Hematology Flashcards
(206 cards)
1
Q
A
2
Q
What is the hematologic process responsible for?
A
The continuous pumping of blood throughout the body
It involves the circulatory system and its various vessels.
3
Q
What is another name for the circulatory system?
A
Vascular system
This system includes arteries, veins, and capillaries.
4
Q
What do arteries do?
A
Carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the body
They are part of the circulatory system.
5
Q
What is the function of veins?
A
Carry blood to the heart from the body
They transport deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
6
Q
What are capillaries?
A
Very small blood vessels interwoven between arteries and veins
They collect waste prior to returning to the veins.
7
Q
What do red blood cells (RBCs) do?
A
Carry oxygen throughout the tissues and collect carbon dioxide
They are also known as erythrocytes.
8
Q
What is the lifespan of a red blood cell (RBC)?
A
Approximately 120 days
This is the typical lifespan before they are replaced.
9
Q
What is the role of white blood cells (WBCs)?
A
Fight infection
They are also known as granulocytes.
10
Q
What do platelets do?
A
Help form blood clots to stop bleeding
They are crucial for wound healing.
11
Q
What is the main responsibility of plasma cells?
A
Humoral immunity
They secrete immunoglobulin, also known as antibodies.
12
Q
Fill in the blank: The circulatory system is made up of _______.
A
arteries, veins, and capillaries
These components work together to circulate blood.
13
Q
what are blood clots are up of
A
plateles and fibrin
14
Q
Fibrin
A
A substance that is firm and string-like and combines with platelets in blood to form a platelet-plug in response to an injury to stop bleeding.
15
Q
which blood clots are fatal
A
Pulmonary embolism, fatty deposits
16
Q
pulmonary embolism
A
A blood clot that has traveled from a larger vein to the lungs and can be life-threatening.
17
Q
myocardial infarction
A
Oxygen is blocked from the heart due to blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle.
18
Q
Ischemic stroke
A
Blood clot or narrowing in an artery that leads to lack of or slowed blood flow, which reduces oxygen to a portion of the brain and causes the cells in the brain to die.
19
Q
A
20
Q
What typically triggers the formation of a blood clot?
A
An injury
Blood clots are a natural response to injury to prevent excessive bleeding.
21
Q
In what scenarios can a blood clot form abnormally?
A
Ischemic stroke, MI, deep vein thrombosis (DVT), pulmonary embolism (PE)
These conditions can lead to the formation of clots without injury.
22
Q
What can happen when a blood clot travels in the body?
A
It can block blood flow and cause serious health complications
This blockage can lead to conditions like heart attacks or strokes.
23
Q
True or False: A blood clot only forms in response to physical injury.
A
False
Clots can form abnormally in various medical conditions.
24
Q
Fill in the blank: A blood clot can lead to _____ if it obstructs blood vessels.
A
serious health complications
25
deep vein thrombosis DVT
A blood clot that has formed in a large vein in the body
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27
What can damage a vein and increase the risk of blood clots?
An injury
## Footnote
Damage to a vein can lead to a higher risk of developing a blood clot.
28
How does surgery affect the risk of blood clots?
Inactivity from bed rest increases risk
## Footnote
After surgery, individuals on bed rest experience slower blood flow, leading to a greater risk for blood clots.
29
What types of medications increase the risk of blood clots?
Oral contraceptives, hormone replacement therapy
## Footnote
Medications containing estrogen, such as oral contraceptives and hormone replacement therapy, elevate the risk of blood clot formation.
30
What is the relationship between estrogen therapy and thrombosis?
Estrogen influences hemostatic variables
## Footnote
Research indicates that estrogen therapy can lead to an increased risk for thrombosis by influencing several hemostatic variables.
31
What specific risk does estrogen therapy pose to clients with prostate cancer?
Increased risk of blood clots
## Footnote
Estrogen therapy is used in prostate cancer treatment, which poses a risk for blood clot formation.
32
Why are pregnant individuals at greater risk for blood clots?
Higher blood clotting incidence during pregnancy
## Footnote
The body increases blood clotting during pregnancy to prevent blood loss during labor, elevating the risk for clots.
33
What happens to blood flow in the lower extremities during pregnancy?
Reduced due to fetal pressure
## Footnote
Fetal growth places pressure on blood vessels, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.
34
How does smoking affect the risk of blood clots?
Increases risk
## Footnote
Smoking is a known risk factor for developing blood clots.
