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Veterinary Physiology > Neurophysiology > Flashcards

Neurophysiology Flashcards

1
Q

what is a difference in the major organelles of axons vs dendrites

A

dendrites and axons both have cytoskeleton and mitochondria; only axons have additional neurofilaments and microtubules

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2
Q

what are the functional classifications of neurons (3)

A

sensory, interneuron, motor

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3
Q

what are the structural classifications of neurons (3)

A

unipolar, bipolar, multipolar

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4
Q

examples of bipolar neurons

A

some special sense neurons

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5
Q

examples of unipolar neurons

A

sensory neurons

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6
Q

examples of multipolar neurons

A

motor neurons and CNS neurons

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7
Q

examples of sensory receptors

A

pacinian corpuscles, meissner’s corpuscles, golgi tendon organs, photoreceptors, taste and smell receptors

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8
Q

what is a synapse

A

a point of contact between neurons and target cells (other neurons, glands, muscles)

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9
Q

chemical synapses release

A

neurotransmitters

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10
Q

what are the four types of glia

A

microglia, Schwann cells, oligodendrocytes, astrocytes

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11
Q

there are ____x as many glial cells than neurons

A

10x (1 trillion vs 100 billion)

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12
Q

oligodendrocytes

A

myelinate axons in the CNS

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13
Q

schwann cells

A

myelinate axons in the PNS; protect unmyelinated axons in PNS

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14
Q

myelin is a _______ rich, ______________ compound

A

lipid rich, lipid/protein compound

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15
Q

nodes are _______ whereas internodes are _________

A

non-myelinated; myelinated

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16
Q

what is the process by which APs jump along a myelinated axon

A

saltatory conduction

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17
Q

_____________ wrap multiple axons in the _______

A

oligodendrocytes; CNS

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18
Q

_______________ wrap only one axon in the _________

A

Schwann cells; PNS

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19
Q

what are the functions of astrocytes (4-5)

A

structural support; regulate [K+]; reabsorb GABA/glutamate; vascular functions (constrict blood vessels; BBB)

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20
Q

what molecules cannot pass the BBB easily

A

large molecules, highly charged molecules, poorly lipid-soluble particles (also pathogens and many drugs limited from entry)

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21
Q

what are microglia

A

innate immune cells in the CNS

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22
Q

astrocytes are found in the

A

CNS

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23
Q

what is unique about microglia as opposed to other tissue macrophages

A

they can divide in situ to increase numbers when responding to an infection

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24
Q

what can diffuse through the lipid bilayer via passive transport, specifically by simple diffusion

A

small, uncharged molecules

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25
Q

how do small, charged molecules move through the lipid bilayer

A

passive transport via ion channel proteins; specifically called facilitated diffusion

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26
Q

what glial cells are present in the CNS

A

oligodendrocytes, microglia, astrocytes

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27
Q

what glial cells are present in the PNS

A

Schwann cells

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28
Q

describe features of ion channels (movement; ion types)

A

down concentration gradient; usually only 1 ion type; can be leaky or gated

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29
Q

what are two examples of voltage gated ion channels

A

Na receptor and K receptor

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30
Q

what is an example of a ligand gated ion channel

A

acetylcholine receptor (a ligand-gated Ca channel)

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31
Q

what is an example of a mechanically gated channel

A

stretch receptor in sensory neurons

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32
Q

how is touch/pressure converted into an electrical signal

A

via mechanically gated channels

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33
Q

what moves ions up their concentration gradient, consuming energy in the process? give an example

A

primary active transport; Na/K ATPase

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34
Q

symporters and antiporters are examples of

A

secondary active transport

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35
Q

what establishes the electrochemical gradient in cells

A

Na/K active transport

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36
Q

what is the only ion that directly influences the charge of neurons

A

K; because it can move across passively

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37
Q

the flux of K is determined by (2), which creates an electrochemical balance/gradient

A

concentration gradient and the electrical potential

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38
Q

what is the importance of the Nernst equation

A

allows you to calculate:
1) the membrane charge if you know the concentration of permeable ions
2) the concentration of ions if you know the membrane charge

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39
Q

what happens to K movement if the cell becomes less negative

A

K moves out; cells becomes more negative

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40
Q

what happens to K if the cell becomes more negative

A

K moves in; cells becomes less negative

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41
Q

what moves to restore the RMP in neurons when the charge changes

A

K

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42
Q

what determines the RMP in skeletal muscle

A

Cl

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43
Q

______ defines the RMP in neurons, whereas _______ defines the AP

A

K; Na (channels)

