Hem Onc Flashcards

Question

antithrombin

Answer 1

inhibits factor Xa AND thrombin (F2a) note - anticoagulation therapy for 3 months to prevent recurrent thromboses in a pt who has had a DVT heparin (IV, SC) - negatively charged, naturally present in mast cells unfractionated heparin - seals antithrombin-Xa complex and antithrombin-thrombin complex - use in ACS, PE, MI, DVT for immediate anticoagulation - short half-life - reverse with protamine sulfate - positively charged molecule that binds to heparin - ADRs - many, osteoporosis LMWH (enoxaparin, dalteparin) - seals antithrombin-Xa complex (not long enough to act with thrombin..) - better bioavailability, long t1/2 does not need lab monitoring - not easily reversible pentasaccharide (fondaparinux) - sequence in both that binds to antithrombin - fondaparinux has much lower AT activity antithrombin deficiency - diminishes the increase in PTT following heparin administration - woman on OCPs

Answer 2

binds fibrin and converts plasminogen to plasmin --> plasmin hydrolyzes bonds in the fibrin matrix

Answer 3

direct thrombin inhibitor (bivalirudin, dabigatran, argatroban) - inhibit thrombin-mediated fibrin formation - used for DVT prevention/treatment and in afib lepirudin and argatroban used for H-I-T doesnt require lab monitoring can reverse dabigatran with idarucizumab - other options - prothrombin complex concentrate or tranexamic acid

Answer 4

others - ticagrelor, prasugrel inhibit ADP-mediated platelet aggregation - by binding P2Y12 (component of ADP receptors on platelets) --> prevent expression of Gp2b/3a use in ACS, stenting, and stable angina (if ASA cant be tolerated) ADRs: neutropenia (ticlopidine), TTP

Answer 5

thrombosis, recurrent pregnancy loss - heterozygote carriers have increased thrombosis risk normal hemostasis: activated protein C RESTRICTS clot formation --> cleaves and inactivates factors 5a and 8a - point mutation - 5a Leiden cant be cleaved - 5a is a cofactor in the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin --> increased thrombi (D-VENOUS-T!)

Answer 6

reactive hyperplasia = benign - polyclonal - follicular hyperplasia - sinus hyperplasia - sinuses fill and enlarge with histiocytes - diffuse hyperplasia - lymphocytes, immunoblasts, macrophages malignant transformation (lymphoma) - MONOclonal - examine TCR genes (the answer is "monoclonal TCR gene rearrangement), especially characteristic of non-Hodgkins lymphoma - normal node architecture is effaced

Answer 7

vinca alkaloids - vincristine and vinblastine bind b- tubulin monomers, prevent polymerization - M phase arrest - neurotox (arreflexia, etc.), constipation (paralytic ileus) taxanes - paclitaxel, cause microtubular dysfunction - stabilize polymerized microtubules --> anaphase cant occur

Answer 8

enzymatic converted to floxuridine monophosphate - -> binds THF and thymidylate synthetase in a stable-reaction intermediate - effectively decreasing the amount of thymidylate synthetase available for thymidine synthesis - 5-FU has a REDUCED cytotoxic effect in cells that are folate deficient - giving 5-FU and leucovorin will potentiate toxicity 5-deoxyuridine also inhibits thymidylate synthetase

Answer 9

irr inhibits DHF reductase - so THF cant be made, prevents folic acid metabolism - folic acid is a 1C donor involved in making thymidine, aas, purines - effective for rapidly dividing cells methotrexate undergoes polyglutamation (and gets trapped in the cell) leucovorin - does not require reduction, rescues normal cells ADRs of methothrexate - GI ulcerations, alopecia, pancytopenia = rapidly dividing cells - *hepatotox* and pulmonary fibrosis

Answer 10

retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma Rb - encodes a nuclear phosphoprotein that regulates the G1--> S checkpoint - active when HYPOphosphorylated - will halt cell at G1

Answer 11

lung cancers - ERBB1 breast - ERBB2 aka Her2 ovarian gastric

Answer 12

high serum IL6 neoplastic plasma cells produce IL1 polyclonal gammopathy = benign, chronic inflammation (G-A-M) - monoclonal gammopathy - malignancy of plasma cells (other plasma cell clones are suppressed, usually IgG malignancy) - side note: SPEP shows a1,a2, y1, y2, albumin peaks (can ddx a1-antitrypsin deficiency) multiple myeloma - cookie cutter lytic area - Padget's disease of bone - diffuse borders of lysis plasma cells - sheets of rER (see on EM) Rouleaux formation on blood smear - increased protein decreases charge between RBCs ....................................... v.s. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia - *IgM* hyperviscosity (retinal hemorrhage, blurred vision, Raynauds) - but also increased risk of bleeding - defective platelet aggregation in hyperviscous blood treat acute complications with plasmapheresis

Answer 13

calcitonin --> amyloid (medullary carcinoma of the thyroid) pre-albumin --> amyloid light chains (multiple myeloma) --> amyloid DS --> b-amyloid (death by Alzheimer's, earlier death by cardiac defects)

Answer 14

Gaucher disease - AR deficient glucocerebrosidase, (lipid-laden) macrophages with wrinkled cytoplasm - glucocerebrosidase is a component of leukocyte and erythrocyte cell membrane - Gaucher cells invade the bone marrow --> pancytopenia - HSM Niemann-Pick - missing sphingomyelinase - bubbly cytoplasm - mental retardation Pompe - only glycogen storage disease that is LYSOsomal - missing lysosomal enzyme that breaks down glycogen - death by cardiac causes -glycogen deposition in heart