35
Fill in the blank: Oral contraceptives containing _______ increase the risk of blood clots.
estrogen
## Footnote
Estrogen is a key component in many contraceptives that raises the risk of thrombosis.
36
Fill in the blank: The risk of developing a blood clot is higher for _______ clients after childbirth.
pregnant
## Footnote
Pregnant individuals face increased risk for three months postpartum due to physiological changes.
37
Hemostatic
An agent used to control bleeding.
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Lymphoma
A cancer involving the lymphatic system of the body.
39
Myeloma
A plasma cell cancer. Plasma cells are the WBCs that make the antibodies that protect from infection.
40
atrial fibrillation (A-fib)
A rapid, irregular heart rhythm that carries with it the risk of stroke and heart failure.
41
Clients can experience ____ after a thromboembolism event
PTSD
42
people are at risk for developing clots
after the age of 40, after surgery, miscarrage, preeclampsia, eclampsia
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hemoptysis
coughing up blood
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manifestation of a PE
tachycaridia, hemoptysis, shortness of breath, lightheaded
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manifestation of MI
chest pain radiating pain down the left arm, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis.
46
manifestation of stroke
facial weakness, difficulty speaking, visual deficits, left- or right-sided weakness, and seizures.
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48
What is the D-dimer test?
A blood test performed via a venipuncture.
49
What does a low D-dimer test result typically indicate?
No presence of a clot.
50
What could an elevated D-dimer test result indicate?
A blood clot.
51
True or False: An elevated D-dimer test result can only indicate the presence of a blood clot.
False.
52
In which situations might an elevated D-dimer test result occur aside from blood clots?
* During pregnancy
* Postoperatively
53
What does a D-dimer test detect in relation to blood clots?
A small fragment of protein.
54
What might a provider order if D-dimer test results are elevated?
Further testing to confirm the diagnosis.
55
What imaging technique can be used to visualize veins and blood flow?
Ultrasounds.
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57
What is a computed tomography (CT) scan used for?
It may be ordered when diagnosing a blood clot, especially with symptoms related to PE or a stroke.
## Footnote
CT scans provide detailed images of the body, offering more information than regular x-rays.
58
How does a CT scan work?
It uses computer technology along with x-ray equipment to produce a 2-D view of the scanned area through a rotating x-ray beam.
## Footnote
This allows for multiple views of the organ or area being examined.
59
What is the purpose of using contrast material in a CT scan?
To obtain a better, more in-depth view of a particular organ.
## Footnote
Contrast material can be injected through a vein or taken orally.
60
What is a spiral CT scan?
A 3-D scan that uses specialized x-ray equipment to produce images of the body in cross sections, both horizontal and vertical.
## Footnote
This technique enhances the detail and clarity of the images.
61
What is magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) used for?
To specifically examine the blood vessels of the body.
## Footnote
MRA is a noninvasive test that uses a large tube imaging scanner.
62
What should clients be aware of when undergoing an MRA?
The scanner is loud, and those who are anxious in closed spaces should inform their provider prior to testing.
## Footnote
This is important for patient comfort and cooperation during the procedure.
63
What is the function of contrast dye in an MRA?
To provide a clearer image of the blood vessels.
## Footnote
The use of contrast dye can enhance the visibility of vascular structures.
64
What is a V/Q scan?
A ventilation/perfusion test that checks for blood clots in the lungs.
## Footnote
It consists of two tests that can be done together or separately.
65
How does a V/Q scan assess perfusion in the lungs?
By using a scanning machine with small amounts of radioactive substances.
## Footnote
This helps visualize blood flow in the lung tissue.
66
What is systemic sclerosis (SSC) also known as?
Scleroderma
67
What type of tissue does systemic sclerosis affect?
Connective tissue
68
What are the potential impacts of systemic sclerosis on health?
Increases morbidity and mortality of cardiopulmonary disorders
69
What type of disorder is systemic sclerosis classified as?
Autoimmune disorder
70
What risk is increased for clients with autoimmune disorders and systemic sclerosis?
Risk of thromboembolism
71
What can cause atherosclerosis in systemic sclerosis?
Coagulation impairment
72
True or False: Systemic sclerosis is not related to autoimmune disorders.
False
73
Fill in the blank: Systemic sclerosis is a disease of the _______.
Connective tissue
74
What is one pathway associated with systemic sclerosis?
Coagulation impairment
75
atherosclerosis
A disease process caused by a buildup of plaque in the arteries, causing the arteries to become hard and occluded.
