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Veterinary Physiology > Hematology > Flashcards

Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Normal blood separates into _____ formed elements and ____ plasma

A

45% formed elements; 55% plasma

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2
Q

Formed elements separates into (2)

A

Buffy coat (WBC/platelets) and RBCs

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3
Q

The composition of plasma is ____ water, ___ protein and ___ other solutes

A

90% water; 7% protein; 3% other solutes

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4
Q

Of all protein in plasma, what makes up the majority; what about the second highest

A

albumin (60%); globulins (35%)

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5
Q

What is the role of transient proteins in the bloodstream

A

No functional role; we use them as markers of damaged and dying cells

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6
Q

plasma vs serum

A

plasma: anticoagulants added; contains clotting proteins
serum: allowed to clot; clotting proteins removed

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7
Q

lipidemia looks

A

white

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8
Q

hemoglobinemia looks

A

red

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9
Q

bilirubinemia looks

A

yellow

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10
Q

plasma of a healthy dog and cat is

A

colourless to light yellow (due to bilirubin)

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11
Q

plasma of a healthy cow and horse is

A

medium yellow (due to carotenoids; horses also have a higher bilirubin concentration)

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12
Q

plasma of a healthy sheep and pig is

A

colourless

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13
Q

in what 2 organs is there secretion AND absorption of solutes in blood (as opposed to just outward)

A

kidney and liver

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14
Q

Most enzymes in serum are usually

A

found in cells and leaked out

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15
Q

what are examples of enzymes that are normally not in cells

A

clotting enzymes, lipoprotein lipase

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16
Q

where in the cell can enzymes be localized

A

cytoplasm, mitochondria, ER, intracellular granules, cell membrane

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17
Q

cell enzymes in what location are first to be released

A

cytoplasmic

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18
Q

cell enzymes in what location are released after minor cell injury

A

granule

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19
Q

cell enzymes in what location are released after severe insult

A

mitochondria

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20
Q

cell enzymes in what location are not soluble and only released after severe insult

A

membrane

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21
Q

ALT

A

alanine aminotransferase

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22
Q

AST

A

aspartate aminotransferase

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23
Q

SD

A

sorbitol dehydrogenase

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24
Q

LD

A

lactate dehydrogenase

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25
Q

ALP

A

alkaline phosphatase

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26
Q

GGT

A

gamma glutamyltransferase

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27
Q

CK

A

creatine kinase

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28
Q

what impacts the levels of serum in enzyme (4)

A

tissue concentration of that enzyme; cellular location of the enzyme; amount and severity of tissue injured; rate of removal from the serum

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29
Q

how are enzyme levels commonly measured in blood

A

kinetic assays; add substrate that changes colour in presence of the enzyme

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30
Q

using heparin affects the results of what assay

A

BUN (since heparin is often in the form of ammonium salt)

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31
Q

EDTA, oxalate and citrate affect the results of what assay

A

calcium (since they chelate calcium)

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32
Q

hemolysis results in increased readings for analytes, such as (4)

A

iron, lactate dehydrogenase, potassium, total protein

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33
Q

why do you fast before a blood test

A

lipemia alters many serum factors

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34
Q

what characteristics of serum enzymes make them a useful clinical marker (6)

A

intermediate half-life
rise specifically when tissue is injured
do not rise under normal conditions
easy to measure
tissue-specific
concentration

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35
Q

what is the reference interval for a serum value

A

value (range) of a specific enzyme in a group of clinically healthy animals of the same species

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36
Q

reference intervals are accurate what percentage of the time

A

95%

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37
Q

how does error relate to measuring serum

A

for each test ordered, the chance of a false positive increases by roughly 5% (5% for one test, 9.75% for 2 tests…)