Answer 15

Virchows triad - stasis of blood flow - endothelial injury - hypercoagulable why dont we form clots in small blood vessels? - heparin (GAG) - enhances AT3 (AT3 is made in the liver) - AT3 neutralizes most of the coagulation factors (the ones that are serine proteases) - PGI2 aka prostacyclin - made by endothelial cells, vasodilator, inhibits platelet aggregation and adhesion, increased vascular permeability, stimulates leukocyte chemotaxis - damaged endothelial cells lose the ability to synthesize prostacyclin --> development of thrombi and hemostasis - proteins C and S - INactivate factors 5 and 8 - tPA - birth control is thrombogenic - estrogen increases synthesis of F5&8 and fibrinogen, and inhibits AT3 - aka heparin antagonist - smoking is thrombogenic - due to damaged endothelial cells STEP 1 small cut - what stops you from bleeding from SMALL vessels - bleeding time - used to evaluate *platelet function*/platelet plug (cut on volar aka palm/sole aspect) 1) cut the vessel 2) tissue thromboplastin released - extrinsic coagulation system activated (has nothing to do with bleeding time) 3) subendothelial collagen exposed - factor 12 (Hageman factor) activated, intrinsic system activated (nothing to do with bleeding time) 4) endothelial cells (Weibel-Palade bodies) AND megakaryocytes/platelets (a granules) make vWF - damage to small blood vessels exposes vWF - platelets have receptors for vWF - release reaction - binding of vWF to GP1B on platelets causes platelets to release preformed ADP - ADP causes platelets to aggregate - upon release reaction - platelets begin synthesizing TXA2 --> potent vasoconstrictor (infact TXA2 causes Prinzmetals), bronchoconstrictor, platelet aggregator --> bleeding time has ended - platelet plug = platelets and fibrinogen platelets are similar to mast cells - mast cells release preformed histamine, heparin, tryptase, and eosinophilic chemotactic factors - following release reaction - makes PGs and LTs prolonged bleeding time - thrombocytopenia - vWF disease (most common genetic hereditary disease) - AD - ASA - irr blocks platelet COX1 and 2 by acetylation--> prevents platelet aggregation - note NSAIDs (rev COX2* and COX1, 48hrs/ASA inhibit platelet COX (not COX in other cells) - side note - COX2 is preferentially expressed at sites of inflammation, COX1 has a role in platelets, GI tract - signs - petechiae, ecchymoses/purpura, epistaxis tests for platelets - platelet count (NSAIDS render platelets non-functional, platelet transfusion) - bleeding time - platelet function - ristocetin cofactor assay - tests vWF presence - ristocetin activates vWF to bind to Gp1b STEP 2 end-product of coagulation system = thrombin - thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin STEP 3 plasminogen will be activated --> plasmin --> vessels will recanalize

Answer 16

in general coagulation cascade problems have - LATE rebleeding problems, menorrhagia, hemarthroses hemophila A = XR, deficient F8 (bleeding time is normal!) ex appendectomy - start to massive amounts of blood - only things that were holding vessels together were sutures and (weak) platelet plugs - fibrinogen will not be converted to fibrin question - bleeding with molar tooth removal? - platelet plugs will dislodge when you rinse your mouth out --> people choke to death on their own blood treat with recombinant F8 VS coagulation factor inhibitor: acquired antibody - anti-F8 is the most common - similar to hemophilia A distinguish by mixing study - mix normal plasma and pts plasma - PTT does not correct upon mixing (v.s. in hemophilia, it will correct) ..................................................................... Hemophilia B, XR - deficiency in F9 - all else is the same Hemo B, AR - deficiency in F11

Answer 17

extrinsic system - factor 7 instrinsic - 12, 11, 9, 8 common pathway - 10 (~complement - C3 is common) PT - evaluates extrinsic system - 7, 10, 5, 2, 1 - INR = PT/PTref - check when pt is on warfarin - 3/4 warfarin affected factors are tested by PT (PTT will also be prolonged) PTT - evaluates intrinsic system - 12, 11, 9, 8, 10, 5, 2, 1 - of all these - factor 8 (hemophilia A) deficiency is most common (next most common is vWF) - test in heparin therapy - AT3 knocks off 12, 11, 10, 7, 2, thrombin (again PTT does a better job, PT is also prolonged) thrombin time - serum (that contains anticoagulants) + excess of thrombin --> time required to form a clot - measures the rate of conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin - prolonged in pts with low fibrinogen (liver disease)

Answer 18

plasminogen to plasmin by tPA - tPA, reteplase, and tenecteplase are fibrin specific plasmin breaks down fibrinogen, *fibrin*, coagulation factors, blocks platelet aggregation a2-antiplasmin inactivates plasmin - so clots can be formed in the first place - produced by liver fibrin degradation products - D-dimer = proves that fibrin clot was there - D-dimer is the best test for DIC - factor 13 = fibrin stabilizing factor - puts strands in between fibrin Disorders of plasmin overactivity - can look like DIC - increase PT/PTT, increased bleeding time - normal platelet count - increased fibrinogen split products but NO increase in D-dimer - there is no clot to cleave - treat with aminocaproic acid - blocks plasmin activation -radical prostatectomy - release of urokinase activates plasmin

Answer 19

old person - back of hands have purpura = senile purpura - subQ tissue thins with age - blood vessels rupture Osler-Weber-Rendu disease aka hereditary telangiectasia - telangiectasias - on GI tract, mucosa, etc. --> bleed --> Fe deficiency anemia

