Health, Disease and the Development of Medicines - TOPIC 5 Flashcards

1
Q

what is health

A

a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity

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2
Q

what is a communicable disease

A

diseases which can spread between individuals and are caused by bacteria, viruses, parasites and fungi

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3
Q

what is a non-communicable disease

A

diseases that cant spread between individuals

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4
Q

why does the presence of one disease make you more susceptible to others

A

your body will have a weakened immune system so will be less able to fight of other pathogens

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5
Q

what is a pathogen

A

organisms which cause diseases

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6
Q

what are some examples of pathogens

A

bacteria
viruses
protists
fungi

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7
Q

how are pathogens spread

A
drinking dirty water
breathed in 
oral transmission
bodily fluids 
animals vectors
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8
Q

what are the symptoms of tuberculosis

A

coughing and lung damage

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9
Q

how is tuberculosis spread

A

through the air when infected individuals cough and sneeze

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10
Q

how to reduce the spread of tuberculosis

A

infected individuals should avoid crowded places
sneeze and cough into a tissue and then bin it
a well ventilated home
regularly wash hands with soap

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11
Q

what are the symptoms of cholera

A

diarrhoea, severe dehydration, death

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12
Q

how is cholera spread

A

contaminated water

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13
Q

how to reduce the spread of cholera

A

making sure people have access to clean water supplies

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14
Q

what are the symptoms of stomach ulcers

A

stomach pain, nausea and vomiting

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15
Q

how are stomach ulcers spread

A

oral transmission

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16
Q

how to reduce the spread of stomach ulcers

A

having clean water supplies and making sure living conditions are hygienic

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17
Q

what are the symptoms of ebola

A

haemorrhagic fever

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18
Q

how is ebola spread

A

coming into contact with the bodily fluids of an infected individual

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19
Q

how to reduce the spread of ebola

A

isolating infected individuals and sterilising any areas where the virus may be present

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20
Q

examples of bacterial diseases

A

tuberculosis
cholera
stomach ulcers

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21
Q

what are some examples of viral diseases

A

HIV
ebola

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22
Q

what are the symptoms of chalara ash dieback

A

loss of leaves and bark lesions which can lead to the death of the tree

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23
Q

how is chalara ash dieback spread

A

through the air by the wind and when ash trees already infected are moved between different areas

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24
Q

how to reduce the spread of chalara ash dieback

A

removing young, infected trees and replanting with a different species AND by placign restrictions on the import and movement of ash trees

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25
Q

what are the symptoms of malaria

A

repeating episodes of fever

damage to red blood cells and sometimes the liver

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26
Q

how is malaria spread

A

through mosquitoes

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27
Q

how to reduce the spread of malaria

A

stopping the mosquitoes from breeding
spraying exposed skin with insect repellent
sleeping under a mosquito net

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28
Q

what are some examples of STI’s

A

chlamydia

HIV

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29
Q

what are the symptoms of chlamydia

A

it doesn’t usually cause symptoms but it can result in infertility in men and women

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30
Q

how is chlamydia spread

A

from an infected woman to her child during childbirth AND

through sexual contact

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31
Q

how to reduce the spread of chlamydia

A

wearing a condom during sex

avoiding sexual contact

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32
Q

what does HIV do

A

it attacks white blood cells

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33
Q

what are the symptoms of HIV

A

some people experience flu like symptoms and some people don’t experience any symptoms

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34
Q

how does HIV lead to AIDS

A

when HIV destroys enough white blood cells

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35
Q

what is AIDS

A

when the infected person’s immune system deteriorates and eventually fails

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36
Q

how is HIV spread

A

exchange of bodily fluids through sexual intercourse and sharing needles

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37
Q

how to reduce the spread of HIV

A

wearing a condom during sex
not sharing needles
medication

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38
Q

what are the 2 pathways viruses can reproduce through

A

the lytic pathway AND the lysogenic pathway

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39
Q

what happens in the lytic pathway

A
  1. the virus attaches itself to a specific host cell and injects its genetic material into the cell
  2. The virus then uses proteins and enzymes in the host cell to replicate its genetic material and produce the components of new viruses
  3. Once all viral components are produced, they assemble and form new viruses
  4. The host cell splits open, releasing the new viruses. These new viruses go on to infect more cells
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40
Q

what happens in the lysogenic pathway

A
  1. the virus attaches itself to a specific host cell and injects its genetic material into the cell
  2. The genetic material injected by the virus is incorporated into the genome of the host cell
  3. The viral genetic material gets replicated along with the host DNA every time the host cell divides. At this point, the virus is dormant and no new viruses are made
  4. Eventually a trigger causes the viral genetic material to leave the genome and enter the lytic pathway
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41
Q

how do plants defend themselves against pests and pathogens

A

waxy cuticle
cell wall
producing chemicals
producing poisons

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42
Q

how can plant diseases be detected

A

by observation
by changing environmental conditions
observing changes in plant’s symptoms
analyse distribution of diseased plants