76
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
proteins that control the clotting of blood are overactive and can cause uncontrolled bleeding The proteins should not be active in the body. If they are, that is abnormal and would put a person at risk of developing DIC.
77
If you lose 1/5 blood it can lead to what
hypovolemic shock
78
Hypovolemic shock
This condition can cause the body to have organ failure as the heart cannot pump enough blood throughout the body to keep the body functioning
79
Hemophilia
A rare, inherited clotting disorder, due to either factor VIII or factor IX deficiency, which causes extensive bleeding.
80
why are you at risk of developing a clot when you are fighting an infection
due to inflammation triggering platelet activation, which will then result in fibrin deposits that lead the thrombus formation.
81
common infections correlated withthrombosis or venous thromboembolic events are
pneumonia, systemic bloodstream infections, intra-abdominal infections, periodontal or gingival infections, and urinary tract infections.
82
thrombectomy
A provider uses specialized instruments to surgically remove a blood clot.
83
clopidogrel
antiplatelet medication Inhibits platelet aggregation.
Therapeutic Use
Used in clients who have acute coronary syndrome; following a percutaneous coronary intervention with stenting; acute ischemic stroke; in clients who have a mechanical heart valve; and many other disease progressions or diagnoses.
84
Coumadin/Warfarin
Prevents further growth of existing clot and formation of new clots.
Therapeutic Use
Prevents blood clots and further growth of existing blood clots.
Adverse Effects
Bleeding complications. May cause major or fatal bleeding.
Hepatotoxicity
High alert medication
85
Factor X inhibitors
Direct oral anticoagulants
Action
Bind to factor 10a, which inhibits the split of prothrombin to thrombin
Therapeutic Use
Prevention or treatment of blood clot formation. Commonly used in the treatment of atrial fibrillation.
86
Lovenox/enoxaparin
Enhances the inhibition rate of clotting proteases by antithrombin III. Impairs normal hemostasis and inhibition of factor Xa.
Therapeutic Use
A low molecular weight form of heparin that is indicated for the treatment of DVT, PE, and venous thromboembolism and also prophylactic treatment of DVT.
Given by subcutaneous injection, preferably in the abdomen two inches from the umbilicus or fatty tissue, such as the thigh or hip, and also can be given by IV.
87
Heparin
Interferes with blood coagulation by blocking conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and fibrinogen to fibrin, preventing clots from forming.
Therapeutic Use
Prevents further growth of existing thrombi or new clot formation, such as with a PE, DVT, or with atrial fibrillation.
88
Tissure plasminogen activator
Inhibits platelet aggregation.
Therapeutic Use
Used in clients who have acute coronary syndrome; following a percutaneous coronary intervention with stenting; acute ischemic stroke; in clients who have a mechanical heart valve; and many other disease progressions or diagnoses.
89
Deep vein thrombosis
is a blood clot that forms in the body in one of the large veins, such as that of the lower extremities, upper extremities, or pelvis.
90
causes of DVT
decreased blood flow due to immobility, surgery, IVC,
91
Genetics such as _____ mutation can also be a causative factor leading to a DVT.
factor V Leiden (FVL)
92
factor V Leiden (FVL)
A genetic disorder that causes the blood to clot abnormally.
93
DVT can be accompanying with concurrent diagnoses
cellulitis, superficial thrombophlebitis, and post-thrombotic syndrome, such as venous eczema. Vasculitis i
94
cellulitis
A bacterial infection of the skin that can become serious.
95
thrombophlebitis
Swelling or inflammation of a vein.
96
blood loss level 1
14%>
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blood loss level 2
15%-30%
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Blood loss 3
30%-40%. will cause 90mmHg systolic and HR120, mental status changes
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blood loss 4
40%, urine out put stops, peripheral pulses ar absent
100
subdural bleed
Blood leaking into the dura mater area of the brain.
101
subarachnoid hemorrhage
The space around the brain is experiencing bleeding.
102
dura mater
The area just between the skull and outermost membrane of the brain.
103
hemothorax
bleeding in the visceral and parietal layers of the lungs and chest wall
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104
two types of stroke
ischemic and hemorrhagic
105
cause of ischemic stroke
caused by blood clot blocking blood flow
106
Hemorrhagic stroke
caused by blood vessel rupture
107
common causes of hemorrhage are
cancer, a clotting disorder, alcohol use disorder, complications of childbirth, violence, chronic hypertension
108
aneurysm
Weak areas or bulges in the blood vessel wall.
