Heme/ Onc Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

A child presents with petechiae and low platelets a few weeks after a URI. How would you treat?

A

observation; if the child is not bleeding no IVIG or steroids are needed because ITP is self-limited in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are complications of multiple myeloma

A

renal failure, hypercalcemia, hyperviscosity syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the symptoms of fanconi anemia and how is diagnosis confirmed

A

sx=aplastic anemia, progressive bone marrow failure, short stature, microcephaly, curved thumbs, hypogonadism, skin pigmentation abnormalities, low-set ears, middle ear hemorrhages/infections/deafness, horseshoe kidney; dx confirmed via chromosomal breaks on genetic analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the most common complication of sickle cell trait

A

painless hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is Diamond-Blackfan anemia

A

a pure red blood cell aplasia that presents at around 3-12 months, macrocytic anemia, WBC and platelet counts are normal
associated congenital abnormalities include webbed neck, short stature, crested chest and triphalyngeal thumbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

if a patient becomes pancytopenic after drug, toxin or viral exposure you should suspsect what

A

acquired aplastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

various sites of venous thrombosis in the arms and chest should suggest what condition and what associated disease

A

Trousseau’s syndrome= hypercoagulable disorder presenting with superficial thrombophlebitis in the chest and upper extremities
Trousseau’s syndrome is associated with occult visceral malignancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

at what size would you want to consider biopsy of a lymph node palpated on physical exam

A

lymph node greater than 2cm (or firm/immobile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (inheritance pattern and triad of symptoms)

A

Wiskott-Aldrich is an X-linked disorder characterized by eczema, thrombocytopenia and hypogammaglobulinemia (leading to recurrent bacterial infections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is hyposthenuria

A

inability to concentrate the urine; seen in sickle cell and sickle cell trait; due to sickling of vasa recta of medulla of kidney impairing countercurrent exchange and water reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

“soap bubble”-appearing lesion in the epiphysis of a long bone should make you think of what disease

A

Giant cell tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what happens to calcium, phosphate, potassium and uric acid in tumor lysis syndrome

A

Ca= decreased (bound up by excess phosphate), Phosphate=elevated; potassium= elevated; uric acid=elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is used to treat DVT caused by homocysteinemia?

A

vitamin B6 and folate (cofactors for conversion to cysteine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the paraprotein gap usually like for patients with multiple myeloma

A

increased (i.e. difference between total protein and albumin=greater than 3-4g/dL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the two main manifestations of paroxysymal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A
  1. hemolytic anemia

2. vein thromboses (intraabdominal, intracranial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the most common cause of megaloblastic anemia in chronic alcoholics

A

folate deficiency (not B12 deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the drug of choice for treating cancer-related cachexia and anorexia

A

progesterone analogs

18
Q

what are the symptoms of a pinealoma

A
  • Parinaud’s (ptosis, downward gaze, pupil constriction to accomodation only, upper eyelid retraction)
  • obstructive hydrocephalus
  • precocious puberty for beta-HCG secreting tumors
19
Q

what is first-line therapy for chemo-induced vomiting/nausea and what is its mechanism of action

A

zofran (odansetron): a serotonin 5HT^3 antagonist

20
Q

after exposure/wound, when should tetanus toxoid vaccine vs. tetanus immunoglobulin

A

tetanus immunoglobulin should only be given if the wound is severe/dirty AND the patient does not have complete vaccination (>3 toxoid doses), to be given along with toxoid vaccine
just the toxoid vaccine should be given for minor wounds and for patients with incomplete immunization history

21
Q

how do ACE inhibitors predispose to acquired angioedema

A

at ANY point in the use of ACE inhibitors angioedema can occur due to inhibition of bradykinin breakdown; bradykinin promotes edema

22
Q

should vaccines for premature infants be given according to gestational age or chronological age

A

chronological age; as long as the premature infant is stable and weight >2kg, vaccines should be given by how old the infant is rather than how long the pregnancy was

