ISBB REVA Flashcards by Sharmaine Madjid

Genetically different individuals of the same species are referred to as:

a.Allogenic

b.Heterogenic

c.Autogenic

d.Isogenic

A. Allogenic

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The chemical composition of an antibody is:

a.Protein

b.Lipid

c.Carbohydrate

d.Any of the above

A. Protein

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The immunogenecity of an antigen depends greatly on:

a.Its biochemical composition

b.Being structurally unstable

c.Its degree of foreignness

d.Having a low molecular weight

C. Its degree of foreignness

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Monoclonal antibodies have all the following characteristics except:

a.Purified antibodies

b.Cloned from a single cell

c.Engineered to bind to a
single specific antigen

d.Frequent occurrence in nature

D. Frequent occurrence in nature

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In a secondary (anamnestic) respond, all of the following characteristics are correct except:

a.IgG is the predominant antibody type

b.It has a shorter lag phase

c.The antibody titer is lower

d.It has a more gradual decline in antibody response

C. The antibody titer is lower

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The surface MHC class II gene product is important in:

a.Antigen recognition by T lymphocytes

b.Antigen recognition by B lymphocytes

c.Synthesis of antibodies by plasma cells

d.Phagocytosis

A. Antigen recognition by T lymphocytes

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A primary function of the eosinophil is:

a.Phagocytosis

b.Suppression of the inflammatory response

c.Reacting in acute, systemic hypersensitivity reactions

d.Antigen reaction

B. Suppression of the inflammatory response

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Which activity is associated with interferon?

a.Enhances phagocytosis

b.Retards expression of
specific genes

c.Promotes complement-mediated cytolysis

d.Interferes with viral replication

D. Interferes with viral replication

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Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) differs from IL-1 in that TNF is not able to:

a.Mediate an acute inflammatory reaction

b.Increase the expression of IL-2 receptors

c.Enhance the proliferation and differentiation of B lymphocytes

d.Stimulate T cell proliferation

C. Enhance the proliferation and differentiation of B lymphocytes

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A classic technique for the detection of viral antibodies is:

a.Passive hemagglutination

b.Indirect hemagglutination

c.Hemagglutination
inhibition

d.Latex particle agglutination

B. Indirect hemagglutination

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Where does antigen-independent maturation of B lymphocytes take place?

a.Bone marrow

b.Thymus

c.Spleen

d.Lymph nodes

A. Bone marrow

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Which of the following cytokines is also known as the T-cell growth factor?

a.IFN-gamma

b.IL-12

c.IL-2

d.IL-10

C. IL-2

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Which represents the main function of IgD?

a.Protection of the mucous membranes

b.Removal of antigens by complement fixation

c.Enhancing proliferation of B cells

d.Destruction of parasitic worms

C. Enhancing proliferation of B cells

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What is the purpose of HAT medium in the preparation of monoclonal antibody?

a.Fusion of the 2 cell types

b.Restricting the growth of
myeloma cells

c.Restricting the growth of spleen cells

d.Restricting antibody production to the IgM class

B. Restricting the growth of
myeloma cells

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Which would be the best assay to measure a specific cytokine?

a.Blast formation

b.T-cell proliferation

c.Measurement of leukocyte chemotaxis

d.ELISA Testing

D. ELISA Testing

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Mannose-binding protein in the lectin pathway is most similar to which classical pathway component?

a.C3

b.C1rs

c.C1q

d.C4

C. C1q

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How does measurement of turbidity differ from nephelometry?

a.Turbidity measures the increase In light after it passes through a solution.

b.Nephelemeotry measures light that is scattered at an angle.

c.Turbidity deals with univalent antigens only.

d.Nephelometry is not affected by large particles falling out of solution.

B. Nephelemeotry measures light that is scattered at an angle.

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Which statement best describes flow-through immunoassays?

a.Results are quantitative

b.They are designed for point of care testing.

c.Reagents must be added separately

d.They are difficult to interpret.