109
atony
Description of an enlarged and flaccid uterus noted upon a loss of significant amount of blood during childbirth or the postpartum period.
110
what is the cause decreased cardiac output, circulatory insufficiency, and hypoxemia
hypovolemic shock
111
what is classified as orthostatic hypotension
systolic blood pressure of more than 20 mm Hg when the client stands up from a lying position,
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112
hemoptysis
Coughing up blood.
113
Internal bleeding may cause?
hemoptysis or hematemesi
114
hematemesis
Vomiting of blood.
115
test to check for hemorrhage
CBC, hemoglobin, hematocrit, pllatelet count, PT/PTT
116
MAP formula
MAP= (DBPX2+SBP)/3
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Anemia
is a hematologic condition where the concentration of hemoglobin or RBCs is not sufficient to meet an individual’s physiological needs
118
pregnacy induced iron deficiency, why is it caused
body demand for additional amount of iron
119
why do patients with gastric bypass surgery get anemia
they do not absorb iron appropriately
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why do patients with rheumatoid arthritis at risk for iron deficiency anemia?
Chronic Inflammation → Anemia of Chronic Disease (ACD)
RA causes ongoing inflammation, which increases hepcidin, a liver-produced hormone.
122
______ absorption from the gut and traps iron in storage sites, making it unavailable for red blood cell production — this leads to functional iron deficiency.
Hepcidin blocks iron
123
hemogobin level lower than what for males?
13g/dL
124
females that are not pregant hemoglobin level?
12g/dL
125
common test for iron deficiency anemia
ferritin test
126
what is ferritin
a protein that helps store iron in the body. A low ferritin level indicates a low level of stored iron in the body.
127
what test is used to check for iron deficiency anemia which tells how transferrin binds to iron?
total iron binding capacity
128
there are two types of TIBC tests
saturated and unsaturated
129
test that tells you how many new RBCs are being made
reticulocyte count
130
bidirectional endoscopy
a colonoscopy and esophagogastroduodenoscopy are done together
131
Microcytic hypochromic anemia
Anemia caused by circulating RBCs being decreased in size and abnormal in color.
132
what are the two types of iron rich goods
heme-iron and non-heme
133
which heme rich food is animal based
heme-iron
134
which heme iron food is plant based
non-heme
135
how long before oral iron supplements treatment can typically can be seen
14day and taken for 3 months for therapeutic effect
136
iron supplements can cuase
N/constipation, upset stomach, gree and drak stool, stain teeth if liquid
137
what is vitamin deficiency anemia?
lack of B12 or folate levels either because the body can not absorb or client is not ingesting
138
is vitamine B12 fat or water soluble
water
139
what kinds of foods have vitamin B12
animal products like eggs, dairy, red meat
140
In the stomach, a glycoprotein called _____ is required for the absorption of vitamin B12.
intrinsic factor
141
where is vitamin B12 absorbed
ileum
142
what is needed to synthesize B12
DNA, myelin, fatty acid
143
what is pernicious anemia
ileum cannot absorb the vitamin B12 or malabsorption
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where is intrinsic factor produced
stomach
145
why are vegan at risk for pernicioius anemia
prolonged periods of stric diet
146
autoimmune etiology and pernicious anemia
the ileum cannot absorb vitamin B12
147
causes of malabsorption of B12
lack of intrinsic factor, gastric surgery, excess alcohol consumption, medications like PPI, metformin, contraceptives, anti-seizure
148
diseases that can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency
celiac, Sjogren's or crohn's
149
clients of what age are at risk due to slowed metabolism
75<
150
An autoimmune disorder causing manifestations of dry mucous membranes, including dry mouth and eyes.
Sjogren's syndrome
151
why can vitamin B12 deficiency lead to neurologic deficits?
B12 deficiency lead to damage of myelin
152
subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord
A complication caused by vitamin B12 deficiency that causes neurological deficits and complications, spinal cord degeneration of the dorsal, and lateral columns due to demyelination.
153
chronic deficieny in B12 leads to
damage to the brain and nervous system
154
what is a normal B12 level
<300pg/ml
155
what level of B12 is considered deficient
less than 200pg/ml
156
how does H.pylori cause gastric B12 definiency
causes bacterial infection which impair absormption of b12 and gastric ulcers form
157
contact provider when client experiences
peripheral neuropathy, visual problems
158
treatment for B12 deficiency anemia
supplements like IM, nasal spray, gel, oral
159
what is sickle cell anemia
inherited disorder that results from a single mutated gene that affects the shape of the RBC and causing the hemoglobin to be sticky
160
describe the characteristics of a RBC in sickle cell anemia
The sticky hemoglobin in the RBCs makes them rigid and forms them into what appears as a “C” or sickle shape.