Answer 20

cant make platelet plug - bleeding from superficial scratches, petechiae, purpura, epistaxis ITP - IgG against platelet Gp2b/3a - IgG produced by plasma cells in the SPLEEN - kid with URI --> next week he gets epistaxis... self-limited - woman with pos ANA - comes in with epistaxis, petechiae, splenomegaly, generalized LAD - lady has IgG antibody against platelet - may cause short-lived thrombocytopenia in offspring - increased megas in bone marrow - compensatory response - treat with corticosteroids, IVIG acutely (splenic macrophages will consume IVIG instead), splenectomy thrombotic thrombocytopenic pupura and HUS - PT and PTT normal, bleeding time will be prolonged - something in plasma damages small vessels throughout body - platelets stick and aggregate --> firm *platelet plugs*, RBCs will get sheared on these plugs - coagulation cascade is not activated so you dont get DIC - microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (shistocytes), etc. - fever, neuro, and renal symptoms (AKI because of damage to glomerular endothelium) - treat with plasmapheresis, steroids - TTP - decreased AdamsTS13 enzyme (autoimmune) - enzyme that cleaves vWF into monomers for eventual degradation - vWF multimers --> abnormal platelet aggregation --> microthrombi and thrombocytopenia - can also have renal failure, neuro manifestations, and fever - HUS - O157:H7 E coli (beef, toxin damages vessels...) and Shigella toxin - occurs most commonly in kids <10 and in association with EHEC treatment with antibiotics - two organs affected in both - kidneys (HUS), CNS (TTP) - increased megas in bone marrow - treat with plasmapheresis (to remove autoantibody) and corticosteroids

Answer 21

hemophilia A - XR - only *8 coagulant* is missing v. s. VW disease - AD - most common inherited coagulation disorder - platelet adhesion defect - but also have mild factor 8 deficiency (vWF stabilizes 8 coagulant, increased PTT) - so will have mixed bleeding symptoms - 3 parts of factor 8 molecule: vWF, 8 coagulant, 8 antigen (chauffeur for the other 2 parts) - and all 3 of these are decreased - abnormal ristocetin test - normal is platelet aggregation - ddAVP - will increase the production of all factor 8 molecules - also treats MILD hemophilia A scenario: woman who with menorrhagia - stops when she goes on OCP, restarts when she discontinues OCP - she has VW disease - estrogen also increases the synthesis of all factor 8 molecules - OCP is treatment of choice for women - test ristocetin cofactor assay Anti-phospholipid syndrome - spont abortion - lupus anticoagulant (also seen in HIV) - anti-cardiolipin antibodies (common feature of lupus) - produces false positive in syphillis (VRDL tests use beef cardiolipin) - both antibodies cause vessel THROMBOSIS

Answer 22

causes: septic shock (endotoxin and macrophages produce IL1 and TNF - indirect activators), rattle snake bite, ARDs, placental injury or abruption (trophoblasts contain tissue factor aka thromboplastin), adenocarcinoma (esp mets, mucin can activate coag cascade), acute pancreatitis, nephrotic syndrome, transfusion, fatty liver in pregnancy - note on amniotic fluid embolism - can cause DIC, but you would see hypotension and cardiogenic shock clots in small vessels - fibrinogen, 5, 8, 2, platelets are consumed in a clot --> increased PT and PTT - test with d-dimer - product of lysed cross-linked fibrin pt will bleed out of any orifice (penis, etc.), scratch, mucosa treat by addressing underlying cause, transfuse blood products and cryoprecipitate arises (?)

Answer 23

O blood type - anti-A IgM, anti-B IgM, anti-AB IgG A group, B group - A associated with gastric cancer - O with duodenal ulcer AB rarest - no antibodies Rh negative - anti-D IgG newborn - no antibodies in blood - newborns dont synthesize IgM until they are born - 2-3mo of age, they synthesize IgG elderly - dont have any antibodies (or very low levels) - old person can get a transfusion of the wrong blood and will not have a reaction ``` Rh antigens (5 antigens) - Rh positive = means positive for D antigen ``` Duffy antigen missing in black population - not as likely to P. vivax malaria - thalassemias protect from P. falciparum (RBC has a shorter life span) major cross match - are there any antibodies in pts serum will attack donor cells - antibody screen by indirect Coombs (pts serum is added to RBCs) (direct Coombs - take pts RBCs and add anti-human Ig, cells will agglutinate if they have anti-RBC antibodies bound to them) - side note- more blood transfusions means you will make antibodies against those foreign cells.. harder to find blood matches

Answer 24

vWF factor, P-selectin

Answer 25

platelet plug: injury - endothelin and neural vasoconstriction platelets release vWF vWF lines subendothelial collagen platelets binds vWF via GP1B = platelet adhesion platelets get activated and release ADP and TXA2 fibrinogen links to Gp2b/3a = platelet aggregation move on to coagulation cascade

Answer 26

platelet count <50K is an issue bleeding time - nl = 2-7 min mucosal and skin bleeding (this includes menorrhagia), intracranial bleeds petechiae, purpura, ecchymoses

Answer 27

Bernard-Soulier syndrome - genetic GP1b deficiency - platelet ADHESION is impaired - mild thrombocytopenia with enlarged platelets - thrombocytopenia because poorly functioning platelets are getting easily destroyed and enlarged platelets because immature platelets are being produced Glanzmann thrombasthenia - deficiency in Gp2b/3a - platelet adhesion impaired and platelet plug formation is impaired ASA uremia - disrupts platelet function, adhesion and aggregation impaired - will see bleeding time prolonged with normal platelet counts and PT, PTT