B. They are designed for point of care testing.

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How are DNA and RNA different?

a.Only RNA contains uracil

b.Only DNA contains cytosine

c.DNA is usually single stranded

d.DNA is less stable than RNA

A. Only RNA contains uracil

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Humoral components of the adaptive immune system include:

a.T-lymphpocytes

b.B-lymphocytes

c.Antibodies

d.Saliva

C. Antibodies

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Which of the following is an accurate statement about monoclonal antibodies (MAbs)?

a.MAbs are antibodies engineered to bind to a single epitope.

b.MAbs are purified antibodies cloned from a single cell.

c.MAbs are used to classify and identify specific cellular membrane characteristics/

d.All of the above are correct.

D. All of the above are correct.

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The first type of antibody that may be apparent in the immune response to an infectious disease is:

a.IgM

b.IgG

c.IgD

d.IgA

A. IgM

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Rapid preliminary diagnosis of varicella-zoster virus can be done in the laboratory by:

a.Direct immunofluorescence

b.Viral isolation

c.ELISA method

d.Complement fixation

A. Direct immunofluorescence

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For an infectious disease to develop in a host, the organism must initially:

a.Survive phagocytosis

b.Be in the log phase of multiplication

c.Penetrate the skin or mucuous membrane barrier

d.Be present in the host for 7 to 10 days

C. Penetrate the skin or mucous membrane barrier

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Factors that inluence the development of an infectious disease include all the following except the: a.Immune status of the individual b.Incidence of an organism in the population c.Pathogenecity of the agent d. Sole presence of the agent or microorganism

D. Sole presence of the agent or microorganism

Immunocompetent patients infected with T. pallidum produce: a.Specific antibodies against T. pallidum b.Nonspecific antibodies against the protein antigen group common to pathogenic spirochetes c.Reagin antibodies d.All of the above

D. AOTA

Lyme disease is a _______ type of infection a.Bacterial b.Parasitic c.Viral d.Fungal

A. Bacterial

The presence of IgM antibodies to T. gondii in an adult is indicative of a(an): a.Carrier State b.Active Infection c.Chronic Infection d.Latent Disease

B. Active Infection

A most likely mode of CMV acquisition is: a.Irradiated blood products b.Non-irradiated blood transfusions containing viable leukocytes c.Venereal route d. All of the above

B. Non-irradiated blood transfusions containing viable leukocytes

IgM heterophile antibody is characterized by all of the following features except: a.Reacts with horse, ox, sheep RBCs b.Absorbed by beef erythrocytes c.Absorbed by guinea pig kidney cells d.Does not react with EBV-specific antigens

C. Absorbed by guinea pig kidney cells

Anti-EBNA IgG does not appear until a patient has entered the: a.Initial phase of infection b.Primary infection phase c.Convalescent period d.Reactivation of infectious stage

C. Convalescent period

Another name for hepatitis B infection is: a.Infectious hepatitis b.Long incubation hepatitis c.Australia antigen d. Dane particle

B. Long incubation hepatitis

The first laboratory screening test of donor blood was for the detection of: a.HBc b.HBsAg c.HBe d. Anti-HBe

B. HBsAg

Which surface marker is a reliable marker for the presence of high levels of hepatitis B virus (HBV) and a high degree of infectivity? a.HBeAg b.HBsAg c.HBcAg d.Anti-HbsAg

A. HBeAg

Which of the following is a characteristic of the delta agent? a.Is a DNA virus b.Usually replicates only in HBV-infected hosts c.Infects patietns who are HBcAg positive d.Is frequently found in the United States

B. Usually replicates only in HBV-infected hosts

Which of the following viruses is rarely implicated in transfusion-associated hepatitis? a.Hepatitis A b.Hepatitis B c.Hepatitis C d.Cytomegalovirus

A. Hepatitis A

The greatest risk of the manifestation of anomalies in maternal rubella is __________ of gestation a.During the first month b.During the first trimester c.During the third mont d.During the fourth or fifth month

A. During the first month

The major structural protein (core) of the HIV-1 virus is: a.gp41 b.p24 c.gp34 d.gp140

B. p24

HIV can infect all of the following cells except: a.CD4+ subset of lymphocytes b.Macrophages c.Monocytes d.Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

D. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

The most rapidly growing segment of the HIV-infected population is: a.Homosexual males b.Lesbians c.Health care workers d.IV drugs users and their sexual partners

