HEMA REVA Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

Which of the ff. statistical terms reflects the best index of precision when comparing two complete blood count (CBC) parameters.

a.Mean

b.Median

c.Coefficient of Variation

d.Standard Deviation

A

C. Coefficient of Variation

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2
Q

Refer to the ff. results:
PT = Normal
APTT = Prolonged
Bleeding Time = Increased
Platelet Count = Normal
Platelet Aggregation to Ristocetin = Abnormal

Which of the ff. disorders may be indicated?

a.Factor 8 deficiency

b.DIC

c.Von Willebrand’s Disease

d.Factor 9 deficiency

A

C. Von Willebrand’s Disease

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3
Q

Neurological findings may be commonly associated with whicb of the following disorders?

a.HUS

b.TTP

c.ITP

d.PTP

A

B. TTP

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4
Q

What is the normal WBC differential lymphocyte percentage (range) in the adult population?

A.5% - 10%

B.10% - 20%

C.20% - 44%

D.50% - 70%

A

C. 20% - 44%

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5
Q

Characteristics of Auer Rods:

a.Stain PAS Positive

b.Composed of Azurophilic
Granules

c.Predominantly seen in CML

d.Nonspecific esterase positive

A

B. Composed of Azurophilic
Granules

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6
Q

Reticulocytosis usually indicates:

a.Response to inflammation

b.Neoplastic process

c.Red Cell regeneration

d.All mentioned

A

C. Red Cell regeneration

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7
Q

An autohemolysis test is positive in all of the following conditions except:

a.G6PD (Glucose-6-
phosphate dehydrogenase)

b.HS (Hereditary spherocytosis)

c.PNH (Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria)

d.PK deficiency (PNH)

A

C. PNH (Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria)

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8
Q

Amino acid substituiotn that is reponsible for Sickle Cell Anemia:

a.Lysine is substituted for glutamic acid at 6th position

b.Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at 6th position for the B-chain

c.Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at 6th position for the A-chain

d.Glutamine is substituted for glutamic acid at 6th position of the B-chain

A

B. Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at 6th position for the B-chain

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9
Q

When an erythrocyte containing iron granules is stained with prussian blue, the cell is called:

A.Spherocyte

B.Leptocyte

C.Schistocyte

D.Siderocyte

A

D. Siderocyte

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10
Q

According to CLSI, a heel puncture lancet should puncture no deeper than:

a.1.5 mm

b.2.0 mm

c.2.5 mm

d.3.0 mm

A

B. 2.0 mm

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11
Q

If the concentration of EDTA exceeds 2mg/mL of whole blood, the platelets may:

a.Swell and then fragment, causing an invalidly higher count

b.Swell and then fragment, causing an invalidly lower count

c.No effect in platelet count

d.Normal platelet count

A

A. Swell and then fragment, causing an invalidly higher count

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12
Q

Compared to a rubricyte, a metarubricyte looks different because of its:

a.Dark blue cytoplasm

b.Pyknotic nucleus

c.Larger size

d.Nucleoli

A

B. Pyknotic nucleus

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13
Q

In cellulose acetate electrophoresis, Hgb S has the same mobility as:

a.Hgb E

b.Hgb F

c.Hgb D

d.Hgb C

A

C. Hgb D

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14
Q

The substance that will hasten the sicking of erythrocytes is:

a.Sodium oxalate

b.Sodium metabisulfite

c.Sodium citrate

d.Sodium phosphate

A

B. Sodium metabisulfite

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15
Q

This metabolic pathway facilitates oxygen release from hemoglobin to tissues:

a.Embden-Meyerhoff

b.Hexose-Monophosphate Shunt

c.Rapoport-Luebering

d.Methemoglobin Reductase

A

C. Rapoport-Luebering

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16
Q

In warm AIHA, the offending antibody is usually:

a.IgG

b.IgM

c.IgA

d.Mixture of IgG and IgM

A

A. IgG

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17
Q

Which of the following is a pure red cell aplasia?

a.Bernard-Soulier Syndrome

b.DiGuglielmo’s Disease

c.Diamond-Blackfan Anemia

d.Fanconni’s Anemia

A

C. Diamond-Blackfan Anemia

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18
Q

Any turbidity in a peripheral blood specimen will result in a falsely elevated hemoglobin determination. Which of the following is NOT a potential source of turbidity?

a.Lipemia

b.Increased leukocyte counts

c.Increased levels of carboxyhemoglobin

d.Presence of Hgb S

A

C. Increased levels of carboxyhemoglobin

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19
Q

A px has a hemoglobin level of 8/0 g/dL. According to the rule of three, within what range would the hematocrit be expected?