Answer 28

prothrombin to thrombin by activated factor 10 thrombin - converts fibrinogen to fibrin => platelet-fibrin thrombus thrombin also activates 5, 8, 13 coagulation factors are produced in the liver - inactivated - activated when they are exposed to a phospholipid surface (platelet) and Ca (dense core granules of platelets)

Answer 29

activated by epoxide reductase in *liver* liver also produces coagulation factors - note - in liver disease, vitamin K supplementation will NOT improve lab results (eg PT) because there are no clotting factors made to be activated (side note - cirrhosis can lead to high output cardiac failure due to splanchnic vasodilation and AV shunts) g-carboyxlation creates Ca-binding sites --> which attract the factors to negatively charged phospholipids monitor liver failure and coagulation with PT - why? - because F7 has the shortest half-life, so the first thing to become abnormal will be F7 hemorrhagic disease of newborn - intracranial (enlarging head circumference and bulging fontanel, downward eyes, GI, cutaneous bleed

Answer 30

heparin forms complex with platelet factor 4 - pt develops IgG antibodies against this complex fragments of destroyed platelets may enter circulation --> activate other platelets --> thrombus/occlusion need another anticoagulant NOT warfarin - these pts are at increased risk for coumadin-induced skin necrosis

Answer 31

most common location is DVT - lines of Zahn (RBCs in between lines of platelet-fibrin) - used to distinguish between thrombus and postmortem clots DVT - femoral, iliac, popliteal veins PE - chronic emboli get reorganized over time --> pulm HTN

Answer 32

.... secretes heparin-like molecules - activates AT3 produces tPA thrombomodulin - modulates thrombin so thrombin can activate protein C --> inactivates F5 and 8

Answer 33

activated protein C, cofactor protein S --> in activates F5a and 8a increased risk for warfarin skin necrosis - proteins C and S have the shortest half-life heparin is given with warfarin at first - because warfarin takes several days to work - so if you give warfarin alone - you will create an initial hypercoagulable state because proteins C and S will be knocked out first

Answer 34

point mutation in 3' UTR --> results in increased gene expression --> promotes thrombus formation

Answer 35

goes to moms lungs SOB, neurosymptoms, DIC characterized by squamous cells and keratin debris from fetal skin in embolus

Answer 36

long half-life chronic anticoagulation ADRs: skin/tissue necrosis - due to small vessel microthrombosis reverse with vitamin K, FFP, PCC

Answer 37

apiXaban, rivaroXaban oral agents, dont require monitoring not easily reversible

Answer 38

cell death due to peroxidation of membrane lipids - nausea, vomiting, GI bleeding/obstruction, lethary

Answer 39

-plase, streptokinase increases PT and PTT, no change in platelet count non-specific reversal - aminocaproic acid, tranexamic acid, platelet tranfusions, factor corrections (FFP, PCC, cryoprecipitate)

Answer 40

cilostazol, dipyridamole inhibition of platelet aggregation (increased cAMP), vasodilation prevention of stroke/TIAs (combined with ASA) mild ADRs: nausea, headache, facial flushing, hypoT, abd pain

Answer 41

abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban unstable angina, percutaneous coronary intervention

Answer 42

granules contain leukocyte alk phos, collagenase, lysozyme, and lactoferrin lysosomes (aka azurophilic granules) - proteinases, acid phosphatase, MPO, b-glucoronidase neutrophil chemotactic agents - LTB4, C5a, IL8, kallikrien, PAF neutrophilic leukocytosis - bacterial infection, tissue necrosis - left shift - characterized by DECREASED CD16 (maker for Fc receptors)

Answer 43

kidney-shaped nucleus, frosted glass cytoplasm called Kupffer cells in liver lipid A (bacterial LPS) - binds to CD14 on macrophages --> septic shock

Answer 44

highly phagocytic for ICs produces histaminase, MBP, eos peroxidase, eos cationic protein, eos neurotoxin eosinophilia - type 1 reactions - Hodgkins lymphoma - due to increased IL5 - chronic adrenal insufficiency - invasive parasites - protozoa will NOT have eosinophilia - amoebiasis, malaria will NOT - only with invasive helminths - so pinworm will not cause eosinophilia - Ascariasis - intestinal obstruction presentation will not show eosinophilia, if it invades to lungs then yes - all other worms - yes eosinopenia - seen in Cushings and corticosteroid use (sequester eos in LNs)

Answer 45

basophilic granules - heparin, histamine, LTs synthesized on demand basophilia in CML

Answer 46

is irradiated --> to kill lymphocytes and prevent graft v.s. host reaction (diarrhea, rash, jaundice) CMV also lives in lymphocytes - like other herpes viruses - CMV initially attaches to GAGs on host cells

Answer 47

FFP: for multiple coagulation factor deficiencies or if pt has warfarin anticoagulant - immediate treatment - vitamin K takes 6hrs to take effect cryoprecipitate - contains fibrinogen, F8, F13, vWF, fibronectin blood transfusions can result in: - hypocalcemia - blood contains citrate - hyperkalemia - RBCs may lyse in old blood units

Answer 48

most common - type 1 HSR against plasma proteins - treat with benadryl and antihistamines febrile non-hemolytic reaction - due to HLA-antibodies - pt has HLA antibodies against donor unit leukocytes - destroyed neutrophils release pyrogens - if you have never been transfused, you should not have anti-HLA antibodies against anything - woman is most at risk for febrile reaction - why because baby's leukocyte will enter mom's circulation... (also true for spontaneous abortions) hemolytic transfusion reactions (...shock because anaphylotoxins are released) - this will occur within 1 hour - wrong blood group - some antibodies dont show up in blood (why? - tranfusion occurred years ago), but you will have memory B cells --> delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (1 week later) - postpartum (they will try to trick you with halothane hepatitis, this will take longer) - test with Coombs test transfusion related lung injury - donor antibodies against recipient neutrophils and pulmonary endothelial cells - respiratory distress and pulm edema - within 6 hours

