Hematology Flashcards

(147 cards)

1
Q

Blood is made of what percentage of water?

A

92% water and 8% dissolved substances (solutes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What percentage is plasma?

A

50-55%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Whole blood is percentage by volume

A

Plasma 55%
Formed elements 45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Plasma is made up of what volume of blood?

A

50-55% of blood volume of which 90% is water and 10% solute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Whole blood is made of ?

A

Plasma 55% of total blood
Buffy coat ( leukocytes & plasma) <1%
Erythrocytes 45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

50% of cells in blood is what?

A

Erythrocytes- RBC
Leukocytes- WBC
Platelet - Thrombocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List the plasma proteins

A

Albumin - most abundant-57%
Globulins
Clotting factors- (fibrinogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Buffy coat is made up of what?

A
  1. Platelets

2 Leukocytes - neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils and basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which is the most abundant leukocyte

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What’s the function of blood!

A

Respiratory gas exchange
Transport of nutrients and waste
Themoregulation
Hemostasis
Immunity
Regulate cell function, osmotic pressure and pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Plasma is made up of what?

A

Water, electrolytes and gases.
Proteins which are; albumin, globulins, fibrinogen, additional immune mediators and clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the function of plasma protein albumin

A

Albumin is most abundant protein

**Function*
works to maintain colloidal osmotic pressure within circulatory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What’s the function of blood protein globulin(alpha, beta and gamma globulins

A

Gamma globulin is immunoglobulin- antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Function of fibrinogen

A

Protein that converts to fibrin and is necessary for clot formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Erythrocytes- RBC

A

Most prevalent blood cell in peripheral blood
Function:
1. Tissue oxygenation, contain Hgb
2. has compensatory capability.ie can increase number in anoxic environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What the classification of leukocytes?

A

Granulocyte and agranulocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Examples of granulocyte are

A

Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Examples of agranulocytes are

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are platelets(thrombocytes)?

A

Platelets are cellular fragments stemming from the megakaryocytrs in bone marrow

Function:
Important for clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

RBC originate from?

A

Myeloid stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Granulocyte originates from where?

A

Myeloid stem cells to
myeloblast to
granulocyte ( neutrophil, basophils and eosinophils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cytokines

A

Small proteins important for cell signalling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the classifications of cytokines?

A

Autocrine action: have effects on cells that secrete them

Paracrine action: have effects on surrounding cells

Endocrine action: may also act on far away cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What function of cytokines

