Smoking, cycling, DM
B. Alcohol, age and liver problem
C. Diabetes, hypertension, age
D. hypertension, hyperthyroidism, age
C
72
The first line of treatment for erectile dysfunction in the last decade is
A. Aromatase inhibitorss
B. Phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors
C. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors
D. 17 hydroxylase inhibitors
B
73
The enzyme responsible for smooth muscle relaxation if the arterial smooth muscle is
A. Guanosine triphosphate (GTP)
B. 5 guanosine monophosphate (%GMP)
C. cyclic aminosine monophosphate (CAMP)
D. cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)
D
74
The most contraindicated drug that must not be taken with sildenafil is
A. antihypertensives
b. anti diabetic drugs
C. nitrates
D. alpha reductase inhibitors
C
75
The menopause is a point in time when permanent cessation of menstruation occurs following the loss of ovarian activity for at least:
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 24 months
C
76
Conclusive evidence of ovarian failure
A. High testosterone, Low FSH
B. Low estradiol, High FSH
C. High FSH, High inhibin
D. High FSH, High LH
D
77
A late consequence of estrogen deficiency
A. Vaginal atrophy
B. Incontinence
C. Coronary heart disease
D. Psychological symptoms
C
78
The following are indications for hormone replacement therapy except
A. Protection against osteoporosis
B. For genito-urinary atrophy
C. Primary cardiovascular protection
D. For premature ovarian failure
C
79
A 51 year-old G0, virgin, came to you complaining of severe hot flushes. Her last menses was 18 months ago. She is a non-smoker, of medium built, and is a housewife. Past medical history is unremarkable. Among the following, which diagnostic exam will you include in your work-up?
A. Dexa bone scan
B. Pap smear
C. Transvaginal ultrasound
D. TSH
D
80
What is the most effective treatment for her hot flushes?
A. Lifestyle modification
B. Estrogen – only HRT
C. Estrogen – Progesterone HRT
D. Progesteron
C
81
A 38 year-old G3P3(3003) underwent radical hysterectomy, bilateral salphingooophorectomy with lymph node dissection for early stage cervical cancer. She has been complaining of hot flushes, irritability and difficulty in sleeping. You are contemplating hormonal replacement therapy for her. What will be the most ideal medication for her case?
A. Sequential estrogen + progestin
B. Continuous estrogen + progestin
C. Estrogen only
D. Progestin only
C
82
A 66 year-old G5P5 (5005) patient consulted at the outpatient department. She underwent a total hysterectomy with bilateral salphingooophorectomy for myoma uteri at 45 years old. She complains of frequent low back pains which are temporarily relieved by intake of pain medications. You are requested a dual xray absorptiometry scan (DEXA). Results revealed a T-score of -2.7 at the spine and -2.5 at the hip. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Start hormone replacement therapy
B. Increase calcium intake
C. Start her on biphosphanates
D. Limit activities to avoid fracture
C
83
A 50 year woman old complains of moderate hot flushes, irritability and insomnia since she stopped having her menses 10 months ago. She tells you that her mother and aunt are breast cancer survivors. Otherwise, her past medical and family medical history are unremarkable. Her recent mammogram showed no suspicious lesions. You advise what medical management?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Oral estrogen – progesterone HRT
C. Tibolone
D. Raloxifene
B
84
A 57 year old woman, menopausal for 6 years, complains of dyspareunia and vaginal dryness. No other complaints. She is otherwise a healthy, sexually active woman. What would you advise her?
A. Tibolone
B. Estrogen progesterone vaginal tablet
C. Oral estrogen – progesterone HRT
D. Estrogen cream
D
85
The Preston Curve relates human life expectancy with
A. Global aging
B. Gross domestic product of specific nations
C. total fertility rate of nations
D. Mortality rate of nations
B
86
The main forces behind global aging are
A. Increasing life expectancy and decreasing fertility rates
B. Increasing economy and increasing fertility rates
C. Decreasing fertility rate and decreasing life expectancy
D. Decreasing mortality and increasing gross domestic product
A
87
Aging in the 21st century is a challenge. One of the sentences below is not true.
A. The most rapidly increasing segment of the population is that of the 60 yrs old and above.
B. The nations that are aging fast are in the developing rather than the developed world.
C. There is a masculinization of the aging population
D. Aging should be in the development agenda of every nation
C
88
The Life Course Perspective is described by the following except
A. It embraces the theories of epigenetic control
B. It takes into account the influences in childhood impacting on aging
C. It is multidisciplinary
D. It offers positive outcomes in aging as long as risk factors are managed in previous life stages
A
89
. The life course approach to active ageing
A. Ends when disability sets in
B. Means that there should be more years to life
C. Starts in childhood, nurtures growth and development and ends at adulthood with rehabilitation
D. Starts in the womb, nurtures growth and development and even in the senior years promotes functional independence
D
90
The paradigm shift of the 21st century as far as health and development goals are concerned
A. Older persons are contributors as well as recipients of development
B. The elderly are more prone to noncommunicable diseases and therefore a burden
C. Older persons are more susceptible to infected diseases because of decreased immunity
D. Older persons are also recipients of vaccination programs
A
91
According to the World Health Organization, active aging optimizes for seniors through 3 pillars
A. Prevention, Diagnosis and Management
B. Noncommunicable diseases, iatrogenic factors and socio-economic factors
C. Quality of Life, Functional Independence, and Rehabilitation
D. Health, Participation, and security
D
92
These 4 NCDs are responsible for 29 M deaths in Middle and Low-Income Countries in 2008
A. Cancer, osteoporosis, poisoning and stroke
B. Cardiovascular diseases , Cancer, Diabetes and Chronic Respiratory Diseases
C. Alzheimer’s Disease, Bronchial Asthma, Cancer and COPD
D. Stroke, Diabetes, Cancer and Chronic Lung Disease
B
93
One of the following is a metabolic risk factor for non-communicable disease
A. Increased blood pressure
B. Physical Inactivity
C. Tobacco use
D. Urbanization
A
94
While there are many risk factors causing NCDs, what is the single underlying determinant of the rise of Chronic Noncommunicable Diseases
A. Increased distribution and marketing of tobacco
B. unhealthy diet
C. population aging
D. Physical inactivity
C
95
Prevention of chronic diseases in adulthood starts:
A. In utero
B. During childhood
C. During adolescence
D. Prior to retirement
A
96
Determinants/ predictors of active aging are multidimensional. However, according to the Policy Framework of the WHO, cross-cutting determinants are
A. Economic and health services
B. Personality and cognitive pursuits
C. physical and social environment
D. gender and culture
D
97
According to Rowe and Khan in 1998, this is at the crux of successful aging
A. Mental Health
B. Purpose and meaning
C. Physical Activity
D. Active social network
C
98
This comprehensive law addresses the social, health and rehabilitation needs of senior citizens in the Philippines and its main goal is to improve the quality of their life.
A. RA 7432
B. RA 7433
C. RA 9994
D. RA 9995
C
99
One of the following can be considered not an age-friendly policy in the country
A. Retirement at age 65
B. Mandatory social insurance
C. Anti-smoking
D. Aging in place
C