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44
Q

threshold value for depolarization in neurons

A

-55 mV

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45
Q

RMP in neurons

A

-90 mV

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46
Q

what is a local change in the RMP called

A

graded potential

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47
Q

what is the highest the membrane potential becomes during an AP

A

+45 mV

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48
Q

Na channels inactivate _____after they open due to _________

A

1 millisecond; closing of the inactivation gate

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49
Q

what ensures that the AP travels only in one direction

A

the refractory period

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50
Q

what are the four major neurotransmitter families

A

amines, acetylcholine, amino acids, neuropeptides

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51
Q

GABA is what family

A

amino acids

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52
Q

the nicotinic ach receptor is a _____ receptor, and is also called ________tropic

A

ligand-gated ion channel; ionotropic

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53
Q

the muscarinic receptor is a _____ receptor; and is also called _______tropic

A

GPCR; metabotropic

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54
Q

in what type of synaptic channel/receptor do ions bind directly

A

ionotropic; ligand-gated ion channel

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55
Q

in what type of synaptic channel/receptor to ions bind indirectly

A

metabotropic; GPCR

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56
Q

what ion channels cause EPSPs

A

Na or Ca

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57
Q

what ion channels cause IPSPs

A

K or Cl

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58
Q

what are 3 fates of NTs after synaptic transmission occurs

A

Ach broken into acetic acid and choline via acetylcholinesterase (choline taken up by pre-synaptic neuron and reused); amines are taken up by the pre-synaptic neuron and reused or broken down; GABA and glutamine diffuse away from the synapse to be metabolized by astrocytes

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59
Q

what vertebrae are not separated by intervertebral discs

A

atlantooccipital joint, atlantoaxial joint; sacral and coccygeal

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60
Q

the most blood vessels are present in which layer of meninges

A

pia

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61
Q

what is contained in the subdural space

A

serous fluid

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62
Q

what is contained in the subarachnoid space

A

CSF

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63
Q

what happens at vertebral segment C7

A

spinal nerve C8 comes out caudal to C7; then spinal nerve T1 comes out caudal to T1

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64
Q

where is the end of the spinal cord

A

L4-L6

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65
Q

cervicothoracic enlargement comprises spinal nerves

A

C6-T2

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66
Q

lumbosacral enlargement comprises spinal nerves

A

L4-S2

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67
Q

where is the lateral gray matter horn present

A

thoracic and first few lumbar/sacral segments

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68
Q

describe what tracts are within the dorsal, lateral and ventral columns of the white matter in the spinal cord

A

dorsal: sensory
lateral: sensory and motor
ventral: sensory and motor

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69
Q

describe what neurons are within the dorsal, lateral and ventral horn of the gray matter in the spinal cord

A

dorsal: sensory
lateral: autonomic
ventral: motor

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70
Q

what does it mean for tracts to be organized somatotopically

A

relationship between where the tract is and the kind of information in relays

71
Q

T/F all tracts are paired

A

T

72
Q

somatic reflexes start and end in the _____ but the synapse(s) are in the _________

A

CNS; PNS

73
Q

T/F an interneuron is always present in a spinal reflex

A

F; it is not present in monosynaptic reflexes

74
Q

somatic reflexes act on ____________ whereas autonomic reflexes act on ___________

A

skeletal muscle; smooth muscle

75
Q

what are the three types of reflex arcs

A

monosynaptic ipsilateral
multisynaptic ipsilateral
multisynaptic contralateral

76
Q

the myotatic reflex is

A

monosynaptic ipsilateral

77
Q

another name for the knee jerk reflex

A

myotatic

78
Q

the flexor reflex is

A

multisynaptic ipsilateral

79
Q

another name for the withdrawal reflex

A

flexor reflex

80
Q

the crossed-extensor reflex is

A

multisynaptic contralateral

81
Q

spinothalamic tract

A

pain and temp sensation to thalamus

82
Q

what is the order in which tracts are likely to be damaged (from most to least likely)

A

proprioceptive -> motor -> pain

83
Q

what ascending tract does not decussate

A

spinocerebellar

84
Q

what descending tract does not decussate

A

vestibulospinal

85
Q

UMN are located

A

entirely in the CNS

86
Q

LMN are located

A

in both the CNS and PNS

87
Q

what is the conscious proprioceptive pathway

A

dorsal column

88
Q

what is the unconscious proprioceptive pathway

A

spinocerebellar

89
Q

what is the main motor pathway in domestic animals

A

rubrospinal

90
Q

a dog is presenting with bilateral signs, indicating the lesion is likely

A

in the spinal cord

91
Q

a dog is presenting with unilateral signs, indicating the lesion is likely

A

in the peripheral nerve

92
Q

flaccid paresis/paralysis and neurogenic atrophy develops with

A

LMN damage

93
Q

spastic paresis/paralysis and disuse atrophy develops with

A

UMN damage

94
Q

doliocephalic

A

long and narrow skill; ex. greyhound

95
Q

brachycephalic

A

short nasal compartment with altered sinuses; ex. pug

96
Q

what causes cortical blindness

A

thiamine deficiency; necrosis of the occipital region

97
Q

where is most CSF absorbed (I.e. where is the highest abundance of arachnoid granulations)