Answer 49

mom is O- - baby is A- - mom's antibodies can cross placenta and cause *mild anemia* in kids - in utero - mom's liver will take care of UCB, no problem with kernicterus - once baby is born - jaundice will occur within 24 hrs (baby's liver system is immature) - put baby under UVB light - UVB light converts bilirubin into dityrol? (water soluble --> babies pee it out) - baby will have mild anemia Rh incompatibility - worst hemolytic anemia with D antigen = hemolytic disease of newborn - 2nd baby will require exchange transfusion - because anemia is way worse - prevent - give Rh Ig that doesnt cross the placenta at 28 weeks during first pregnancy, regardless of if baby is Rh+ or - - after baby is born, test mom's blood and Id fetal RBCs in cells - give more Rh Ig if baby is Rh+ severe anemia --> high output CO failure - pitting edema - large livers - extramedullary hematopoeisis - kernicterus in basal ganglia, midbrain - severe disease or death in newborn - positive direct Coombs test mom O-, baby A+ - there will not be a problem with Rh sensitization - because baby's cells will be destroyed immediately

Answer 50

chemo (treat with GM-CSF or G-CSF), radiation (lymphocytes are most sensitive to radiation) severe infection aplastic anemia SLE - will have antibodies against RBCs, WBCs, platelets

Answer 51

induces apoptosis of lymphocytes cortisol induces synthesis of lipocortin --> inhibits phospholipase A2 - also inhibits NFKB - and reduces COX2 expression inhibits histamine and serotonin release inhibits IL2 production - T cell growth factor reduces eos inhibits WBC adhesion - marginated pool of neutrophils will enter blood ADRS - avascular necrosis of femoral head

Answer 52

mono - splenomegaly - periarterial lymphatic sheath of white pulp (not a sheath, really a collection of cells) - generalized LAD with *hyperplasia of paracortex* - monospot test = detects heterophile antibodies - anti-horse/sheep RBC antibodies - most people have 3-4 recurrences in your life - never lose EBV virus, lives in your B cells - atypical lymphocytes are T cells that are reacting against infected B cells remember LN anatomy - cortex, follicles = B cells - paracortex = T cells - medullary cords = macrophages and plasma cells monospot is used for screening - detects IgM heterophile antibodies - turns positive within 1 week of infection

Answer 53

TdT (DNA polymerase) kids, DS after 5 yo may spread to CNS and testes B-ALL - *CD10*, CD19, CD20 - excellent response to chemo - requires prophylaxis to scrotum and CSF (chemo doesnt cross these barriers) - t(12;21) - more common, good prognosis - t(9;22) - worse prognosis, more commonly seen in adults T-ALL - thymic mass in teenager (SVC-like syndrome)

Answer 54

most common adult leukemia - 13 q deletion neoplastic proliferation of neoplastic B cells - IgM+, IgD= - coexpress CD5 and CD20 - most cases have increased expression of BCL2 smudge cell = splattered cell involvement of lymphocytes - called SLL complications: hypogammagloulinemia, most common cause of death is infection - autoimmune hemolytic anemia - small amount of Ig is defective - Richter transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma - pt will present with enlarging LN or enlarging spleen

Answer 55

neoplastic proliferation of mature CD4+ T cells associated with HTLV-1 (Japan, Caribbean, West Africa) - associated with IVDA features: rash (T cells like to go to the skin), LAD and HSM, lytic bone lesions with hypercalcemia (red herring is multiple myeloma)

Answer 56

newborns: HbF >> Hb A > HbS relatively asymptomatic - can get hematuria, priapism, and increased incidence of UTIs - splenic infarct at high altitudes relative protection from P. f.

Answer 57

reverses carcinoma in situ neoplasia - clonal cell proliferation, benign or mal - evasion of apop, uncontrolled growth, angiogenesis, tissue invasion and mets invasive carcinoma - collagenases, hydrolases, inactivation of E-cadherin

Answer 58

1) margination and rolling - endothelium: E-selectin (TNF and IL1), P-selectin (WP bodies), CAM, CD34 - leukocytes - Sialyl-Lewis X, L-selectin (binds to CAM, CD34) 2) adhesion - CAMs on endothelium - bind CD11/18 integrins on leukocyte (LAD1 is due to decreased CD18 subunit) 3) diapedesis - PECAM1 on both (CD31) 4) migration - C5a, IL8, LTB4, kallikrein, PAF

Answer 59

PDGF (platelets, macrophages) - vascular remodeling, SMC migration, stimulates fibroblast growth FGF, VEGF - angiogenesis EGF - cell growth via tyrosine kinases (EGFR1/erbb1) TGFb - angiogenesis, fibrosis

Answer 60

inflammation - start -3 days - platelets, neutrophils, macrophages proliferative - day 3-weeks - granulation tissue, wound contraction, delayed healing due to vitamin C and Cu deficiency remodeling - 1 week to 6 mo - type 3 replaced by type 1 - 70-80% tensile strength regained by 3 mo - Zn def scars: 1) hypertrophic - type 3, infrequent 2) keloid - disorganized types 1 and 3, claw-like projections, frequent, greater incidence with darker skin