D. IV drugs users and their sexual partners

The AIDS-causing virus HIV has also been referred to as: a.Human T-lymphotropic virus type III b.HTLV-III c.Lymphadenopathy- associated virus (LAV) d.AOTA

C. Lymphadenopathy- associated virus (LAV)

All of the following methods have been developed to detect the presence of HIV-1 viral gene except: a.Radioimmunoassay b.In situ hybridization c.Southern blot analysis d.DNA amplification

A. Radioimmunoassay

With which cell type are anaphylactic reactions associated? a.T lymphocyte b.B lymphocyte c.Monocyte d.Mast

D. Mast

Type III reactions are exemplified by all of the following except: a.Arthus reaction b.Serum sickness c.Glomerulonephritis d.Shingles

D. Shingles

Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions can be associated with: a.Food allergies b.Hay fever c.Asthma d.AOTA

D. AOTA

The most common agents that cause anaphylactic reactions are: a.Drugs and food b.Drugs and insect stings c.Poison ivy and insect stings d.Food and insect stings

B. Drugs and insect stings

An example of delayed nonhemolytic (Type II hypersensitivity) reaciton is: a.Febrile reaction b.Graft-versus-host disease c.Urticaria d.Congestive heart failure

B. Graft-versus-host disease

What is the most frequent cause of death in a patient with multiple myeloma? a.Skeletal destruction b.Chronic renal failure c.Neurologic disorders d.Infectious disease

D. Infectious disease

Most patients with multiple myeloma manifest: a.Bone pain b.Acute renal failure c.No symptoms d.Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly

A. Bone pain

M proteins are associated with all of the ff. malignant conditions except: a.Multiple myeloma b.Plasmacytoma c.Malignant lymphoproliferative diseases d.Lymphoma

D. Lymphoma

Which genotype confers the Bombay blood type? a.Hh b.hh c.Sese d.Lele

B. hh

52.The storage temperature for packed red blood cells is ____________ a.1-10 deg C b.1-4 deg C c.1-6 deg C d.20-25 deg F

A. 1-10 deg C

Fresh frozen plasma must be stored at: a.Colder than -18 deg C for no longer than 1 year from donation b.Colder than -38 deg C for no longer than 1 year from donation c.Exactly -18 deg C for no longer than 1 year from donation d.-18 dec C to -38 deg C for up to 10 years from donation

A. Colder than -18 deg C for no longer than 1 year from donation

Concerning the component and the required quality control results, which of the following is a true statement? a.FFP must have 80 international units of fibrinogen in 7 units tested b.Cryoprecipitate must have 80 international units of factor VIII c.Leukocyte-reduced red blood cells must have fewer than 3.3x10^11 WBCs in each unit d.Platelets must have no red blood cells

B. Cryoprecipitate must have 80 international units of factor VIII

One indication for transfusion of thawed/pooled cryoprecipitate would be replacement of which of the following? a.Factor X in hemophiliacs b.Factor VIII in massively transfused patients c.Fibrinogen d.Volume

C. Fibrinogen

Which is the most likely reason frozen deglycerolized red blood cells would be used? a.A patient with antibodies to a high-frequency antigen b.Pregnant women requiring intrauterine transfusions c.Emergency transfusion situations d.Group AB Rh-nehative patients

A. A patient with antibodies to a high-frequency antigen

Fresh frozen plasma must be thawed at which temperature? a.1 deg to 6 deg C b.Room temperature c.37 deg C d.40 deg C or higher

C. 37 deg C

A 22-year old female with a cousin with AIDS who had taken aspirin the day before and with needle marks on both arms presents to donate whole blood. Based on this information, would you accept permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor? a.PD, needle marks on both arms b.TD, needle marks on both arms c.PD, cousin with AIDS d. TD, because of the aspirin

A. PD, needle marks on both arms

Each unit of blood must be tested for all of the following except: a.Anti-HIV 1/2 b.HBsAg c.Antigen to HCV

C. Antigen to HCV

Platelets must be kept in constant motion for which of the following reasons? a.Maintain the pH so the platelets will be alive before transfusion b.Keep the platelets in suspension and prevent clumping of the platelets c.Mimic what is going on in the blood vessels d.Preserve the coagulation factors and platelet viability