a.21% to 24%

b.23.7 % to 24.3%

c.24% to 27%

d.21% to 27%

A

D. 21% to 27%

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20
Q

In examination of spun hematocrit, the second layer consists of:

a.Fatty layer

b.Plasma

c.Buffy Coat

d.Packed Red Cells

A

B. Plasma

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21
Q

Replacement of cardiac valves by artificial plastic prosthetic devices may result in enough damage and destruction to the red blood cells (by the prostheric device itself) to cause anemia of varrying severity, This has been aptly called the “waring blender syndrome”. In this situation, the stained blood smear characteristically shows:

a.Acanthocytes

b.Echinocytes

c.Codocytes

d.Schistocytes

A

D. Schistocytes

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22
Q

The degree of effective erythropoiesis is best assessed by:

a.Serum iron labels

b.Hemoglobin
determination

c.Ferrokinetic studies with iron

d.Reticulocyte counts

A

D. Reticulocyte counts

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23
Q

3+ Codocytes:

a.0-2/field

b.3-10/field

c.11-20/field

d.>20/field

A

D. >20/field

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24
Q

The ff. erythrocyte data were obtained from an EDTA-anticoagulated specimen: erythrocyte count = 2.84x10^12/L, hemoglobin = 7.2 g/dL, hematocrit = 26% (0.26L/L), calculate the MCV:
a.25.3 fL