A

in the tentorum cerebelli and falx cerebri

98
Q

the thalamocortex is comprised of the

A

cerebral cortex, thalamus, hypothalamus

99
Q

the brainstem is comprised of the

A

midbrain, pons, medulla

100
Q

the cortex consists of the

A

cerebral cortex, basal ganglia (nuclei), rhinencephalon (olfactory and limbic system)

101
Q

frontal lobe

A

sensory, behaviour, voluntary movement, learning

102
Q

parietal lobe

A

sensory and association

103
Q

temporal lobe

A

audition, equilibrium, association

104
Q

occipital lobe

A

visual cortex, association

105
Q

piriform/olfactory lobe

A

olfaction, learning, memory, emotion (related to olfactory stimuli)

106
Q

what are the three connections (fibres) mediated by white matter in the cortex

A

association fibres (connect neurons in same hemisphere); projection fibres (connect cortex to brainstem); commissural fibres (connect two hemispheres)

107
Q

what are the two portions of the rhinencephalon

A

olfactory and limbic

108
Q

how is the limbic system connected to the cortex

A

cingulate gyrus

109
Q

where is the limbic system connected

A

cortex, thalamus and hypothalamus

110
Q

what are the components of the basal nuclei

A

caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, (also claustrum)

111
Q

what is the function of the basal nuclei

A

modulates voluntary motor signals from the cortex

112
Q

what are the two nuclei of the thalamus

A

lateral and medial geniculate nuclei (note: red nucleus also originates in the thalamus)

113
Q

lateral geniculate nuclei is responsible for _______ whereas the medial geniculate nuclei is responsible for ______

A

vision; audition

114
Q

job of the thalamus

A

gets all sensory information (except olfaction) and projects it to the correct region of the cortex

115
Q

signs of a thalamocortex lesion

A

circling, seizures, behavioural changes, cortical blindness, motor problems

116
Q

what regulates the nervous and endocrine system

A

hypothalamus

117
Q

what does the hypothalamus directly secrete into the neurohypophysis

A

oxytocin and vasopressin

118
Q

what is the job of the midbrain

A

reflex movement of head in response to light and sound; contraction of iris muscle; movement of the eye; gait

119
Q

when you think of pons, you think of

A

micturition

120
Q

roles of pons

A

micturition control, respiration control, gives rise to trigeminal nerve; communication with cerebellum

121
Q

medulla oblongata contains nuclei of cranial nerves

A

VI-XII

122
Q

medulla oblongata is home to the

A

ascending RAS

123
Q

roles of medulla oblongata

A

relays sensory info from the spinal cord and motor info from the cortex and brainstem; also involved in cardiovascular and respiratory control and is home to the RAS

124
Q

cranial nerves in the thalamocortex

A

I, II

125
Q

cranial nerves in the brainstem

A

III-XII

126
Q

midbrain, pons and medulla are connected through the

A

reticular formation

127
Q

job of the reticular formation

A

relays sensory information from entire nervous system to the thalamus, which then takes it to the cortex; involved in awakening

128
Q

what is a key way to distinguish a thalamocortex lesion from a brainstem lesion

A

with thalamocortex will see seizures; with brainstem will NEVER see seizures but will see changes in level of arousal (depressed, obtunded, stuporous or comatose)

129
Q

reflex processes (vomiting, regurgitation, sneezing) are due to the

A

reticular formation

130
Q

the carotid sinus is innervated by CN _ whereas the aortic arch is innervated by CN _

A

IX (glossopharyngeal); X (vagus)

131
Q

job of cerebellum

A

receives info about intended movement from the cortex and actual movement from the spinal cord; it then sends corrections to the cortex

132
Q

is ataxia a sensory or motor sign

A

SENSORY

133
Q

cranial nerves are considered part of the (CNS/PNS)

A

PNS

134
Q

anosmia

A

no sense of smell

135
Q

hypoosmia

A

decreased sense of smell

136
Q

T/F there is 100% crossover of axons at the optic chiasm

A

F

137
Q

if oculomotor nerve is damaged, what type of strabismus results

A

ventrolateral

138
Q

if trochlear nerve is damaged, what are the clinical signs

A

dorsolateral strabismus, rotation of the fundus

139
Q

if abducens nerve is damaged, what type of strabismus results

A

medial strabismus (also inability to retract the globe)

