Heartworm and Anemia Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

Which macrocyclic lactone is used in our university clinic as part of the complex treatment of heartworm?

o Selamectin
o Ivermectin
o Moxidectin
o Milbemycin oxime

A

o Moxidectin

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2
Q

In which clinical category can ascites occur in canine heartworm disease?

o During the 2. category
o During the 3. category
o During the 2. and 3. category
o During none of them

A

o During the 3. category

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3
Q

In which clinical category can hemoglobinuria occur during canine heartworm disease

o During the 2. category
o During the 3. category
o During the 4. category
o In none of them

A

o During the 4. category (due to mechanical hemolysis)

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4
Q

Which pulmonary vessels can be altered on the thoracic x-ray during canine heartworm disease

o Pulmonary arteries
o Pulmonary veins
o Both can be altered
o None of them

A

o Pulmonary arteries

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5
Q

Which statement is true regarding feline heartworm disease

o Cats are occasionally infected
o Cats are often infected
o Cats are never infected
o None of the statements are true

A

o Cats are occasionally infected

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6
Q

Which statement is true regarding the antigen test result in canine heartworm disease?

o Strength of reaction does not matter regarding the number of worms within the affected animal
o Strength of reaction is often related to the number of worms within the affected animal
o Strength of reaction is related to the number of worms only in the 3. clinical category
o Strength of reaction is related to the number of worms only in the 4. clinical category

A

o Strength of reaction does not matter regarding the number of worms within the affected animal

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7
Q

What diagnostic tests are needed for heartworm disease screening

o Only modified Knott test
o Only antigen test
o Both
o Neither

A

o Both

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8
Q

What are the three major components of the complex treatment of canine heartworm disease

o Doxycycline, selamectin, melarsomine
o Fenbendazole, doramectin, clopidogrel
o Doxycycline, moxidectin, melarsomine
o Doxycycline, milbemicin - oxim, melarsomine

A

o Doxycycline, moxidectin, melarsomine

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9
Q

Babesiosis: therapy

o Imidocarb, atovaquone, streptomycin
o Imidocarb, ultravaquone, azithromycin
o Imidocarb, atovaquone, azithromycin
o Imidocarbamide, atovaquone, azithromycin

A

o Imidocarb, atovaquone, azithromycin (7-10 days)

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10
Q

Which of the following parameters decrease in DIC

o Fibrinogen
o D - dimer
o APTT
o FDP

A

o Fibrinogen

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11
Q

Which of the parameter is the most specific for DIC

o	Fibrinogen 
o	APTT (Activated partial thromboplastin time) 
o	PTT (Partial thromboplastin time) 
o	FDP (Fibrin degradation products)
A

o FDP (Fibrin degradation products)

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12
Q

Important blood parameters in anaemia:

o RBC, PCV, TP, TBr, Fe, PTH
o RBC, PCV, TP, TBr, Fe, PTT
o RBC, PCV, TG, TBr, Fe, PTT
o RBC, PCV, TP, TBr, TLI, PTT

A

o RBC, PCV, TP, TBr, Fe, PTT

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13
Q

Feature of von-Willebrand’s disease:

o Prolonged surgical bleeding
o Severe thrombopenia
o Spontaneous bleeding is common
o Dalmatians are predisposed

A

o Prolonged surgical bleeding

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14
Q

Rodenticide poisoning: causes and pathogenesis?

o Dicoumarol types rodenticides -> liver dysfunction -> vit. K synthesis decreases -> bleeding
o Dicoumarol type rodenticides -> vit-K absorption decreases -> clotting time increases -> bleeding
o Dicoumarol type rodenticides -> vit-K antagonism -> clotting time increases -> bleeding
o Dicoumarol type rodenticides -> factor-K antagonism -> clotting time increases -> bleeding

A

o Dicoumarol type rodenticides -> vit-K antagonism -> clotting time increases -> bleeding

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15
Q

Rodenticide poisoning: diagnostic tests

o Clotting time 5-8 minutes, bleeding time 3-5 minutes, prothrombin time >20 minutes
o Clotting time >5 minutes, bleeding time < 5 minutes, prothrombin time <15 seconds
o Clotting time > 5 minutes, prothrombin time <5 seconds, APTT > 40 seconds
o Clotting time > 20 minutes, prothrombin time >15 seconds

A

o Clotting time > 20 minutes, prothrombin time >15 seconds

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16
Q

The reticulocyte index (RI) in regenerative anaemia is?

o	<1.5
o	>1.5
o	<2.5
o	>2.5
o	>3.5
A

o >2.5

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17
Q

Physiologic coagulation time (in glass tube) in dogs?

o Less than 5-10 minutes
o Less than 10-15 minutes
o Less than 15-20 minutes
o Less than 2-5 minutes

A

o Less than 2-5 minutes

18
Q

DIC. Therapy?

o Transfusion, fluid therapy, acetylic acid
o Transfusion, vitamin-K, fluid therapy
o Transfusion, heparin, fluid therapy
o Transfusion, fluid therapy, acetylic acid, pentoxifylline
o Transfusion, fluid therapy, acetylic acid, furosemide

A

o Transfusion, heparin, fluid therapy

19
Q

Diseases with haemorrhagic diathesis:

o Chronic liver disease, DIC, von-Willebrand’s disease
o Chronic kidney disease, DIC, von-Willebrand’s disease
o Chronic liver disease, DIC, Raynaud’s syndrome
o Rodenticide poisoning, DIC, Harada’s disease

A

o Chronic liver disease, DIC, von-Willebrand’s disease

20
Q

Which of the following is regenerative anemia?