Answer 61

bacterial - M Tb, Bartonella, Listeria (granulomatosis infantiseptica), syphilis fungal (histo) schisto CGD autoinflam: ...primary biliary cirrhosis, subacute thyroiditis foreign matl: ...talcosis, HS pnuemonitis TH1 cells secrete IFNy --> macrophages secrete TNFa

Answer 62

allow immune cells to interact with antigen

Answer 63

S pneumo, H. Flu penicillin prophylaxis and pneumovax

Answer 64

not all SLE pts have this syndrome venous or arterial thromboses - includes frequent miscarriages, premature birth due to placenta insuffiency/preeclampsia labs: - lupus anticoagulant - aPTT prolongation in vitro. But actually cause hypercoagulable state due to activation of phospholipid-dep pathways - presence of of antiphospholipid antibodies - anticardiolipid antibody (false positive on RPR), anti-b2-glycoprotein-1 antibody

Answer 65

oncologic emergency uric acid precipitates in an acidic environment - the lowest pH along the nephron is found in the distal tubules and collecting ducts

Answer 66

thrombocytes - 8-10 d - dense granules - ADP, Ca2+ - a granules - vWF, fibrinogen, fibronectin - 1/3 of platelet pool is in spleen macrophage - activated by INFy mast cells - contain basophilic granules - degranulation --> histamine, heparin, tryptase, eosinophilic chemotactic factors - cromolyn sodium prevents mast cell degranulation - used asthma prophylaxis NK cells - lymphocyte, part of the innate immune response Langerhans cells are dendritic cells in the skin mature B cells - migrate to peripheral lymphoid tissue (white pulp in spleen) - B cell encounters an antigen --> plasma cell - plasma cell found in marrow, normally dont circulate in blood T cells - CD28 is the costimulatory signal

Answer 67

erythropoiesis - Young Liver Synthesizes Blood 1) yolk sac - weeks 3-8 2) liver - 6 wk- birth 3) spleen - 10-28 weeks 4) bone marrow - 12 weeks - adult e and C are embryonic globins - disappear around week 6 in fetus blood in umbilical vein has PO2 = 30 mm Hg 1) blood enters fetus through umbilical vein --> ductus venosus --> IVC 2) *IVC --> heart --> FO* 3) deoxygenated blood from SVC --> RA --> RV --> pulm artery --> ductus arteriosus --> descending aorta - due to high pulmonary artery resistance birth: infant takes a breath and pulmonary vasculature resistance decreases - PGs decrease from placental separation fetal-postnatal derivatives - allaNtois --> urachus, mediaN umbilical ligament - umbiLicaL arteries --> mediaL umbilical ligaments - umbilical vein - ligament teres hepatis (round ligament), contained in falciform ligament

Answer 68

acanthocyte - liver disease, abetalipoproteinemia = states of cholesterol dysregulation basophilic stippling seen in peripheral blood, ringed sideroblasts see in bone marrow bite cell - G6PD deficiency - also see Heinz bodies - precipitated Hb (SH groups are converted to S-S bonds) blur cell (looks like milder version of acanthocyte) - ESRD, liver disease, pyruvate kinase deficiency spherocyte - also in drug and infection- induce hemolytic anemia target cells - HbC disease, Asplenia, liver disease, thalassemia (HALT the hunter said to his target) Howell-Jolly bodies - nuclear remnants, normally removed by the spleen

Answer 69

macrocytic anemia in which DNA synthesis is normal - due to alcoholism and liver disease - no hypersegmented neutrophils Diamond-Blackfan anemia - rapid-onset anemia within 1st year of life - due to intrinsic defect in erythroid progenitor cells - increased %HbF but decreased total Hb - physical appearance - short stature, craniofacial abnormalities, triphalangeal thumbs

Answer 70

decreased retic, increased EPO, dry tap with **fatty infiltration** in bone marrow - NO splenomegaly causes: - radiation and drugs (sulfa drugs, carbamazepine) - viral agents - parvo, EBV, HIV, hep - idiopathic - immune mediated, primary stem cell defect, may follow acute hepatitis Fanconi anemia - DNA repair defect that cause bone marrow failure (--> pancytopenia), macrocytosis can be seen on CBC - short stature, increased incidence of tumors/leukemia, cafe-au-lait spots, thumb/radial defects

Answer 71

heme is synthesized in virtually every organ - but main sites are bone marrow and hepatocytes 1) RLS = succinyl coA + glycine --> ALA - XL sideroblastic anemia - deficient ALA synthase * ALA enters cytoplasm* 2) ALA dehydratase --> PBG 3) PBG deaminase --> HMB 4) uroporphyrinogen 3 synthase --> uroporphyrinogen 3 5) uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase --> coproporphyrinogen 3 * back to mitochondria* 6) protoporphyrin --> heme talked about lead poisoning acute intermittent porphyria AD - defective porphobilinogen deaminase - 5Ps: *painful abdomen*, port-wine colored urine, polyneuropathy, psych disturbances, precipitated by CYP inducers (drugs, alcohol, starvation, progesterone) - treat with glucose and heme --> inhibit ALA synthase porphyria cutanea tarda AD - uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase - tea colored urine because of uro... - **blistering** cutaneous photosensitivity and hyperpigmentation - most common porphyria - exacerbated with alcohol consumption

Answer 72

nitroblue tetrazolium testing XL mutation in NADPH oxidase - produces ROS that directly kill bacteria and activate proteases in phagosomes recurrent bacterial and fungal infections - S aureus, Aspergillus

