histo exam 1 Flashcards
(536 cards)
1
Q
what are functional units of living organisms?
A
cells (can differentiate to perform special functions)
2
Q
what are anatomically discreet collections of tissues?
A
organs
3
Q
what are the cells that make up the functional elements of an organ (main actors)?
A
parenchyma cells
4
Q
what are the cells that makeup the structural framework of an organ (background tissue)?
A
stroma
5
Q
what is fluid tissue, contained within vessels of circulatory system?
A
blood
6
Q
what surrounds and supports other tissue?
A
connective tissue
7
Q
what covers body surfaces, lines cavities, and forms glands?
A
epithelium
8
Q
what contains specialized contractile cells responsible for movement?
A
muscle
9
Q
what contains modified cells responsible for intracellular communication?
A
nervous tissue
10
Q
what do you use to prevent tissue denaturation (37% formaldehyde)?
A
formalin
11
Q
what type of stain stains blue, basic dye, stains acids (nuclei)
A
hematoxylin (basophilic - blue/ purple)
12
Q
what type of stain stains red-pink, acidic dye, stains bases (proteins)?
A
eosin (eosinophilic - red/ pink)
13
Q
what functions as a semi-permeable membrane within a cell?
A
cell membrane (plasmalemma)
amphipathic (contains both hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts)
14
Q
what does the hydrophilic portion of a cell contain?
A
positively charged N groups and charged phosphate groups
15
Q
what does the hydrophobic portion of a cell contain?
A
two long chain fatty acids covalently linked to glycerol
16
Q
what type of appearance does the cell membrane have?
A
tri-laminar (2 electron dense layers - phospholipid heads separated by electron lucent layer - FA tails)
17
Q
how does the fluidity of a membrane change with increasing temperature?
A
fluidity increases with increasing temperature
18
Q
how does the fluidity of a membrane change with decreasing of saturation of FA’s
A
high fluidity with lower saturation of FA’s
19
Q
how does the fluidity of a membrane change with cholesterol levels?
A
higher amounts of cholesterol stiffens membrane (lower fluidity)
present in 1:1 ratio with phospholipids
20
Q
what are proteins on surface of membrane termed?
A
extrinsic or peripheral
21
Q
what are proteins incorporated within the membrane termed?
A
intrinsic or integral
22
Q
what is another term for intrinsic proteins that extend from one side of the membrane to the other?
A
transmembrane proteins
23
Q
what is the main difference between pores and channels in transmembrane proteins?
A
pores - always open
channels - can open and close
24
Q
what type of membrane proteins involved in transport serves to transport ions across the membrane (Na+/ K+ pump)?
A
pumps
25
what type of membrane proteins involved in transport allows passage of water-soluble molecules via diffusion?
channels
26
what type of membrane proteins allow for cell recognition and binding on cell membrane (immune mediated reactions)?
receptor proteins
27
what type of membrane proteins initiate enzymatic reactions following binding with ligand molecules (hormone)?
transducers
28
what type of membrane proteins are components of ion pumps and digestive action?
enzymes
29
what type of membrane proteins add mechanical stability to membrane?
structural proteins
30
what two molecules help to makeup the glycocalyx?
glycoproteins and glycolipids
31
what are two functions of the glycocalyx?
protects surface of cell membrane
may be involved in cell recognition
(important in mediating exchange between internal and external environment)
32
what type of transport:
- occurs DOWN a conc or ionic gradient
- some agents can pass directly through cell membrane
- larger water-soluble molecules use pores or channels in transmembrane proteins
simple diffusion
33
what type of transport:
- passive and concentration dependent but requires carrier molecules
- also called carrier mediated diffusion
- reversible binding and unbinding to transport water-soluble hydrophilic molecules
facilitated diffusion
34
types of ion channels (transmembrane proteins)
ungated channels - always open (pores)
gated channels - open or closed (selective permeability)
voltage gating (requires change in membrane potential)
chemical gating (requires binding of signaling molecule)
35
how can passive and facilitated diffusion be enhanced?
increase in surface area of a cell membrane via folding
36
what type of channel allows water to cross plasma membrane faster than simple diffusion alone?