140
Q

what are clinical signs of CNVIII damage

A

abnormal nystagmus, vestibular ataxia, circling, head tilt

141
Q

T/F in CNVIII lesions, the head tilt is away from the lesion

A

F, it tilts towards the lesion

142
Q

T/F when performing the cranial nerve exam, if more than one cranial nerve is affected, even if only on one side, the lesion is likely in the brain

A

T

143
Q

when performing the cranial exam, if only one nerve is affected and the animal has a normal mental status, the lesion is

A

outside of the brain (i.e. in the PNS)

144
Q

what is responsible for the consensual PLR

A

crossover in BOTH the optic chiasm and the pretectal area

145
Q

the nt for all preganglionic autonomic neurons is ____ and it always binds to a _____ receptor

A

Ach; nicotinic

146
Q

parasympathetic postganglionic neurons release ____ and all receptors are ______

A

ACh; muscarinic

147
Q

a limited number of synapses exist where sympathetic neurons release ACh, which all act on

A

muscarinic receptors in sweat glands, to increase secretion of sweat (M5)

148
Q

what nerves are parasympathetic

A

CN III, VII, IX, X and S1-S3 (pelvic nerve)

149
Q

parasympathetic nerves have _______ preganglionic fibres and _______ postganglionic fibres

A

long; short

150
Q

which muscarinic receptors are inhibitory

A

M2 and M4

151
Q

what type of ACh receptor is present on striated skeletal muscle

A

nicotinic

152
Q

M1 receptors act on _______ to ___________

A

axon terminals; increase ACh release

153
Q

M4 receptors act on _______ to __________

A

axon terminals; decrease ACh release

154
Q

M5 receptors act on _________ to ___________

A

sweat glands; increase secretion

155
Q

M2 receptors act on __________ to ______________

A

heart; decrease heart rate and force of contraction

156
Q

M3 receptors act on ___________(4) to ______________

A

glands, intestines, smooth muscles, bronchioles; increase secretion, increase motility, constrict, constrict

157
Q

what nerves are part of the sympathetic ns

A

thoracolumbar outflow; L1-L5

158
Q

where are sympathetic ganglia

A

paravertebral, cervical, celiac, mesentric, etc.

159
Q

sympathetic ns has ________ preganglionic axons and________ postganglionic axons

A

short; long

160
Q

what is unique about the adrenal medulla and the sympathetic NS

A

it has a long preganglionic axon and no postganglionic axon; secretes directly into the bloodstream

161
Q

adrenergic receptors for NE/E are all

A

GPCRs (metabotropic)

162
Q

adrenergic receptors are all excitatory except for

A

α2/β2

163
Q

α1 receptors act on ______ to _________

A

smooth muscles (dilator muscle in pupil; blood vessels in skin; internal bladder sphincter, piloerector muscle); constrict

164
Q

β1 receptors act on ________ to _________

A

heart; increase heart rate and force of contraction

165
Q

β2 receptors act on _________ to ____________

A

smooth muscles (blood vessels in muscle, bronchioles, detrusor, GI tract; uterus); relax

166
Q

how does the sympathetic NS dilate the eye

A

hypothalamus activates SNS -> rostral colliculus -> travels in spinal cord to T1-T3 -> exits and synapses in cranial cervical ganglion -> travels in vagosympathetic trunk to eye -> activates dilator muscle

167
Q

miotic pupils, enopthalamos, partial protrusion of the 3rd eyelid, and lack of sweating on the affected side (in horses) is a sign of

A

Horner’s syndrome (loss of sympathetic innervation of the iris)

168
Q

result of damage to the pelvic nerve or spinal cord or pons

A

flaccid bladder

169
Q

result of damage to the spinal cord anterior to the sacral segments

A

spastic sphincter due to loss of UMN influencing the sphincter reflex

170
Q

result of damage to the pudendal nerve or sacral segments

A

flaccid sphincter due to loss of LMN innervating the sphincter

171
Q

result of damage to the cortex

A

animal pees whenever the bladder gets full due to loss of the conscious storage phase

172
Q

internal vs external hydrocephalus

A

internal: blockage within all or part of the ventricular system (ex. occurs at cerebral aqueduct; get CSF accumulation in the ventricles); external: blockage at arachnoid granulations (get accumulation of CSF in ventricles and subarachnoid space)

173
Q

Wallerian degeneration

A

after sublethal damage to a neuron axon, the axon degenerates (both retrograde and anterograde), a growth process is establishes, and eventually (possibly), contact with the target organ/gland/neuron will be re-established

the process of growth is guided by the stroma

174
Q

axonal regeneration is better in the (CNS or PNS)

A

PNS

Veterinary Physiology (11 decks)

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