A

Play role in inflammation, pain sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Erythropoietin EPO
Red blood cell production
26
Eosinophils
Nucleus sometimes in 2 pieces Has bright red granules in cytoplasm Function: Control inflammation, phagocytosis, defence agains parasites, allergic reaction
27
What are functions of eosinophils
Control inflammation Phagocytosis Defence against parasites Allergic reaction
28
Basophil characteristics
Has bright blue granule in cell protoplasm Function; Allergic reaction Parasites
29
Basophil function
Inflammation Allergic reaction
30
Neutrophils characteristics
Nucleus is segmented Main component of pus
31
Function of neutrophils
For response to infection and inflammation. Phagocytosis Increase in number is indication of infection
32
Characteristics of platelet
Derived from megakaryocytes Circulate in inactive state Activate the clotting cascade
33
Where do platelet originate from
Megakaryocytes
34
RBC is made up of what?
4 heme and 4 polypeptide 4 iron atoms
35
Function of RBC?
Deliver O2 Remove CO2
36
RBC production and EPO
Low O2 stimulate kidney to produce erythropoietin EPO. EPO induce bone marrow to produce RBC
37
In what form do platelet circulate
Inactive form
38
Neutrophil is important for what?
Acute response to infection and inflammation
39
What cells are seen in leukaemia?
Increase in immature WBC because immature cells are pushed out too quickly
40
In immunosuppressives individuals what do you find
Low neutrophil count
41
EPO is what?
Cytokine produced in kidney
42
Why should they be on high alert for those receiving erythropoietin? By cancer pt
It can lead to emboli and thrombus formation
43
EPO in oncology caused what?
Produced adverse reaction such as pulmonary emboli, thrombus and increased relapse in solid tumor
44
What is the use of EPO
Use to decrease transfusion in palliative patients
45
EPO uses?
To treat anemia related to kidney dysfunction To anemia due to chemotherapy For performance enhancement in athletes
46
Systolic murmur/he is murmur/flow murmur occurring due to what?
Anemia because increased blood flow over heart valves
47
Physical signs of anemia are?
Pale skin and mucus membranes is important in diagnosis if anemia is severe- <80
48
In elderly and individual with CAD what are some signs present in severe anaemia that are signs of CHF
Distended neck vein, tachycardia, right upper quadrant abdominal tenderness, hepatomegaly
49
Neurological findings (Paresthesia, balance problem, stocking-glove neuropathy and confusion can be found in which patient?
Vitamin B12 deficiency patients
50
IDA anemia what are the lab findings
Microcytic, Hypochromic Ferritin low
51
Treatment of IDA
Increase iron in diet Ferrous gluconate, sulphate or fumerate (Give with vit C)
52
AE related to IDA treatment and response
Adverse effect(AE): Nausea + constipation IV allergic reaction Response: start slow, go slow Laxatives Increase dietary fibre
53
B12 anemia lab findings
Macrocyclic, normocromic
54
Cause of B12 anemia is what?
Malabsorption due to lack of intrinsic factor
55
Treatment of B12 deficiency
Oral B12 or IM
56
AE related treatment
Headache, joint pain, dizziness, cold symptoms
57
Folate deficit lab finding
Macrocytic normocromic Serum folate test not normally performed by if done it’s low serum folate
58
Treatment of folate deficiency
Oral folic acid
59
AE related to folate deficiency treatment
Nausea, loss of appetite, confusion, irritability, allery
60
Thalassemia anemia lab findings
Microcytic hypochromic
61
Treatment of thalassmia
Regular transfusions with h chelation therapy to reduce iron overload
62
What’s the AE related to thalassemia treatment?
Iron overload Response: chelation therapy to prevent iron overload
63
Anaemia of chronic disease lab findings
Normocytic normocromic
64
What is hemostasis
Arrest bleeding
65
What are the 3 systems involved in hemostasis?
Platelet factors Platelets Vasculature
66
Coagulation factors circulate in what forms?
Inactive forms and require enzyme cleavage to become active
67
What are the 4 major events in hemostasis?
Vasoconstriction and plug formation Activation of coagulation factors and inhibition of thrombin Fibrin clot formation and stablilization Prevention of further coagulation and clot breakdown
68
What’s the process of platelet plug formation?
Vasoconstriction Adhesion Aggregation
69
Activation of coagulation factors and initiation of thrombin involves what?
Initiation of coagulation Amplification phase Propagation phase
70
What happens in primary hemostasis?
Injury to vessels exposes subendothlium (collagen) results in Vasoconstriction of smooth muscles Adhesion as a result of vWF which act as glue causingAggregation of platelet Platelet aggregate as a result of fibrinogen and forms a platelets plug Platelet aggregate perpetuate the phospholipid surface that activates coagulation factor