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38
Q

reference values are calculated based on the mean +/- ____ SD

A

mean (level in the healthy population) +/- 2 SD

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39
Q

name 5 factors that can impact test results

A

age, species, stress, lipemia, hemolysis

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40
Q

erythrocyte appearance in mammals

A

anucleate and biconcave

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41
Q

erythrocyte appearance in reptiles and birds

A

nucleated and oval

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42
Q

hemostatic cells in birds and reptiles are called

A

thrombocytes

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43
Q

instead of neutrophils, birds and reptiles have

A

heterophils

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44
Q

what special mononuclear cell is only present in reptiles

A

azurophils

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45
Q

T/F birds have azurophils

A

F; only reptiles

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46
Q

describe the progression of sites of hematopoiesis

A

yolk sac -> liver -> bone marrow

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47
Q

what determines lineage commitment

A

growth factors (GFs) and colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)

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48
Q

what are the sites of extramedullary hematopoiesis in adults

A

spleen, liver

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49
Q

IL-3, M-CSF and GM-CSF stimulate the production of

A

all CFU-Gemm types (everything but lymphocytes)

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50
Q

IL-11 stimulates

A

platelets (as does thrombopoietin)

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51
Q

myeloblasts are the precursor to all

A

granulocytes

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52
Q

the process of erythropoiesis takes

A

5-6 days

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53
Q

describe the stepwise process of erythropoiesis

A

pluripotent stem cell -> CFU-gemm -> BFU-E -> rubriblast -> prorubricyte -> rubricyte -> metarubricyte -> reticulocyte -> RBC

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54
Q

up to what stage are RBC precursors in the proliferative pool

A

up to pro-rubricyte

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55
Q

at what stage are RBC precursors in the maturation pool

A

rubricyte and onwards

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56
Q

what are factors that can impact erythropoiesis

A

the right environment, factors from macrophages and lymphocytes, EPO, cell-cell interactions

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57
Q

how does CKD cause anemia

A

lack of EPO produced by diseased kidneys; diseased kidneys release toxins that negatively impact RBCs

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58
Q

In fetuses _____________ is released by ______________, which is catalyzed into erythropoietin by _______________

A

erthropoietinogen; liver; erythrogenin

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59
Q

In adults, _______________ is released by _________________, which is catalyzed into erythropoietin by _______________.

A

proerythropioetin; kidney; plasma enzyme

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60
Q

what is the lifespan of RBCs in dogs

A

100 days

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61
Q

how many RBCs are replaced daily (%)

A

1%

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62
Q

where are RBCs removed

A

spleen

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63
Q

what is a major factor related to death of RBCs

A

decrease in deformability

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64
Q

heme is catabolized into

A

iron and biliverdin

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65
Q

what happens to biliverdin

A

reduced to bilirubin and released into circulation

66
Q

what happens to bilirubin once it reaches the liver

A

conjugated to form bilirubin-glucuronide

67
Q

what happens to conjugated bilirubin

A

excreted into the intestine and converted to urobiliogen

68
Q

what are reticulocytes

A

immature enucleated erythroid cells that still contain some RNA; slightly bigger than RBCs

69
Q

presence of reticulocytes indicates

A

a productive marrow response (it has all the iron and nutrients to function adaptively)

70
Q

how do reticulocytes look histologically

A

slightly larger and more basophilic (due to RNA)

71
Q

T/F observation of reticulocytes requires methylene blue

A

T

72
Q

with a Wright’s stain, what is observed in the presence of reticulocytes

A

polychromasia

73
Q

polychromasia

A

variation in staining due to the presence of reticulocytes in blood

74
Q

normocytic

A

normal RBC size

75
Q

anisocytosis

A

variation in RBC size

76
Q

macrocyte (macrocytic)

A

increased volume and diameter

77
Q

microcyte (microcytic)

A

decreased volume and diameter

78
Q

hypochromic

A

decreased hemoglobin content and staining

79
Q

normochromic

A

normal staining intensity

80
Q

with what condition is hypochromasia frequently seen

A

iron deficiency anemia

81
Q

basophilic stippling

A

bluish inclusions in the cytoplasm

82
Q

heinz bodies

A

refractile inclusions caused by precipitation of Hg; seen with onion toxicity

83
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies

A

chromatin residues

84
Q

acanthocyte, poikilocyte, leptocyte, spherocyte, etc.