B. Keep the platelets in suspension and prevent clumping of the platelets

Of the following, which genotypes would result in the B phenotype? a.BB b.AB c.BO d.A and B e. A and C

E. A and C

In performing tube testing, you see many medium-sized agglutinates in a clear background. How would you grade this reaction? a.2+ b.1+ c.4+ d.3+

A. 2+

A “directed donor” unit of blood is defined as a unit of blood from a person who gives blood for: a.Relief of polycythemia or other blood disorder b.His or her specific use only c.First-degree blood relative d.Another person he or she has specified

D. Another person he or she has specified

Which of the antigens below is considered low incidence? a.Fya b.S c.C d.Kpa

D. Kpa

Before the patient can receive a directed donation unit, the patient requires which of the following to be completed? a.Type and screen only b.Type and screen and compatibility testing c.Retype of patient and donor unit d.No additional testing is required

B. Type and screen and compatibility testing

A newborn has a positive DAT. What is the best procedure to determine the antibody causing DAT in this newborn? a.An antibody titer on the mother’s serum b.An antibody panel on the mother’s serum c.An antibody panel perfomed on the eluate of the mother’s cells d. An antibody panel performed on the eluate of the baby’s cells

B. An antibody panel on the mother’s serum

What should be done first if a mother types as O and the baby types as AB? a.Report the results with no further testing b.Try to get a sample from the father c.Recheck all labels, get new samples, if necessary, and retest d.Retype using all new reagents

C. Recheck all labels, get new samples, if necessary, and retest

Which immunodominant sugar confers A antigen specificity? a.D-galactose b.L-fucose c.N-acetylgalactosamine d.Both A and C

C. N-acetylgalactosamine

Which is true of antibodies to Kidd blood group system antigens? a.They are enhanced by enzymes b.Titers can quickly drop in patients c.Both A and B d.NOTA

C. Both A and B

Which of the following is true of the Lewis system? a.Lewis antigens are found on type II precursor cells b.Lewis antigens are well developed at birth c.Antibodies to Lewis antigens always cause HTRs d.Antibodies to Lewis antigens rarely cross the placenta

D. Antibodies to Lewis antigens rarely cross the placenta

Which of the ff. antibodies is classified as “biphasic” an an autoantibody? a.Anti-B b.Anti-P c.Anti-H d.Anti-Lea

B. Anti-P

If a patient has an A2 ABO type, which of the ff. statements is true? a.The patient’s red cells will react with anti-A1 lectin b.The patient’s serum will react with A2 cells c.The patient’s red cells will react with anti-A2 lectin d.The patient’s serum will react with A1 cells if anti-A1 is present

C. The patient’s red cells will react with anti-A2 lectin

Which reagent destroys all of the Kell blood group system antigens? a.DTT b.Chloroquine diphosphate c.AHG d.LISS

A. DTT

You have performed an antibody screen using the tube method. All three screening cells tested negative. The Coombs check cells in all three tubes are also nonreactive. What should you do? a.Respin the tubes and reread them b.Report the antibody screen as negative c.Repeat the antibody screen d.Perform an antibody identification panel

C. Repeat the antibody screen

A patient has a currently nonreactive antibody screen but has a history of anti-Jka in the patient file. Which type of crossmatch must be performed on this patient? a.Immediate spin crossmatch b.IAT crossmatch c.Electronic crossmatch d.Both A and C

B. IAT crossmatch

A recently transfused patient has a 3+ reactive DAT with anti-IgG. Which procedure should be used to identify the specificity of the IgG antibody attached to the red cells? a.Adsorption b.Neutralization c.Titration d. Elution

D. Elution

What blood type is not possible for the offspring of AO and BO parents? a.AB b.A or B c.O d.All are possible

D. All are possible

A patient’s ABO blood type is determined by which of the following? a.Genetic inheritance and environmental factors b.Genetic inheritance c.Environmental factors d.Immune function e.Maternal blood type

B. Genetic inheritance

An end-point of tube testing other than agglutination that must also be considered a positive reaction is: a.Clumping b.Mixed-field c.Hemolysis d.Microscopic