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43
Q

what are the physical barriers of the body

A

the skin
hairs and mucus
cilia

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44
Q

how does skin protect the body from pathogens

A

if it gets damaged, blood clots quickly seal any cuts to keep microorganisms out

45
Q

how do hairs and mucus protect the body from pathogens

A

they trap particles which could contain pathogens

46
Q

how does cilia protect the body from pathogens

A

it wafts the mucus up to the back of the throat where it can be swallowed

47
Q

what are the chemical barriers of the body

A

HCL
enzymes called lysozymes

48
Q

how does HCL protect the body from pathogens

A

it kills pathogens that make it that far from the mouth

49
Q

how do lysozymes protect the body from pathogens

A

lysozymes are secreted from the body and kill bacteria

50
Q

what happens if pathogens make it into your body

A

your immune system kicks in to destroy them

51
Q

what can white blood cells do when they come across an invading pathogen

A

they can engulf them OR they can produce antibodies

52
Q

what is phagocytosis

A

when white blood cells engulf foreign cells and digest them

53
Q

what are B lymphocytes

A

a type of white blood cells involved in the specific immune response

54
Q

what are antigens

A

unique molecules on the surface of every invading pathogen

55
Q

what happens when B lymphocytes come across an antigen on a pathogen

A

they start to produce antibodies which bind to invading cells so they can be found and destroyed by other WBC’s

56
Q

why is the response of the immune system slow when a pathogen enters the body for the first time

A

there aren’t many B lymphocytes that can make the antibody

57
Q

what are memory lymphocytes

A

special white blood cells which remain in the body a long time and remember a specific antigen

58
Q

why is the secondary immune response faster and stronger than the first

A

memory lymphocytes rapidly mass produce antibodies to help destroy the pathogen quickly

59
Q

what is immunisation

A

injecting a vaccine into the body which contains small amounts of dead or inactive pathogens

60
Q

what are the pros of immunisation

A

it has helped control lots of infectious diseases that were once common

herd immunity and prevent epidemics

61
Q

what are the cons of immunisation

A

vaccines don’t always work

you can sometimes has a bad reaction to a vaccine

62
Q

how do you produce monoclonal antibodies

A

inject a mouse with a chosen antigen and the mouse then produces B lymphocytes which are then fused with a myeloma cell. This makes a hybridoma which divides quickly to produce lots of clones that produce the monoclonal antibodies

63
Q

why are tumour cells used in the production of monoclonal antibodies

A

they divide lots whereas lymphocytes don’t divide easily

64
Q

why are monoclonal antibodies useful

A

the will only bind to the molecule you want

65
Q

what are monoclonal antibodies used for

A

pregnancy tests

diagnosing and treating cancer

66
Q

what happens on the pregnancy stick if you are not pregnant

A

the urine moves up the stick carrying the blue beads, but because the hormone HCG isn’t present there is nothing to stick the blue beads to the test strip so it does not go blue

67
Q

how are monoclonal antibodies used in the diagnosis of cancer

A

the antibodies are labelled with a radioactive element which is given to a patient and goes into their blood AND when they come into contact with cancer cells they bind to the tumour markers. A picture of the body is taken and the radioactive marker comes up

68
Q

how are monoclonal antibodies used in the treatment of cancer

A

they are attached to anti cancer drugs and then the antibodies are given to the patient through a drip and they target the cancer cells

69
Q

why is treating cancer with monoclonal antibodies better than other cancer treatments

A

other treatments can affect normal body cells as well as killing cancer cells

70
Q

what are the stages of developing new medicine

A

Discovery
preclinical testing on human cells and tissues
preclinical testing on live animals
clinical testing on human volunteers

71
Q

why do we need to test new drugs on animals

A

to test if the drug works, to find out about its toxicity and to find the best dosage

72
Q

why do we need to test new drugs on healthy volunteers

A

to make sure it doesn’t have any harmful effects when the body is working properly

73
Q

what is the point of a placebo

A

it is so the doctor can see the actual difference the drug makes

74
Q

what is a blind trial

A

when only the doctor know if the patient is getting the drug or placebo

75
Q

what is a double blind trial

A

when neither the doctor or patient knows whether the patient is getting the placebo or drug