a.25.3 fL

b.27.7 fL

c.65.9 fL

d.91.5 fL

A

D. 91.5 fL

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25
Cannot be stained and visualized with Romanowsky stains a.Pappenheimer Bodies b.Howell-Jolly Bodies c.Heinz Bodies d.Basophilic Stippling
C. Heinz Bodies
26
Relative polycythemia may be found: a.In pulmonary disorders b.At high altitudes c.With high oxygen affinity d.In dehydration
B. At high altitudes
27
A low eosinophil count is found in: 1.Cushing’s Disease 2.Shock 3.Administration of ACTH 4.Brucellosis a.1 and 3 b.2 and 4 c.1, 2, and 3 d.1, 2, 3, and 4
C. 1, 2, and 3
28
A white blood cell count above _____ is termed leukocytosis. a.4.0 x10^9/L b.9.0 x 10^9/L c.10.0 x 10^9/L d.11.0 x 10^9/L
D. 11.0 x 10^9/L
29
When distinguishing between mature and immature leukocytes, the most reliable morphological characteristics is: a.Cell size b.Nuclear chromatic pattern c.Cytoplasmic color d.Nuclear shapes
B. Nuclear chromatic pattern
30
The total WBC count is 20 x10^9/L. 25 NRBCs per 100 WBCs are seen on the peripheral blood smear. What is the corrected count (x10^9/L) a.0.8 b.8 c.16 d.19
C. 16
31
31. Primary granules in the neutrophil appear at which stage: a.Myeloblast b.Promyelocyte c.Myelocyte d.Metamyelocyte
B. Promyelocyte
32
In the neutrophil series of leukocyte development, the earliest stage to normally appear in the peripheral blood is the: a.Myeloblast b.Promyelocyte c.Myelocyte d.Band
Band
33
What are dohle bodies? a.Aggregates of rough endoplasmic reticulum b.Liposomes containing partially degraded mycopolysaccharides c.Primary granules d.Fat globules
A. Aggregates of rough endoplasmic reticulum
34
Identify the platelet precursor: ID: Single Nucleus, Fine Chromatin, Nucleoli, Absence of Cytoplasmic Granules, No Visible Thrombocytes a.Megakaryoblast b.Promegakaryocyte c.Megakaryocyte d.Metamegakaryocyte
A. Megakaryoblast
35
Using Rees-Ecker diluting fluid for platelet count, the count must be completed within ___ minutes of diluting in order to ensure against PLATELET DISINTEGRATION. a.30 mins b.60 mins c.75 mins d. 120 mins
A. 30 mins
36
Thrombovytosis is found in: 1.Polycythemia Vera 2.CML 3.Splenectomy 4.Pernicious Anemia a.1 and 3 b.2 and 4 c.1, 2, and 3 d.1, 2, 3, and 4
C. 1, 2, and 3
37
This type of acute lymphoblastic leukemia accounts for 60-70% of all cases. a.T-cell Leukemias b.B-cell Leukemias c.Pre-B Cell Leukemias d.Early pre-B Cell
D. Early pre-B cell
38
The cells considered to be distinctive of Hodgkin’s disease is: a.Turk’s Cells b.Ferrata’s Cells c.Reed-Sternbeg Cells d.Flame Cells
C. Reed-Sternbeg Cells
39
Aspirin ingestion has the following hemostatic effect In normal persons: a.Prolonged PT b.Prolonged Bleeding Time c.Prolonged APTT d.AOTA
B. Prolonged Bleeding Time
40
40. The NITROBLUE TETRAZOLIUM TEST would be most useful in detecting: a. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome b.Infectious Mononucleosis c.Chronic Granulomatous Disease d.Niemann-Pick Disease
C. Chronic Granulomatous Disease
41
Leukocytes that demonstrate a postive reaction in the tartratic acid-resistant acid phosphatase cytochemical stain are the lymphocytes seen in: a.Infectious lymphocytosis b.Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (non-T type) c.Malignant lymphoma d.Hairy cell leukemia
D. Hairy cell leukemia
42
The FAB Classification of Leukemia with large blasts that are myeloperoxidase and specific esterase negative but have strong positivity for non-specific inhibited by sodium fluoride is: a.M1 b.M4 c.M5 d.M7
C. M5
43
Smears using blood anticoagulated EDTA should be made ___ hours of blood collection. a.2 to 3 hours b.4 to 5 hours c.6 to 8 hours d.10 to 12 hours
A. 2 to 3 hours
44
The electrical impedance principle is based on the fact that: a.Blood cells are good conductors of electricity b.Blood cells are poor conductors of electricity c.Resistance of the electrical path is decreased as the individual cells passes through the aperture d.Blood cells have a relative density greater than that of saline.
B. Blood cells are poor conductors of electricity
45
The most important practive in preventing the spread of disease is: a.Wearing masks during px contact b.Proper handwashing c.Wearing disposable lab coats d.Identifying specimens from known or suspected-HIC and HBV-infected patients.
B. Proper handwashing
46
The recommended disinfectant for blood and body fluid contamination is: a.Sodium hydroxide b.Sodium bentonite c.Hydrogen peroxide d.Sodium hypochlorite
D. Sodium hypochlorite
47
Reverse isolation may be used for: a.Patient with measles b.Patient with TB c.Patient with severe burns d.Adult patient with flu
C. Patient with severe burns
48
An abnormal thrombin time is associated with: a.Factor X Deficiency b.Fibrinogen Deficiency c.Excess Plasminogen d.Protein C Deficiency
B. Fibrinogen Deficiency
49
The urea solubility testing is specific for detecting deficiencies of factor: a.X b.XII c.XIII d.IX
C. XIII
50
Nucleoli of cells contain predominantly which of the ff: a.DNA b.RNA c.ALP d.Peroxidase
B. RNA
51