aquaporins
37
what type of transport:
- independent of concentration (usually against conc gradient)
- requires energy (ATP to ADP)
- occurs at specialized dynamic pore sites (usually transmembrane proteins)
active transport
38
what type of transport:
- requires energy
- engulfment of molecules or particles by cytoplasmic extensions
- result in membrane bound endocytic vacuoles (endosomes)
bulk (vesicular) transport
39
what are the two types of endocytosis?
phagocytosis - engulfment of solid particulate matter
pinocytosis - engulfment of liquids
40
what type of endocytosis requires extracellular molecules bind to receptor proteins (uses clathrin)?
receptor mediated endocytosis
41
any type of bulk transport or vesicular movement from cytoplasm to ECS
exocytosis
42
what term is used for transport of material across or through the cell via sequential endocytosis followed by exocytosis?
transcytosis
43
examples of prokaryotes and eukaryotes
prokaryotes - monera, cyanobacteria
eukaryotes - single celled protists, protozoa, multi celled metazoans
44
what makes up protoplasm?
70-85% water, electrolytes, proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates
45
what is the term for the semi-liquid contents between cell membrane and nuclear membrane, surrounds organelles?
cytoplasm / cytosol
nucleoplasm - within nucleus
46
what organelle contains the genome of DNA and makes up <20% of nuclear mass?
nucleus
47
what is the term for what is formed from DNA complexed with nucleoproteins?
chromatin
48
what is chromatin packaged into?
chromosomes
49
what are segments of DNA coding for particular traits?
genes
50
what is the term for different forms of the same gene?
alleles
51
how do chromosomes exist in most eukaryotic cells?
homologous pairs (diploid in humans - 2n = 46)
52
what is the term for sorting of chromosome pairs according to size and shape?
karyotyping
53
what type of chromatin is electron dense, darkly staining, inactive DNA and nucleoproteins?
heterochromatin
54
what type of chromatin is dispersed DNA active in transcription (RNA synthesis) and unravels to become visible as lamp brush chromosomes?
euchromatin
55
what is the term for a permanently inactive DNA (X chromosome) in females?
barr body
56
what will cells in active translation have?
prominent nucleolus and abundant euchromatin
57
in what state is most chromatin in the nucleus usually found?
heterochromatin... only a small % active at any one time as euchromatin (constantly changing with protein synthesis)
58
what is the term for most of DNA-associated protein in eukaryotes that help to assist in DNA folding and chromatin organization into chromosomes?
histones
59
what is the term for segments of DNA that wrap around several histones and regulate DNA activity?
nucleosomes
60
what is the term for additional category of nucleoproteins that may also be involved in regulation of gene activity?
non-histones
61
what separates the nucleoplasm from the cytoplasm?
nuclear envelope
62
how many layers make up the nuclear envelope and what separates them?
2 layers (inner and outer nuclear membrane)
separated by perinuclear cisterna
63
what type of filaments help to make up the nuclear lamina and provides support to the membrane?
lamin filaments
64
what are the inner and outer nuclear membranes connected by that contains nucleoproteins and allowed for communication between cytoplasm and nuceloplasm?
nuclear pore complex
65
what are the two subunits of ribosomes?
40S and 60S
66
where are ribosomes synthesized and found within a cell?
synthesized and assembled in nucleolus
found free in cytoplasm, attached to rER and outer nuclear membrane
often grouped together as polyribosomes or polysomes
67
what organelle is commonly termed the power house of the cell and why does it have this nickname?
mitochondria
site of Kreb's cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
68
what two types of cells are mitochondria NOT present in?
red blood cells and keratinocytes
69
how many membranes do mitochondria have and which one is permeable?