76
Q

what are antibiotics

A

drugs used to treat bacterial infections

77
Q

how do antibiotics work

A

They work by inhibiting processes in bacterial cells but not in the host organism

78
Q

why do antibiotics not destroy viruses such as the flu

A

viruses are not cells so they do not contain a cell wall or any of the machinery needed for growth and reproduction

79
Q

in school labs why are cultures of microorganisms not kept above 25 degrees

A

because harmful pathogens are more likely to grow above this temperature

80
Q

how do you make an agar plate

A

hot agar jelly is poured into a petri dish and when the jelly is cooled and set, a sterile inoculating loop is used to transfer microorganisms to the agar jelly

81
Q

how do you investigate the effect of substances on bacterial growth

A
  1. place paper discs soaked in different types of antibiotics on an agar plate with bacteria
  2. antibiotic should diffuse into the agar jelly and a clear area will be left where bacteria have died (inhibition zone)
  3. soak another paper disc in sterile water to use as your control
  4. leave the plate for 48 hours at 25 degrees
  5. the more effective the bacteria, the larger the inhibition zone
82
Q

what aseptic techniques are used in culturing microorganisms in the laboratory

A

petri dishes and growth medium must be sterilised by placing in an autoclave

inoculating loop should be sterilising by passing through a hot flame

liquid bacterial cultures should be kept in a culture vial with a lid

lid of culture vial should only be removed briefly when transferring bacteria

after transferring bacteria, lid of petri dish should be lightly taped on

petri dish should be stored upside down

83
Q

how do you calculate the zone of inhibition

A

pi X radius ^2

84
Q

what is the risk factor for cardiovascular disease

A

smoking

85
Q

why is smoking a risk factor for cardiovascular disease

A

it increases risk of blood clots in arteries AND nicotine increases heart rate which increases blood pressure

86
Q

what is the risk factor for liver diseases

A

alcohol

87
Q

why is alcohol a risk factor for liver diseases

A

enzymes in liver break down alcohol but the breakdown products can damage liver cells

88
Q

what happens if you have low levels of physical activity

A

you are more likely to get over weight and obese and develop high BP and cardiovascular diseases

89
Q

what is the impact of non communicable diseases nationally

A

people suffering from them may not be able to work which can affect a country’s economy AND it uses up the country’s resources

90
Q

what is the impact of non communicable diseases globally

A

they are very costly and common and so they can hold back the development of a country, so they have an effect globally

91
Q

BMI =

A

Mass / (height)^2

92
Q

how does your diet affect obesity

A

if you eat a high fat, high sugar diet and don’t do enough exercise you will have excess energy stored as fat which leads to obesity

93
Q

why is BMI not an accurate measure of obesity

A

athletes have lots of muscle, which has a higher mass than fat so they will come out with a higher BMI even though they are not overweight

94
Q

waist-to-hip ratio =

A

waist circumference / hip circumference

95
Q

what are the treatments for cardiovascular disease

A

lifestyle changes
life-long medication
surgical procedures

96
Q

what are the positives of lifestyle changes as a treatment for CVD

A

it doesn’t have any downsides

97
Q

what are the negatives of lifestyle changes as a treatment for CVD

A

it is not always enough

98
Q

what are the life long medications used as treatment for CVD

A

statins
antihypertensives
anticoagulants

99
Q

what are the positives of STATINS as a treatment for CVD

A

reduces amount of bad cholestrol in blood
reduces risk of strokes and heart attacks

100
Q

what are the negatives of STATINS as a treatment for CVD

A

risk of forgetting to take them
headaches
serious side effects
effect is not instant

101
Q

what are the positives of antihypertensives as treatment for CVD

A

reduces BP

102
Q

what are the negatives of antihypertensives as treatment for CVD

A

headaches
dizziness

103
Q

what are the positives of anticoagulants as treatment for CVD

A

reduces risk of blood clots causing problems like heart attacks and strokes

104
Q

what are the negatives of anticoagulants as treatment for CVD

A

heavy bleeding if injured
increases risk of internal bleeding

105
Q

what are stents

A

wire mesh tubes inserted inside arteries to widen them and keep them open

106
Q

positives of using stents for CVD

A

makes sure blood can pass through to heart muscles
quick recovery rime
effective for long time

107
Q

negatives of using stents for CVD

A

risk of blood clot near stent
risk of complications during surgery

108
Q

positives of coronary bypass surgery

A

lower chance of surgery being needed again

109
Q

negatives of coronary bypass surgery

A

longer surgery
greater risk of complications than stents
longer recovery time