B. Hemolysis

How many molecules of IgM are needed to fix complement? a.1 b.2 c.3 d.4

A. 1

Mixed-field (mf) agglutination can be observed in the: a.DAT on a person undergoing delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction b.IAT result of a patient who has anti-Lea c.DAT on a patient on high doses of penicllin d.Typing result with anti-A of a patient who is A2 subgroup

A. DAT on a person undergoing delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

In which situation(s) may the ABO serum grouping not be valid? a.The patient has hypogammaglobulinemia b.IgM antibodies are present c.Cold autoantibodies are present d.AOTA

D. AOTA

A genetic state in which no detectable trait exists is called: a.Recessive b.Dominant c.Incomplete dominance d.Amorph

D. Amorph

Which antibody can be neutralized with a specific reagent? a.Anti-D b.Anti-Jka c.Anti-M d.Anti-Lea

D. Anti-Lea

An IgA-deficient patient with clinically significant anti-IgA requires which of the following? a.Leukocyte-reduced fresh frozen plasma b.CMV-seronegative RBCs c.Irradiated RBCs and platelets d.Washed RBCs

D. Washed RBCs

Anti-H will react weakest will blood from a person with __________ a.Group O b.Group A1 c.Group A2 d.Group A2B

B. Group A1

The use of EDTA samples for the direct antiglobulin test prevents activation of the classical complement pathway by: a.Causing rapid decay of complement proteins b.Chelating Mg2+ ions, preventing assembly of C6 c.Chelating Ca2+ ions, preventing assembly of C1 d.Preventing chemotaxis

C. Chelating Ca2+ ions, preventing assembly of C1

If a person has the genetic makeup Hb, AO, LeLe, sese, what substance will be found in the secretions? a.A substance b.H substance c.Lea substance d.Leb substance

C. Lea substance

Before A and B antigens can be expressed, the precursor substance must have the terminal sugar _______ a.D-Galactose b.N-Acetylgalactosamine c.Glucose d.L-FUCOSE

D. L-Fucose

A white female’s RBCs gave the ff. reactions: D+, C+, E-, c+, e+. The most probable Rh genotype? a.DCe/Dce b.DCe/dce c.DCe/DcE d.Dce/dCe

B. DCe/dce

Autologous presurgical donations are not allowed for which of the ff. patients? a.Weight less than 100 lb b.Under the age of 13 c.With hemoglobin of 13 g/dL d.With bacteremia

D. With bacteremia

Which of the ff. viruses resides exclusively in leukocytes? a.HCV b.HBV c.CMV d.HIV

C. CMV

If a D-positive person makes anti-D, this person is most likely: a.Partial D b.D negative c.Weak D as position effect d.Weak D becausee of transmissible genes

A. Partial D

Which antibody could cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn? a.Anti-I b.Anti-K c.Anti-Lea d.Anti-N

B. Anti-K

In preparing platelets from a unit of whole blood, the correct order of centrifugation is: a.Hard spin followed by a hard spin b.Light spin followed by a light spin c.Light spin followed by a hard spin d.Hard spin followed by a light spin

C. Light spin followed by a hard spin

A serum containing anti-k is not frequently encountered because of which of the following? a.People who lack the k antigen are rare b.People who possess the k antigen are rare c.The k antigen is not a good immunogen d.Kell-null people are rare

A. People who lack the k antigen are rare

Which product is least likely to transmit hepatitis? a.Cryoprecipitate b.Plasma protein fractions c.RBC d.Platelets

B. Plasma protein fractions

Of the red cells listed, which has the most D antigen present? a.Rh null b.D positive c.dce/dce d.D--

D. D--

Which is true of the Duffy blood group system? a.Antigens are resistant to enzyme treatment b.Antibodies never show dosage c.Fya and Fyb are codominant alleles d.The majority of whites are Fy(a-b-)

C. Fya and Fyb are codominant alleles

A trauma patient with type AB is seen at a rural hospital. The hospital only has 3 units of type AB RBCs. What blood type of RBCs can the patient receive as an alternative? a.Type O b.Type B c.Type A d.AOTA

D. AOTA

ISBB REVA Flashcards

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