These cells are important in the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and body tissues. a.Platelets b.Erythrocytes c.Leukocytes d.Thrombocytes
B. Erythrocytes
52
Hemoglobin S and D can be differentiated by which test? a.Autohemolysis Test b.Acid Serum Test c.Hemoglobin electrophoresis at pH 8.6 d.Solubility Test
D. Solubility Test
53
What is the total blood volume (%) in an adult? a.2-3% b.7-8% c.10-12% d.4-5%
B. 7-8%
54
Purplish red pinpoint hemorrhagic spots in the skin caused by loss of capillary ability to withstand normal blood pressure and trauma. a.Petechiae b.Purpura c.Ecchymosis d.Hematoma
A. Petechiae
55
Term used for increased platelet count: a.Hyperthrombosis b.Cytothrombosis c.Thrombocytosis d.Thrombocytopoiesis
C. Thrombocytosis
56
This test procedure measures the ability of platelets to adhere in glass surfaces. a.Clot Retraction Time b.Platelet Aggregation Test c.Salzmann Test d.Stefanini Test
C. Salzmann Test
57
When the coagulation of fresh whole blood is prevented through the use of an anticoagulant, the straw-colored fluid that can be separated from the cellular elements is: a.Serum b.Plasma c.Whole Blood d.Platelets
B. Plasma
58
If a blood smear stains too red on microscopic examination of a Wright-stained preparation, possible causes include that: a.The staining time was too long b.The stain was too basic c.The buffer was too acidic and the exposure time was too short d.The buffer was too basic and the exposure time was too long
C. The buffer was too acidic and the exposure time was too short
59
The abbreviation MAPCs stands for: a.Multiple Adult Progenitor Cells b.Multipotent Adult Progenitor Cells c.Many Abnormal Progenitor Cells d.Multiply Active Potential Cells
B. Multipotent Adult Progenitor Cells
60
Normal adult hemoglobin has: a.2 alpha and 2 delta chains b.3 alpha and 1 beta chains c.2 alpha and 2 beta chains d.2 bet and 2 epsilon chains
C. 2 alpha and 2 beta chains
61
The child’s medical history and the apperance of dense, dark-staining particles in some of the red blood cells on a peripheral blood smear suggest a diagnosis of: a.Iron deficiency anemia b.Malaria c.Ingestion of lead d.Sickle cell disease
C. Ingestion of lead
62
Common clinical symptoms of anemia include: a.Splenomegaly b.Shortness of breath and fatigue c.Chills and fever d.Jaundice and enlarged lymph nodes
B. Shortness of breath and fatigue
63
Which of the following inherited leukocyte disorders might be seen in Hurler syndrome? a.Pelger-Huet anomaly b.Chediak-Higashi disease c.Alder-Reilly anomaly d.May-Hegglin anomaly
C. Alder-Reilly anomaly
64
In most cases, the diagnosis of lymphoma relies on all of the following except: a.Microscopic examination of affected lymph nodes b.Immunophenotyping using immunohistochemistry or flow cytometry c.Molecular or cytogenetic analysis d.Peripheral blood examination and a complete blood count
D. Peripheral blood examination and a complete blood count
65
What happens if a coagulation specimen collection tube is underfilled? a.The specimen clots and is useless. b.The specimen is hemolyzed and is useless. c.Clot-based test result are falsely prolonged. d.Chromogenic test results are falsely decreased.
B. .The specimen is hemolyzed and is useless.
66
The progression of erythropoiesis from prenatal life to adulthood is: a.yolk sac - red bone marrow - liver and spleen b.yolk sac - liver and spleen - red bone marrow c.red bone marrow - liver and spleen - yolk sac d.liver and spleen - yolk sac - red bone marrow
B. yolk sac - liver and spleen - red bone marrow
67
The causes of anemia include/s: a.Blood loss b.Impaired red cell production c.Accelerated red cell destruction d.AOTA
D. AOTA
68
In megaloblastic anemia, the typical erythrocytic indices are: a.MCV Increased, MCH Increased and MCHC Normal b.MCV Increased, MCH Variable, and MCHC Normal c.MCV Increased, MCH Decreased, and MCHC Normal d.MCV Normal, MCH Increased, and MCHC Normal.
A. MCV Increased, MCH Increased and MCHC Normal
69
Hemolytic disruption of the erythrocyte involves: a. An alteration in the erythrocyte membrane b. A defect of the hgb molecule c. An antibody coating the erythrocyte d. Physical trauma
A. an alteration in the erythrocyte membrane
70
What is the most common glycolytic enzyme deficiency associated with the anaerobic pathway of erythrocyte metabolism? a.Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase b.Pyruvate kinase c.Methemoglobin reductase deficiency d.Hexokinase deficiency
B. Pyruvate kinase
71
The principal leukocyte type involved in phagocytosis is the _______ a.Monocyte b.Neutrophil c.Eosinophil d.Basophil
B. Neutrophil
72
RBC indices obtained on an anemic px are as follows: MCV 88 um3 (fL); MCH 30 pg; MCHC 34% (340). The RBCs on the peripheral smear would appear: a.Microcytic hypochromic b.Microcytic normochromic c.Normocytic normochromic d.Normocytic hypochromic
C. Normocytic normochromic
73
Neutropenia is present in px with which absolute neutrophil counts? a.<1.5 x 10^9/L b.< 5.0 x 10^9/L c.< 10.0 10^9/L d.< 15.0 10^9/L