A

morphological changes in the shape and size of RBCs associated with pathologic states

85
Q

how is blood Hg measured

A

by lysing the cells in a volume of blood and then measuring the Hg chemically with a spectrophotometer (as cyanomethhemoglobin)

86
Q

T/F hematocrit and PCV are interchangable terms (for this course)

A

T

87
Q

when RBC numbers are low, PCV/Hct is

A

low

88
Q

what is PVC/Hct

A

percentage of a volume of whole blood composed of RBCs in a centrifuged sample

89
Q

MCV

A

mean corpuscular volume; average volume of each RBC

90
Q

MCH

A

mean corpuscular Hg; average total amount of Hg in each RBC

91
Q

T/F MCH measures the mean volume of Hg in each RBC

A

F; it measures mean total amount of Hg

92
Q

MCHC

A

mean corpuscular Hg concentration; average concentration of Hg in each RBC

93
Q

RDW

A

red cell distribution width; difference in size between largest and smallest RBCs in a sample; indicates increased number of reticulocytes OR smaller cells

94
Q

if MCV is high, the cells are ______; if MCV is low, the cells are _______

A

macrocytic; microcytic

95
Q

Is MCHC or MCH more useful

A

MCHC (corrects for size and volume differences)

96
Q

if MCHC is high, the cells are _________; if MCHC is low, the cells are _________

A

hyperchromic; hypochromic

97
Q

high RDW indicates

A

anisocytosis

98
Q

polycythemia

A

increased number of RBC per ml of blood; associated with elevated PCV and Hb

99
Q

what is a leukemic syndrome that causes polycythemia

A

polycythemia (rubra) vera

100
Q

what is relative polycythemia; how can it be differentiated

A

polycythemia due to dehydration OR splenic contraction; if dehydrated, will also see elevated total protein

101
Q

high PCV with normal protein suggests

A

polycythemia

102
Q

high PCV with high protein suggests

A

dehydration

103
Q

high PCV with decreased EPO suggests

A

polycythemia vera

104
Q

high PCV with increased EPO suggests

A

tumor or hypoxia

105
Q

causes of anemia

A

blood loss, iron deficiency, immune destruction, bone marrow pathologies, chronic inflammation/disease

106
Q

decreased PCV with normal TP suggests

A

anemia

107
Q

normal PCV with elevated TP may suggest

A

anemia with dehydration

108
Q

T/F regenerative anemias have a better prognosis than non-regenerative anemias

A

F

109
Q

what are the cytometric types of anemia

A

normocytic normochromic; macrocytic normochromic; macrocytic hypochromic; microcytic normochromic; microcytic hypochromic

110
Q

what are the erythrokinetic types of anemia

A

regenerative and nonregenerative

111
Q

when are regenerative anemias seen

A

hemolysis with recovery of the iron; single acute hemorrhage with sufficient time for a marrow response

112
Q

what is always an indicator of regenerative anemia

A

anisocytosis and polychromasia

113
Q

IMHA is a

A

regenerative anemia

114
Q

what lab tests allow you to determine increased RBC turnover/production

A

reticulocyte count; bone marrow biopsy; serum unconjugated bilirubin or urine urobilinogen

115
Q

causes of non-regenerative anemia

A

chronic or immediate blood loss (within past 24h); extra-marrow disease/deficiencies (ex. iron); intramarrow disease (ex. leukemia)

116
Q

how long to platelets circulate

A

10 days

116
Q

T/F you may likely see megakaryocytes in blood

A

F; RARELY ever occurs

117
Q

where are megakaryocyte pools

A

spleen, lungs, bone marrow, liver

118
Q

primary hemostasis involves ___________, secondary hemostasis involves __________, and tertiary hemostasis involves ___________