2 membranes (inner and outer)
outer membrane is permeable and contains porin
70
which membrane of mitochondria is pleated to form folds that is lined with elementary particles that contain enzymes for oxidative phosphorylation?
inner membrane (folds = cristae)
inner cavity is filled with amorphous matrix
71
what organelle possesses circular DNA (maternally inherited) and are self replicating?
mitochondria
72
where does cell respiration begin and with what process?
occurs in cytoplasm
glycolysis which breaks down glucose into pyruvate
DOES NOT require oxygen
73
where does pyruvate then diffuse so that it can undergo aerobic respiration?
mitochondrial martix
74
during what process is most ATP produced by cytochromes of the ETC?
oxidative phosphorylation
75
what are the enzymes on the inner membrane of cristae?
cytochromes
76
what organelle is a series of membranous sheets and tubules throughout the cytoplasm?
endoplasmic reticulum
77
what type of ER has surface receptor molecules for ribosomal attachment and is the site for protein synthesis?
rough ER
78
what type of ER functions in lipid synthesis, transports proteins from rER to golgi, membrane formation / recycling, cholesterol / steroid hormones synthesis, and detoxification of drugs and toxins?
smooth ER
79
what is the term for the "little taxis" that surround and coat proteins for transport, bud off of sER, transport proteins between sER and golgi and between golgi and cell surface?
coated vesicles
80
what is the name of the organelle that functions in post-translational modification, packaging, and sorting of proteins synthesized in rER?
golgi apparatus
81
which face of the golgi is convex?
cis (forming face)
82
which face of the golgi is concave?
trans (maturing face)
83
how are proteins packaged into vesicles for secretion?
packaged into clathrin coated vesicles along the maturing face of the golgi
84
what is the name of the organelle that are membrane bound vesicles containing hydrolytic enzymes?
lysosomes
85
what is the term for newly formed lysosomes produced by rER and golgi (inactive form)?
1' lysosomes (primary)
86
what is the term for primary lysosomes that fuse with phagocytic vesicles (phagosomes) and become active?
phagolysosomes (2' lysosomes - secondary)
87
what is the term for lysosomes that are involved in hydrolytic breakdown?
3' lysosomes or residual body
88
what is the term used to describe programmed cell death (aka autophagy)
apoptosis
89
what is the name of a membrane bound vesicle that is a type of endocytic vesicle with an acid pH in lumen (due to proton pumps in membrane)?
endosomes
90
what is the name of a membrane bound vesicle that contains oxidative enzymes (oxidases), catalase, and peroxidase?
peroxisomes
91
what do peroxisomes use to oxidize toxic metabolites?
enzymes, free radicals, hydrogen peroxide
92
what is the term for non-living components of a cell that include: neutral fat droplets, lipids, glycogen, secretory / pigment granules, and can also be viral?
inclusions
93
what is the name of the intracytoplasmic pigment that gives a black / brown granular pigment produced by melanocytes and is transporter to other cells?
melanin
94
what is the name of the intracytoplasmic pigment that gives a gold / brown granules and is frequently seen in neurons (sometimes called old age pigment)
lipofuscin
95
what are the four main functions of the cytoskeleton?
- provide structural support for membrane and organelles
- intracellular movement / transport of substances
- cell locomotion
- muscle contration
96
what are the three main elements of the cytoskeleton?
microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules
97
what type of filament is important in maintaining cell shape and facilitating shape changes during movement?
mircofilaments (actin and myosin)
98
how are larger actin filaments made from the smaller g-actin subunits?
1. smaller g-actin subunits polymerize to form protofilaments
2. 2 protofilaments twist together to form a double helix (f-actin)
3. these can then combine to form larger actin filaments
99
what protein does actin link with beneath the plasma membrane to form the cell cortex (terminal web)?
filamin
100
what function does the cell cortex serve?
prevents cell from deformation
101
what microfilament is classified as a motor protein along with dynein and kinesin?
myosin
102
what microfilament do myosin heads form cross bridges with between adjacent filaments?
actin filaments
103
what is required for movement of filaments for muscle contraction?
calcium and ATP
104
which type of filament is useful in immunohistochemistry and tumor ID?
intermediate filaments
105
which type of intermediate filament is a characteristic of all epithelial cells, found in the epidermis of skin and forms tonofibrils?