161
what kind of genetic disorder is sickle cell anemia
recessive, both parents must carrie the recessive gene
162
what kind of people does sickel cell affect
african american, mediterranean, middle eastern
163
sickle cell patients that are pregant are at risk for
blood clots, hypertension, miscarriage, premature bitrth, low weight at birth
164
what is a acute serious complication of sickle cell anemia
chest syndrome
165
what is chest syndrome
blood flow back flows to the lungs, causing breathing difficulty, fever, and sever chest pain.
166
priapism
Condition that causes a penile erection that is long-lasting and painful.
167
vaso-occlusive crisis
A painful condition that clients who have sickle cell experience when an increased hematocrit leads to increased blood viscosity that creates occlusions in their blood vessels.
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168
___ is the most significant impact on a client’s health and interferes with the daily life of individuals,
Pain
169
sickle cells last how long
10-20 days
170
why do patients with sickle cells have to see a optometrist
due to blindness
171
frequent blood transusions can lead to what
iron over load which can affect heart, liver, and organs
172
what is chelation therapy
A medication is administered via intravenous or subcutaneous route, in a continuous infusion, chelating the tissue and iron circulating in the body and removing it via the urine or bile.
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173
new born screening are done to check for
sickle cell anemia
174
True of false, sickle cell patients are more prone to infection
true
175
client education for sickle cell anemia
drink water to avoid dehydration which causes pain, avoid extreme climates, avoid high altitudes, extreme exercising, avoid lunch meats, wash produces, get vaccinated, hand hygene, dont smoke
176
what are some treatments of sickle cell anemica
NSAIDS, opioids, blood transusions, medicaitons like hyroxyurea, L-glutamine, crizanlizumab, voxelotor
177
An oral medication that reactivates the production of fetal hemoglobin, thereby helping to reduce sickle cell disease events such as pain crisis and acute chest syndrome.
hydroxyurea
178
An oral powder that acts by neutralizing oxidative stress in sickle red cells and depleting the mechanism that protects against stress.
L-glutamine
179
180
Works by decreasing the WBCs adhesion and RBCs adhesion to endothelium.
cfrizanlizumab
181
Increases hemoglobin and decreases the breakdown of red cells.
voxelotor
182
how do cancers affect blood
interfere with the production of blood cells and the blood cells’ function.
183
where do most blood cancers start
bone marrow
184
what kind blood cancers grow with in the cells
lymphomas and myelomas
185
two types of lymphomas
Hodgkin lymphona and non-Hodgkin lymphoma
186
myeloma may be caused by
a single plasma cell malformation
187
Causes of non-Hodgkin lymphona
exposure to workplace chemicals, tobacco smoke, and the sun, virus transmission like hepatitis C or HIV
188
what is believed to be the cause of myeloma
chromosome 14, obesity, alcohol, radiation, chemical exposrue, insecticides
189
Multiple myeloma predominantly affects the ____ population over the age of years.
male and 70
190
Manifestations of lymphoma include?
swelling of the lymph nodes in the neck, groin, and under the arms,skin that feels itchy, weight loss, fever, night sweats, shortness of breath, and fatigue.
191
test for lymphona
biopsy of the lymph node, MRI, CT
192
indolent non-Hodgkins
grows slowly
193
aggressicve non-Hodgkin
will be cured in 70% of clients
194
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) and chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
types of cancer prevents the bone marrow from producing red blood cells and platelets
195
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
A fast-growing cancer of the white blood cells, specifically lymphoblasts (immature cells that should become lymphocytes).
196
Happens mostly in children, but adults can get it too
Starts in the bone marrow, where blood cells are made
The body makes too many immature white blood cells that don’t work properly
Crowds out healthy cells → causes anemia, infections, and bleeding
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
197
Fatigue
Frequent infections
Easy bruising or bleeding
Bone or joint pain
Swollen lymph nodes
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
198
Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)
A slower-growing cancer of the myeloid cells, another type of white blood cell.
199
Happens mostly in adults
Starts in the bone marrow
Caused by a specific genetic change called the Philadelphia chromosome
May not cause symptoms at first, but can become more serious over time
Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)
200
Tiredness
Weight loss
Night sweats
Enlarged spleen (feeling full or pain in upper left belly)
Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)
201