23
Q

what is the workup algorithm for a solitary pulmonary nodule

A

CXR (compare with previous) –> CT scan; if benign do serial CTs to monitor, if indeterminate do biopsy or PET, if highly suspicious for malignancy do surgical excision

24
Q

which pneumococal vaccine produces immunity via T-cell dependent vs. T-cell independent B cell memory

A

PCV-13 is conjugated and therefore produces a more robust T-cell dependent B cell response whereas PPSV-23 is just polysaccharide and works via T-cell independent mechanism (not as good for kids/elderly)

25
is a seizure after DTaP administration a contraindication to subsequent vaccinations
no; only anaphylaxis, encephalopathy and unstable neurologic disorders
26
what is the cause of hyperIgM syndrome
X-linked defect of CD40 ligand leading to inability to class switch
27
what factors comprise a high risk solitary pulmonary nodule (these must be surgically excised)
size greater than or equal to 2cm age older than 60 current smoker or quit less than 5 years ago corona radiata or spiculated
28
what are the side effects of erythropoetin therapy
worsening hypertension, headache, flu-like syndrome, red cell aplasia
29
how can you differentiate between iron deficiency anemia and thalassemia (both are microcytic anemias)
RDW is high in iron deficiency anemia and normal in thalassemias
30
what two things distinguish Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia from multiple myeloma
1. IgM spike (vs. IgG or IgA in MM) | 2. hyperviscosity (think MACROglobulinemia)
31
in a patient with malignancy who develops sudden onset severe back pain with neuropathies what is the condition and management algorithm
epidural spinal cord compression severe vs. not-severe: if severe get emergency MRI and give steroids --> radiation or surgery if indicated by MRI if not severe get an MRI within 24 hours if no myelopathy just get an x-ray --> MRI if indicated
32
characteristic symptoms of graft vs. host disease
can occur at any time and involves activation of donor T lymphoctyes; sx= maculopapular rash involving face, hands and soles; bloody diarrhea; jaundice
33
what are the complications of sickle cell trait
gross hematuria due to renal papillary necrosis (which also results from tylenol, diabetes, acute pyelo), UTI's and renal medullary carcinoma
34
fever, leukocytosis and left upper quadrant pain with associated splenomegaly and pleural effusion is most likely what? what are the common etiologies of this condition?
splenic abscess; can be due to infective endocarditis, trauma, IVDU, immunosuppression, hemoglobinopathies
35
fever, chills, and deep abdominal pain suggest what
retroperitoneal abscess
36
what are the clinical features of cholesterol emboli
livedo reticularis, blue toe syndrome, gangrene/ulcers, stroke, amaurosis fugax, acute or subacute kidney injury, intestinal ischemia, pancreatitis, Hollenhorst plaques
37
what are the lab findings for cholesterol emboli
elevated creatinine, eosinophilia, hypocomplementemia eosinophiluria
38
what two diseases should a patient with isolated thrombocytopenia be tested for
HIV and Hep C can present as ITP
39
a child with isolated thrombocytopenia after a viral URI likely has what condition? how do you treat it if it is uncomplicated vs. complicated by active bleeding?
immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) observation only if uncomplicated (resolves in 6 months) treat with IVIG or steroids if c/b bleeding note: adults should get IVIG or steroids for platelets
40
which drugs cause acute pancreatitis
diuretics (furosemide and HCTZ), antibiotics (metronidazole, tetracyclines), drugs for IBD (mesalamine, sulfasalazine), azathioprine, HIV drugs (didanosine, pentamidine)
41
what is the classic triad of disseminated gonococcemia
polyarthralgias, tenosynovitis, painless vesicopustular lesions
42
how do you tell the difference between iron deficiency anemia and thalassemia
RDW: iron deficiency anemia will have a high red cell distribution width due to poikilocytosis as smaller cells are being produced in an iron-deficient state in thalassemias the RDW is normal