71
What is D dimer
A major product of fibrin degradation
72
When is d dimer test use and for what?
When coagulopathy is suspected- e.g DVT
73
Secondary hemostasis involves what?
Initiation: TF release from injured cells and monocytes TF and factor VIIa activated IX and X to generate thrombin Amplification: Thrombin activates factor V to factor Va, factor VIII to VIIIa and more platelet and Factor XI to XIa Propagation: More factor Xa is produced when TF/FVIIa complex activated FIX resulting in FIXa which along with FVIIIa cuausinf more X to convert to Xa Xa and Va with Ca and phospholipids form prothrombinase complex conveying FII (prothrombin to thrombin FIIa)
74
Fibrin clot formation and stabilization
Thrombin convert fibrinogen to fibrin to form stronger clot Thrombin activated XIII with cross link fibrin monomers to stabilize it further
75
Inhibition of coagulation
Thrombin binds to membrane receptor to activate protein C, activated protein C (APC), APC combine with Protein S, to slow down factor Va and VIII a which slows the process Thrombin becomes inactivated Anti thrombin further inhibit thrombin
76
Fibrinolysis
T-PA convert plasminogen to plasmin which breaks down fibrins and it shows up as D dimer in test
77
What is anti thrombin
Glycoprotein synthesized in liver Circulate in blood Half life 2-3 days Natural anti- coagulant Inhibits activation of factors thrombin(factor IIa), factor Xa and to lesser extent factor XIa and Factor IX. Heparin significantly increase the inhibition rate
78
What are the 3 factors that increase risk of thrombosis ( Virchow’s triad)
Flow stasis Endothelial damage Hypercoagulable state
79
How does flow stasis impact thrombosis?
Flow stasis occur in immobile individual e.g bedrest, long trip on airplane smoke is because of the increase blood viscosity and in chronic illness such as multiple myeloma
80
Epithelial damage in virchow’s triad of increase risk of thrombosis
Epithelial damage causes platelets to aggregate. People living with cancer and chronic disease has increased risk of theombosis
81
Hypercoagulable state
Individual with high platelet count Antos with specific cancer, are prone coagulopathy
82
Replacing iron in some with high ferritin could cause what?
Iron overload
83
Most common anemia is what?
Iron deficiency anemia
84
Most common anaemia in older adult is what?
Anemia is chronic diasese
85
Treatment of IDA
Oral Ferrous sulphate, ferrous gluconate and ferrous fumerate
86
What’s the commonest IDA treatment in older adult?
Ferrous fumerate due to less side effect
87
Side effects of oral iron
Constipation- to mitigate start slow and go slow. E.g once a day and later update to 1-2x/ day
88
If oral iron is not enough what do you do?
Perenteral iron E.g venfer or Iron dextran(risk of anaphylaxis but not very common)
89
IDA is what type of anemia?
Microcytic homochromic anemia
90
B12 and folate deficiency is what type of anemia
Macrocytic anemia
91
Treatment of B12 and folate deficiency?
B12- cobalamin oral or injection Folic acid form that
92
B12 1000mcg orally is use to treat what?
Help improve B12 deficiency in individuals that have B12 deficiency not related to pernicious anemao
93
Folate deficiency -anemia in pregnancy
Replace folate to prevent neural tube defect in fetus
94
If one has Macrocytic anemia how do you treat?
Check if it’s B12 or folate If you replace flolate and it’s B12 deficiency, it can mask B12 deficiency and B12 deficiency untreated can cause neurological problems
95
Treating folate when someone has B12 deficiency?
The Macrocytic nature of the problem will go away but B12 deficiency is not addressed. Can cause neurological consequences
96
ASA
Has fallen out of favour Used by client who cannot take other anticoagulant E.g atrial fibrillation
97
ASA is used for what?
People with thrombotic stroke as secondary prevention
98
Can ASA be used in children
Not without the advice of Pediatric hematolgist
99
What mode of action of warfarin?
Inhibit enzyme needed to activate vit K
100
What are the disadvantages of warfarin?
Need frequent INR monitoring Interact with many medications Dose adjust based on INR INR target 2-3
101
Heparin is given how
IV or SQ
102
Heparin and LMW Heparin are what?
Antithrombin activators
103
What do you use to monitor heparin
PTT or anti 10a assay 1/2 life is 60-90mins
104
To reverse effect of heparin what do you do?
Discontinue 4hrs before planned surgery For urgent revasal antidote is Protamine
105
What’s the antidote for heparin
Protamine
106
LMW heparin
Indirect anticoagulants Inhibits 10a and 2a Administered sq They don’t require monitoring If needing to monitor use anti 10 1/2 life 3-6hrs Renal my cleared D/c 10-12 hrs before procedure No antidote
107
Properties of heparin
Polysaccharide chain Does not cross membrane (safe in pregnancy and Breast feeding)