A

formation of the platelet plug; stabilization via fibrin clot; dissolution

119
Q

what does the endothelium secrete to prevent hemostasis

A

prostacyclin (PGI2) and nitric oxide (NO)

120
Q

with vessel injury, platelets

A

adhere to vWf

121
Q

what do activated platelets release

A

ADP - attracts more platelets
serotonin - maintains vasoconstriction
TXA2 - promotes aggregation, degranulation, vasoconstriction

122
Q

normal dogs have platelet counts greater than __________ and horses _________

A

200,000; 100,000

123
Q

bleeding occurs when platelet counts are less than

A

30,000

124
Q

coagulation enzymes commonly require (2) as cofactors

A

phospholipid and calcium

125
Q

contact pathway is initiated by what factor

A

XII

126
Q

tissue factor pathway is initiated by what factor

A

III (TF) -> IIIa

127
Q

what factor causes fibrin cross-linking

A

XIII

128
Q

what coagulation factors require gamma carboxylation by vitamin K

A

2, 7, 9, 10

129
Q

what inhibits vitamin K (poison)

A

warfarin

130
Q

antithrombin III inhibits factors

A

2, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12

131
Q

T/F protein C inhibits coagulation

A

T

132
Q

disorders with primary hemostasis manifest as ________ whereas disorder with secondary hemostasis manifest as _________

A

petechiae (on skin/MM); hemorrhage

133
Q

ACT measures activity of

A

common pathway and contact pathwat

134
Q

APTT measures activity of

A

contact pathway and common pathway

135
Q

PT measures activity of

A

TF pathway and common pathway

136
Q

where is tPA released from

A

endothelial cells

137
Q

leukocytosis

A

elevated total number of WBCs

138
Q

leukopenia

A

decreased total number of WBCs

139
Q

what is the most common circulating granulocyte in dogs

A

neuts

140
Q

what is the most common circulating agranulocyte in dogs

A

lymphocytes

141
Q

what is the WBC equivalent of reticulocytes

A

band cells

142
Q

what are the steps in WBC production

A

|myeloblast -> promyelocyte -> myelocyte -> | metamyelocyte -> band cell |

143
Q

what is the normal neut lifespan

A

less than 24 h

144
Q

in what cases do neutrophils accumulate in tissues

A

chronic inflammation or leukemia

145
Q

what is the characteristic feature of band cells

A

unsegmented nuclei

146
Q

a left shift indicates

A

infection, hypoxia, shock

147
Q

what impact does the initial response have on neutrophils

A

decrease (increased margination and migration)

148
Q

what impact does the intermediate phase have on neutrophils

A

increase (neutrophils in marrow reserve released)

149
Q

what impact does the progressive phase have on neutrophils

A

increase (in marginal and circulating pools)

150
Q

neutrophils usually make up ____% of circulating WBCs

A

50-70

151
Q

where are most toxic changes observed; why do they occur

A

in band cells; intense stimulation of granulopoiesis with a shorter maturation window

152
Q

what are toxic changes

A

less condensed chromatin, bluer cytoplasm (retention of RNA), doehle bodies (ribosomal protein)

153
Q

stress induces decrease in the number of ________ and increase in the number of __________ and _________

A

lymphocytes; monocytes and neutrophils

154
Q

what is the lifespan of a macrophage

A

months to years

155
Q

T/F eosinophils can phagocytose bacteria, yeast, ab-coated RBCs, mycoplasma and mast cell granules

A

T

156
Q

what is sometimes seen as an idiopathic infiltrate in lungs and muscle

A

eosinophils

157
Q

glucocorticoids result in a decrease in

A

eosinophils

158
Q

what two cell types are very similar

A

basophils and mast cells; both have histamine

159
Q

basophils attract what cells via chemotaxis

A

eosinophils and neutrophils

160
Q

T/F basophilia is associated with diseases that cause IgE production

A

T

161
Q

what is associated with heartworm

A

basophilia

Veterinary Physiology (11 decks)

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