Answer 73

TIBC increases in pregnancy --> transferrin saturation decreases

Answer 74

topoisomerase 1 - makes single-stranded nicks to relieve negative supercoiling - irinotecan and topotecan - "tecans" - ADRs - severe myelosupression, diarrhea top 2 - induces transient breaks in BOTH DNA strands to relieve positive and negative supercoiling - etoposide, podophyllin - inhibit top2's ability to reseal the breaks - etoposide used in testicular and small cell lung cancer - podophyllin - used in genital warts - FQs inhibit bacterial top 2 - ADRs: myelosuppression, alopecia

Answer 75

hydroxyurea - inhibits ribonucleotide reductase (myelosuppression) BeVacizumab - anti-VEGF (hemorrhage, blood clots, impaired wound healing) cetuximab - anti-EGFR, use in CRC (rash, elevated LFTs, diarrhea) infliximab - anti TNFa, use in RA rituximab - anti-CD20 (increased risk of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy) trastuzumab (herceptin) - anti-HER2 (tyrosine kinase receptor), cardiotox - used in HER2 pos breast cancer - side note - SERMs used in premenopausal women, aromatase inhibitors in postmenopausal women, these are NOT monoclonal antibodies erlotinib - EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor (rash) imatinib - BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor (fluid retention) vemurafenib - BRAF small molecule inhibitor, used in metastatic melanoma bortezomib, carfilzomib - proteasome inhibitors, induce arrest at G2-M phase and apoptosis (peripheral neuropathy, VZV reactivation) rasburicase - recomb uricase, metabolizes uric acid to allantoin - used in tumor lysis syndrome

Answer 76

multiple LNs involved, extranodal involvment is common note - chromosome 14 contains the Ig heavy chain follicular lymphoma - small B cells (CD20), waxing and waning LAD - 14;18 - Bcl2 overexpression - follicle of LN is where you want apoptosis to occur - somatic hypermutation of B cells (after being challenged by antigen) - lack of tingible body macrophages - normally they come in to clean up dead B cells - monoclonal origin: K/L - treatment for those who are symptomatic (most are asymptomatic) - complication - progression to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma - presents as enlarging LN mantle cell lymphoma - 11;14, cyclin D overexpression - CD20 AND CD5 - cyclin D phosphorylates protein regulators and drives G1 to S - very aggressive marginal zone lymphoma = post-germinal center B cells - associated with chronic inflammatory states diffuse large B cell lymphoma - B cells that grow in SHEETS - most common form of NHL in adults, clinically aggressive - again Bcl2 or 6 mutations

Answer 77

calcineurin inhibitors cyclosporine - binds cyclophilin --> prevents IL2 transcription - also used in psoriasis, RA - **nephrotox**, HTN, HLD, neurotox, gingival hyperplasia, hirsuitism tacrolimus - binds FKBP --> prevents IL2 transcription - similar to cyclosporine - increased risk of DM and neurotox - no mucocutaneous findings

Answer 78

mTOR inhibitor, binds FKBP - prevents response to IL2 - because IL2 normally activates IL2 pancytopenia used post-kidney transplant - so it is not nephrotox

Answer 79

blocks IL2R ADRs - edema, HTN, tremor

Answer 80

irr inhibits IMP dehydrogenase - prevents purine synthesis ADRs - associated with invasive CMV infection, many but less nephrotoxic and neurotoxic

Answer 81

hyperacute - minutes acute - CD8 T cells are activated against donor MHCs (type 4 HSR) - humoral - antibodies develop AFTER transplant - signs - vasculitis of graft vessels, interstitial lymphocytic infiltrate chronic - *CD4+* T cells react to APCs presenting donor peptides --> cytokines --> atrophy, fibrosis, and arteriosclerosis - ex: bronchiolitis obliterans, accelerated atherosclerosis, nephropathy, vanishing bile duct syndrome - both cellular and humoral components graft v.s. host

Answer 82

type 1 type 2 - -> phagocytosis/complement OR NK killing (antibody-med mech) - remember NKs use perforin and granzyme to kill - induced when exposed to a non-specific activation signal or the absence of an MHC1 on a target cell - antibody mediated mech - C16 on NK binds Fc of Ig - -> cellular dysfunction - because of blockage of downstream processes type 3 - IC (IgG-antigen) attracts neutrophils --> which release lysosomal enzymes - serum sickness - fever, urticaria, arthralgia, proteinuria, LAD 5-10 days after antigen/drug exposure - arthus reaction - local injection of antigen...., edema, necrosis, activation of complement type 4 - direct - CD8 (ex type 1 DM) - delayed - sensitized CD4 cells encounter antigen and release cytokines --> inflammation and macrophage activation

Answer 83

tetanus/botulism toxins (or diphtheria antitoxin?) HBV, Varicella, Rabies

Answer 84

Fab - Fc (complement) - Fc (macrophage) - Fc determines isotype generation of diversity - random recomb of VJ (light chain) and VDJ genes - random addition of nucleotides by TdT (terminal deoxynucleotide transferase) - random combination of heavy chains generation of antibody specificity - somatic hypermutation and affinity maturation - isotype switching (IL4) IgG (greatest concentration in serum) - delayed response to antigen IgM - immediate response IgA (most produced) - Giardia!, picks up J chain from epithelial cells IgE - also activates eos thymus-dep antigens - contain a protein, can be presented by MHC to T cells ............................................... B-cell activation and switching - T cell and B cell bind 1) MCH2 2) CD40 receptor on B cells binds CD40L on T cells - T cells secrete cytokines that determine Ig class switching, affinity maturation, etc.