108
How does heparin compare to warfarin
Heparin has rapid onset where is warfarin has slow onset
109
Does LMW heparin require PTT monitoring
No. Only fractionated heparin need PTT
110
Difference between heparin and LMW Heparin
LMW heparin has shorter molecules Inactivate 10a Where as heparin inactivate 10a & thrombin
111
What is an example of direct thrombin inhibitors?
Diabigitran- for treating stroke related nonvalvular aerial fib and prophylactic treatment of veinous embolism 1/2 life 15hrs Contraindicated in patient with eGFR <30
112
Diabigitran is contraindicated in which population?
Pt with eGFR <30 + pregnancy
113
What is the dose of Diabigitran?
150mg BID
114
What are the need to know about Diabigitran therapy
Contraindicated in eGFR <30 SE: dyspepsia and gastritis Do not give with P- glycoprotein (ketoconazole) quinidine (cause bleeding)
115
Antidote for Diabigitran
Idracuzimuba
116
Antidote for Diabigitran
Idarucizumab
117
Antidote for Diabigitran
Idarucizumab 5g IV bolus
118
What’s and example of factor 10a inhibitor
Rivtoxaban, apixaban and edoxaban
119
Direct factor Xa (10a) inhibitor ( Riviroxaban, apixaban and edoxaban)
Advantage: 1. fix dose 2. No INR 3. Low risk bleed Disadvantage 1 unsafe in pregnancy 2. Accumulate in p glycoproteins inhibitor ( ketoconazole) and CYP3A4 Apixaban effectiveness decreased by st John wort
120
Special consideration in Direct doctor Xa inhibitors (Apixaban and Riviroxaban)
Stop 1-2 day before procedure
121
Antidote to direct factor Xa inhibitors (Riviroxaban apixaban
Andexa
122
Cytokine - colony stimulating factor G-CSG and GM-CSF are use where and for what?
In oncology to stimulate WBC, for neutropenic patient at risk for infection GCSF to stimulate partial blood stem cells. Use for transplant
123
What are the side effects of G CSF and GM-CSF
Aches and pain in large bones Flu like symptoms WBC will be elevated in CBC
124
EPO is used where
In renal failure clients dialysis Was used in oncology but has adverse effect- increase viscosity of blood causes thrombosis like events Early relapse
125
MCV <80 means what
Microcytic
126
If MCV is normal?
Normocytic
127
If MCV is >100
Macrocytic
128
When looking at CBC what do you look at first
Hgb WBC Platelets Looking for abnormalities
129
Decreased hemoglobin you look at what
MCV- volume of cell
130
MCHC mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration tell what?
Tells colour of cells
131
List iron deficiencies that have microcytic RBC
IDA- most common anemia Hemaglobinopathy - thalassemia Anemia of chronic disease Lead poisoning
132
Anemia has d chronic Disease
Can be microcytic but usually Normocytic
133
IDA
Defective synthesis of Hgb resulting in smaller that normal cells (microcytic) which contain reduce Amon cell of Hgb (hyoochromic)
134
Symptoms of IDA
Fatigue Dyspnea Pica Pallor- pale conjunctivia Taste disturbance Restless leg syndrome Headache dizziness
135
Other symptoms
Glossitis- inflammation of tongue Angular stomatitis-cracks at mouth connects Koilonychia- spoon shaped nail
136
Sickle cell disease
Sickle cell shape which decrease survival of cell Coagulatanopathy
137
Test for sickle cell
CBC High to normal MCV with mild anemia Sickle cell in blood film Sicledex- screening test Hemoglobin electrophoresis Hemolytic anemia workup
138
Thalassemia mechanism of deficency
Alpha- Thalassemia (alpha globin chain synthesis defect Beta - Thalassemia (insufficient or absent production of beta globin chain)
139
Types of Thalassemia
Thalassemia minor (trait) mike asymptomatic microcytic anemia Thalassemia intermedia Thalassemia major-develop at early age(before 1yr) results in sever anemia Lab: CBC anemia with low MCV, normal ferritin Nucleated RBC film
140
Anemia of chronic disease
2nd most common anemia Decrease RBC production by bone marrow
141
What are the causes if anemia or chronic disease
Cancer CKD Liver churros is Hepatitis B &C Auto immune (SLE and RA) Infection (HIV/AIDS, osteomyelitis and endocarditis) DM Heart failure
142
Lab work for anemia of chronic disease
CBC Mild anemia (Hgb 100-110g/L with normal MCV) Low reticukocyte Normal or high ferritin Low serum iron/TICB/ soluble transferrin receptor Increased CPR or ESR
143
Anemia of chronic disease is more common in which age group
Older adults
144
Why is inflammation a marker in anemia of chronic disease
It’s thought that the inflammation is responsible for the degradation of the RBC
145
Lead poison
Rare, found in children Hypochromic microcytix anemia Lead interfere with heme, causing RBC destruction and a decrease in Hgb Dx: serum lead levels
146
Further diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia
Serum ferritin- diagnostic test of choice for IDA ( low level) Serum iron level
147
What’s the test of choice to diagnosing Iron deficiency anemia?
Serum ferritin