(cyto)keratin
106
which type of intermediate filament is found in medodermal cells of mesenchymal origin (includes endothelial cells, muscle and neutoectodermal cells)?
vimentin
107
which type of intermediate filament is unique to muscle cells and mesodermal in origin?
desmin
108
which type of intermediate filament is present in nerve cells (neurons)
neurofilament proteins
109
which type of intermediate filament is found in glial (support) cells of nervous system (astrocytes)
glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)
110
which type of intermediate filament forms a layer on the inside of the nuclear membrane?
lamin
111
what type of filament is composed of alpha and beta tubulin (globular protein subunits) that are arranged in a coiled spiral pattern and polymerize to form hollow tubes?
microtubules
112
what type of filament is involved in cell movement, maintenance of cell shape, and intracellular transport of substances?
microtubules
113
how does movement occur when talking about microtubules?
addition or subtraction of tubulin subunits
114
what motor proteins attach microtubules to organelles and allow for movement in cytoplasm?
dynein and kynesin
115
what cell structures can we find microtubules in?
cilia and flagella
centrioles
basal bodies of cilia
mitotic spindles
116
why are drugs like colchicine, vincristine, and vinblastin used chemotherapy?
inhibit polymerization of microtubules and cell division
NOTE - drugs are nonspecific and can not tell a difference between cancer cell and regular cell (explains why cancer patients lose hair)
117
what cell structure has 9 pairs of microtubules (peripheral doublets) containing dynein arms arranged in circle with central doublet in middle (9 + 2 structure)
axoneme
118
how does the central doublet of an axoneme connect to peripheral doublets?
radial spokes
119
how to peripheral doublets connect to one another in axoneme?
nexin (protein)
120
in cilia, where does the axoneme grow from?
basal body derived from modified centriole
121
where are centrioles normally located within a cell and what do they function in?
located in region of cell called centrosome (near nucleus)
function in cell division
122
what does each centriole consist of?
9 triplets of microtubules arranged in a cylinder
123
what controls distribution of chromosomes in daughter cells that is made up of microtubules?
mitotic spindle
124
what are the five phases of mitosis?
interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
125
what is the phase of the cell cycle that is considered the resting phase or time between divisions (occupies most of life of cell)?
interphase
126
what is the longest cell phase during which cell growth, maturation, and differentiation occur?
G1 (1st gap phase)
127
what are the two ways that growth of a tissue can occur?
hypertrophy - increase in cell size (occurs during G1)
hyperplasia - increase in cell number (occurs during mitosis)
128
what phase of the cell cycle does replication of DNA occur prior to division?
S phase
129
what is the chromosome number at the beginning and end of S phase (mitosis)?
beginning - 2n
end - 4n
130
prior to replication in S phase, each chromosome has a __ chromatid with attached centromere
single
131
following replication in S phase, each chromosome contains __ chromatids with attached centromere
two
132
during what cell phase does the cell prepare for mitosis and we see synthesis of ATP and tubulin for mitotic spindle?
G2 (2nd gap phase)
133
M phase of mitosis is characterized by what two divisions that result in 2 daughter cells?
karyokinesis - nuclear division
cytokinesis - cytoplasmic division
134
during what phases do chromosomes condense, become visible, and look like coiled snakes?
S and M phases
135
during what phases do chromosomes exist in an unraveled mess that are not readily visible?
G1 and G0 phases
136
what is the term for cells that retain capacity for division with proper stimulus after entering the G0 phase (reserve stem cells)?
facultative dividers
137
what the the term for cells that lost the capacity to divide after entering G0 phase (neurons, cardiac myocytes)?
terminally differentiated cells
138
during what phase of mitosis do cells become visible condensed, microfilaments and microtubules of cytoskeleton disaggregate, and centrioles migrate to poles of cell to form spinal apparatus?
prophase
139
during what phase of mitosis does the nuclear membrane and nucleoli disappear and the mitotic spindle attaches to chromosomes at kinetochore?
prometaphase (late prophase)
140
during what phase of mitosis do chromosomes line up along equator (metaphase plate)?
metaphase
141
during what phase of mitosis do centromeres split apart and chromosomes migrate to opposite ends of cell (pulled by microtubules connecting centriole and kinetochore)
anaphase
142
during what phase of mitosis does mitotic spindle disaggregate, nuclear envelope reassembles, nucleoli reappear, plasma membrane forms cleavage furrow and cytokinesis begins?