Answer 85

induced by IL6 CRP - opsonin, fixes complement also ferritin, fibrinogen, hepcidin, SAA negative phase - albumin (balance), transferrin (internalized by macrophages to sequester Fe)

Answer 86

spleen - 9-11 ribs - red pulp = RBCs, macrophages line the red pulp cords - white pulp - PALS is where T cells are, B cells are in follicles - marginal zone (between red pulp and white pulp) - where APCs capture blood-borne antigens to present to lymphocytes splenic dysfunction - decreased IgM and complement --> increased susceptibility to encapsulated organisms - vaccinate for pneumococcal, Hib, meningococcal - also side note - C3 deficiency predisposes to recurrent infections with encapsulated orgs thymus - 3rd pouch, lymphocytes of mesodermal origin - cortex has immature T cells - positive selection - medulla has mature T cells (and reticular cells) - negative selection, AIRE (deficiency leads to autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome 1)

Answer 87

``` A, B, C are class 1 = 1 long and 1 short chain (class 2 has 2 equal length chains) ``` class 1 - antigen peptides loaded on MHC1 in RER after delivery via TAP MHC1 associated with b2-microglobulin

Answer 88

all = CD3 pos activation: 1) APC to LN 2) MHC2 and costimulatory signal between B7 on APC and CD28 on naive T cells 3) T cell activates and produces cytokines TH1 - only secretes IFNy and IL2 (TH2 cells secrete all other cytokines) - its own differentiation is induced by IFNy and IL12 (which is released by macrophages) - activates macrophages and *cytotoxic T cells* - IFNy inhibits TH2 cell - inhibited by IL4 and IL10 Tregs (anti-inflam) - CD3, CD4, CD25, FOXP3 - activated Tregs produce IL10 and TGFb - IPEX due to FOXP3 def, XL - autoimmunity characterized by enteropathy, endocrinopathy, autoimmunity (dermatitis, nail dystrophy) - associated with diabetes in male infants superantigen - cross- link b region of T cell receptor to MHC2

Answer 89

macrophages - IL1, IL6, IL8, IL12 (promotes TH1 and NK phenotypes), TNFa (activates endothelium and recruits WBCs, as does IL1) - TNFa maintains granulomas all T cells - IL2, IL3 (~GM-CSF) from TH2 - IL4 - IL5 - promotes diff and growth of B cells, enhances class switching to IgA, eos side note - INF a and b are part of the innate response - synthesized by virus-infected cells --> prime uninfected cells (by helping to degrade viral nuclei and protein)

Answer 90

azathioprine, 6-MP activated by HGPRT inactivated by XO and TPMT ADR - abdominal pain and jaundice

Answer 91

requires bioactivation by P450 cell-cycle nonspecific = alkylates hemorrhagic cystitis (+ MESNA to bind toxic metabolites) other alkylating agents - busulfan - SEVERE myelosuppression, pulmonary fibrosis - nitrosoureas - crosses BBB, also requires intracellular activation alkylating agents in general target rapidly-dividing cells - tarry stool (due to upper GI bleed)

Answer 92

the negative phosphate groups of 2,3-BPG associate with the positive amino acid groups in HB glycosylation (in diabetes) can interfere with this binding pocket --> increased 2,3-BPG in diabetics

Answer 93

RAS - overexpression renders cells more sensitive to mitogenic stimuli

Answer 94

factor 12 - deficiency --> PTT prolongation without bleeding diathesis - instead pts have a tendency for thromboembolic complications

Answer 95

NTS - receives info from area postrema, GI tract via vagus nerve, vestibular and CNS antagonize! motion sickness, hyperemesis gravidarum - anticholingerics (scopolamine), antihistamines (diphenhydramine, meclizine, promethazine) chemo-induced - dopamine antagonists - prochlorperazine, metoclopromide - serotonin antagonists - ondansetron - NK1 receptor antagonists - aprepitant, prevent substance P release

Answer 96

attaches to human erythroid cells via blood group P antigen - expressed on erythrocytes, placenta, fetal liver and heart

Answer 97

all are AD, with inactivation of tumor supressors (2 hit hypothesis) - except for MEN2 - activating mutation in RET gene that leads to continuous cell division APC - maintains low levels of b-catenin (which is oncogenic) Lynch syndrome - MSH2, MLH1, MSH6, PMS2 genes Li-Fraumeni - sarcoma, leukemia, adrenals, breast cancer - p53 normally causes arrest in G1/S stage

Answer 98

acetaminophen - CNS activity (weak Peripheral NS activity)

Answer 99

falsely high when you have decreased RBC production - nutrient deficiencies, low EPO

Answer 100

act during G2 - damage DNA after DNA synthesis bleomycin --> free radicals --> break DNA strands - lung fibrosis, minimum myelosuppression D-actinomycin -intercalates doxorubicin --> free radicals --> intercalate and strand break - dilated cardiomyopathy, alopecia

Answer 101

erythropoietic precursors and progenitors are inhibited by IgG autoantibodies or cytotoxic T lymphocytes - associated with thymomas and lymphocytic leukemias

Answer 102

XL, AR - genetic defect --> failure of T cell development --> B cell dysfunction features - recurrent viral, fungal, opportunistic infections due to loss of T cells - B cell dysfunction - recurrent sinopulmonary bacterial infections - failure to thrive, chronic diarrhea lymphopenia, hypogammaglobulinemia - candidal skin test to test T cell immunity - macrophages present injected antigen to CD4+ T cells --> CD4+ T cells secrete cytokines that recruit CD8+ cells to the area - stem cell transplant note - red herring - congenital HIV