A. <1.5 x 10^9/L
74
Repeated phlebotomy in px with polycythemia vera may lead to the development of: a.Folic acid deficiency b.Sideroblastic anemia c.Iron deficiency anemia d.Hemolytic anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
75
Which test would be abnormal in a px with factor X deficiency? a.PT Only b.APTT Only c.PT and APTT d.Thrombin Time
C. PT and APTT
76
A standard 4.5-mL blue-top tube filled with 3.0 mL of blood was submitted to the laboratory for PT and APTT test. The sample is from a patient undergoing surgery the following morning for a tonsillectomy. Which of the ff. is necessary course of action by the technologist? a.Run both tests in duplicate and report the average result. b.Report the PT result c.Reject the sample and request new sample. d.Report the APTT result.
C. Reject the sample and request new sample.
77
Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting the action of which enzyme? a.Phospholipase b.Cyclo-oxygenase c.Thromboxane A2 synthase d.Prostacyclin synthetase
B. Cyclo-oxygenase
78
The most common subtype of classic von Willebrand’s disease is: a.Type 1 b.Type 2A c.Type 2B d.Type 3
B. Type 2A
79
Fletcher factor (prekallikrein) deficiency may be associated with: a.Bleeding b.Thrombosis c.Thrombocytopenia d.Thrombocytosis
B. Thrombosis
80
Which factor deficiency is associated with a prolonged PT and APTT? a.X b.VIII c.IX d. XI
A. Factor X
81
Storage pool deficiencies are defects of: a.Platelet adhesion b.Platelet aggregation c.Platelet granules d.Platelet production
C. Platelet granules
82
Which clotting factor is not measured by PT and APTT tests? a.Factor VIII b.Factor IX c.Factor V d.Factor XIII
D. Factor XIII
83
Which of the following clotting factors are measured by the APTT test? a.II, VII, IX, X b.VII, X, V, II, I c.XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I d.XII, VII, X, V, II, I
C. XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I
84
A peripheral vlood smear can be prepared from: a.EDTA-anticoagulated blood within 1 hour of collection b.Free-flowing capillary blood c.Citrated whole blood d.Both A and B e.AOTA
D. Both A and B
85
In a wright-stained peripheral blood film, the reticulocyte will have a blue appearance. This is referred to as ________ a.Megaloblastic maturation b.Bluemia c.Polychromatophilia d.Erythroblastosis
C. Polychromatophilia
86
Relative polycythemia exists when: a.Increased erythropoietin is produced b.The total blood volume is expanded c.The plasma volume is increased d. The plasma volume is decreased.
D. The plasma volume is decreased.
87
Increased erythropoietin production in secondary polycythemia can be caused by: a.Chronic lung disease b.Smoking c.Renal neoplasms d.AOTA e.NOTA
D. AOTA
88
The function of the methemoglobin reductase pathway is to: a.Prevent oxidation of heme iron b.Produce methemoglobinemia c.Provide cellular energy d.Control the rate of glycolysis
A. Prevent oxidation of heme iron
89
Anemia can be categorized into: a.Hemolytic types b.Blood loss types c.Impaired production types d.AOTA e.NOTA
D. AOTA
90
The peripheral blood smear demonstrates ______ red blood cells in IDA. a.Microcytic, hypochromic b.Macrocytic, hypochromic c.Macrocytic and spherocytic d. Either A or B
A. Microcytic, hypochromic
91
Heparin inhibits the clotting of fresh whole blood by neutralizing the effect of: a.Platelets b.Ionized calcium (CA2+) c.Fibrinogen d.Thrombin
D. Thrombin
92
As a blood cell matures, the ratio of nucleus to cytoplasm in most cases: a.increases b.Decreases c. Remains the same d.AOTA
B. Decreases
93
A characteristic of a mature monocyte is: a.Large, orange granules b.An elongated and curved nucleus c.Light, sky-blue cytoplasm d.Kidney bean-shaped nucleus
D. Kidney bean-shaped nucleus
94
With a normal diet, an arythrocyte remains in the reticulocyte stage in the circulating blood for; a.1 day b.2-5 days c.3 days d.120 days
A. 1 day
95
The equivalent nomenclature for target cell is: a.Megalocyte b.Drepanocyte c.Codocyte d.Discocyte
C. Codocyte
96
Acanthocytes may be associated with the clinical condition of: a.Iron deficiency anemia b.Abetalipoproteinemia c.Pernicious anemia d.No related disease state
B. Abetalipoproteinemia
97
Which of the ff. is the term for erythrocytes resembling a stack of coins on thin sections of a peripheral blood smear? a.Anisocytosis b.Poikilocytosis c.Agglutination d.Rouleaux formation
D. Rouleaux formation
98
The granulocyte cells that are believed to descend from a common multipotential stem cell in the bone marrow are: a.Neutrophils and eosinohpils b.Basophils and lymphocytes c.Lymphocytes and monocytres d.Both A and B
A. Neutrophils and eosinohpils
99
The tissue basophil can be referred to as __________ a.Mast cell b.Macrophage c.Mononuclear cell d.Antibody-producing cell
A. Mast cell
100
A leukocyte with the morphological characteristics of being the largest normal mature leukocyte in the peripheral blood and having a convoluted or twisted nucleus is the: a.Myelocyte b.Metamyelocyte c.Promonocyte d.Monocyte
D. Monocyte