o Anemia caused by erythropoietin
o Iron deficiency anemia (can also)?
o Haemolytic anemia
o Aplastic anemia

A

o Haemolytic anemia

21
Q

Medications for treatment of immune mediated hemolytic anemia

o Azathioprine, prednisolone, hepcidine, cyclosporine
o Azathioprine, prednisolone, heparin, cyclosporine
o Albendazole, prednisolone, heparin, cyclosporine
o Azathioprine, prednisolone, heparin, lokivetmab

A

o Azathioprine, prednisolone, heparin, cyclosporine

22
Q

Iron deficiency anaemia of carnivores: causes?

o Severe flea infestation, gastric ulcer, thrombiculosis, intestinal tumour
o Severe flea infestation, worms, gastric ulcer, iron deficient food
o Severe flea infestation, gastric ulcer, worms, intestinal tumour
o Severe demodicosis, gastric ulcer, worms, intestinal tumour

A

o Severe flea infestation, worms, gastric ulcer, iron deficient food

23
Q

Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia, characteristic laboratory findings?

o Non-regenerative anaemia, anisocytosis, autoagglutination
o Regenerative anaemia, hypochromasia, microcytosis
o Positive osmotic fragility test, autoagglutination, neutropenia
o Regenerative anaemia, autoagglutination, sphaerocytosis

A

o Regenerative anaemia, autoagglutination, sphaerocytosis

24
Q

Symptoms of haemolytic anaemia:

o Icterus, haemoglobinuria, bilirubinuria, splenomegaly

A

o Icterus, haemoglobinuria, bilirubinuria, splenomegaly

25
Discrepancies in DIC o Thrombocytopenia, schistocytosis, ACT (inc), D-dimer+ o Thrombocytosis, schistocytosis, ACTI, D-dimer+ o Thrombocytosis, sphaerocytosis, ACTO, D-dimer+ o Thrombocytopenia, schistocytosis, ACT (decreased), D-dimer+
o Thrombocytopenia, schistocytosis, ACT (inc), D-dimer+
26
Differences in thrombocytopenia o Haemoperitoneum, epistaxis, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (inc) o Petechia, haemothorax, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (dec) o Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (dec) o Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time (dec), platelet count (dec)
o Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (dec)
27
Which infectious disease causes non-regenerative anemia? o Babesiosis o Leptospirosis o Ehrlichiosis o Mycoplasma haemofelis
o Ehrlichiosis
28
Which of the following conditions has the best prognosis for non-regenerative anemia? o Chronic lymphocytic anemia o Addison’s disease o Sertoli cell testicular tumor with hyperestrogenism o Acute lymphoblastos leukemia
o Addison’s disease
29
• What drug can cause bone marrow damage? | o Phenobarbital
Phenobarbital
30
Which cannot cause secondary immunohemolytic anemia o Microsporum o Mycoplasma o Babesia o Haemangiosarcoma
o Microsporum
31
Babesiosis treatment: | o Imidocarb dipropionate, Diminazene aceturate, Atavaquone, Azithromycin
o Imidocarb dipropionate, Diminazene aceturate, Atavaquone, Azithromycin
32
Which symptom is not common in acute abdominal diseases o adominal pain o DIC? o Vomiting o One of the phases of shock?
o DIC?
33
Which statement is true? o in case of hemolytic anemia, plasma is clear? o In pancytopenia, platelets count increased o In acute blood loss, microcytic hypochromic anemia develops few hours afterwards o Babesia and Mycoplasma causes non-regenerative anemia
o In acute blood loss, microcytic hypochromic anemia develops few hours afterwards
34
Acute blood loss anaemia/Therapy: o Stop bleeding, Balansol, whole blood transfusion o Stop bleeding, Alkaligen, whole blood transfusion o Stop bleeding, HAES, whole blood transfusion o Stop bleeding, HAES, fresh frozen plasma
o Stop bleeding, HAES, fresh frozen plasma eller denne? Stop bleeding, HAES, whole blood transfusion
35
Which blood parameter is good to testing in case of aneamia? o RBC and PCV
o RBC and PCV
36
Physiological values of RBC in dogs o 8-10 T/I o 5-10 T/I o 8-12 G/I o 10-15 T/I
o 5-10 T/I
37
What is polycythaemia absoluta vera? o Elevated packed cell volume due to dehydration o Benign bone marrow neoplasm, which is causing elevated packed cell volume o Elevated packed cell volume due to splenic contraction o Elevated packed cell volume due to low oxygen tension
o Benign bone marrow neoplasm, which is causing elevated packed cell volume
38
The approx. upper limit of inorganic phosphate in the plasma of the dog and cat is? o 1.2 mmol/l o 3.5 mmol/l o 2.0 mmol/l o 0.8 mmol/l
o 2.0 mmol/l
39
The upper limit of total calcium in the plasma of the dog is? o 2 mmol/l o 5 mmol/l o 3 mmol/l o 1.8 mmol/l
o 3 mmol/l
40
The glutaraldehyde test from blood is detecting: o Negative acute phase proteins like albumin fibrinogen o Positive acute phase proteins like globulin, fibrinogen o Positive acute phase proteins like albumin, fibrinogen o Negative acute phase proteins like globulin, fibrinogen
o Positive acute phase proteins like globulin, fibrinogen
41
Severe thrombocytopenia: causes? o AITP, babesiosis, DIC, Sertoli-cell tumour o AITP, babesiosis, EPO, Leydig-cell tumour o Ehrlichiosis, Addison's disease, DDIC, Sertoli-cell tumour o Ehrlichiosis, Addison's disease, DIC, FeLV
o AITP, babesiosis, DIC, Sertoli-cell tumour