telophase
143
what is the term used to describe proportion of cells in a tissue in mitosis at any given time and why is it important
mitotic index
important in tumors - estimated by counting number of mitotic figures (normally <1)
144
what is the term used to describe the production of haploid gametes (eggs and sperm)
gametogenesis
145
name of gamete formation in males and females
males - spermatogenesis
females - oogenesis
146
what cell division process involves chromosomal duplication followed by two consecutive cell divisions to produce haploid gametes?
meiosis
147
what does the fusion of gametes (fertilization) produce?
diploid zygote (fertilized egg)
148
what are the two main differences in mitosis and meiosis I?
- during prophase I, homologous pairs of chromosomes form tetrads and exchange chromatin via crossing over (chiasmata formation)
- centromeres DO NOT split during anaphase I
149
NOTES TO MAKE ABOUT SECOND MEIOTIC DIVISION
- interkinesis - NO replication of DNA
- no crossing over during prophase II
- centromeres split during anaphase II
- cytokinesis yields four unique haploid gametes in telophase II
150
how many functional gametes are formed during gametogenesis within males and females?
males - 3 or 4 viable gametes
females - 1 functional gamete with 2-3 non-functional polar bodies
151
when does spermatogenesis and oogenesis begin in males and females?
males - beings at puberty
females - beings during fetal development
NOTE - female germ cells enter prophase I during 5th month of gestation and remain until ovulation (12-50 years later)
152
what is the term for a cell undergoing apoptosis where we see condensation of nuclear chromatin and shrinkage of the nucleus?
pyknosis
153
what are some characteristics that we can see from staining a cell that is undergoing apoptosis?
- nucleus becomes very small and darkly stained (pyknotic nucleus)
- cell swells as a result of influx of water due to loss of ATP to maintain Na+/ K+ pumps
- cytoplasm becomes bright pink (eosinophilic)
154
what is the term for chromatin in the nucleus beginning to degenerate during apoptosis?
karyolysis
155
what is a term for nuclear material beginning to fragment and nuclear membrane disintegration during apoptosis?
karyorhexis
156
what is another name for fragmented nuclear debris?
apoptotic bodies
157
what is the term for death of cells as a result is inflammation, traumatic injury, or pathology?
necrosis
158
plasma makes of how much of total blood volume?
55% of blood volume
159
what is the serum of blood made up of?
plasma minus clotting factors
160
what are three main functions of blood / blood stream?
- primary vehicle for transport of nutrients, O2, CO2, waste products and hormones
- thermoregulation
- maintenance of homeostasis
161
type of plasma protein that makes up the bulk of plasma proteins (all synthesized in liver), function as transport for proteins for insoluble metabolites, and are responsible for maintaining colloid osmotic pressure in blood vessels
albumins
162
type of plasma protein that are large molecules used as transport proteins for lipids and heavy metal ions (largest fraction - immunoglobins)
globulins
163
type of plasma protein that are the largest proteins, soluble, and synthesized in the liver... polymerize to form insoluble fibrin during clotting
fibrinogens
(prothrombin - thrombin catalyzes fibrinogen - fibrin)
164
what are the components of blood formed in bone marrow via hemopoiesis?
red blood cells
white blood cells
platelets
165
what is hematocrit?
volume of red blood cells
166
what is the term that describes genetic neoplasia (higher than normal rbc count)
polycythemia vera
167
what makes up the packed cell volume
hematocrit +/- buffy coat (depending on source)
168
what makes up the buffy coat?
white blood cells and platelets (1-2%)
169
what term describes the general process by which mature blood cells develop from precursor cells?
hemopoiesis
170
what term describes the process of red blood cell production?
erythropoiesis
171
what term describes the process of white blood cell production?
myeolpoiesis
172
hemopoiesis is under control by which hormone secreted by the kidney?
erythropoietin
173
how does the relationship of active sites of blood cell production relate to age?
number of active sites decreases with age
174
what is the difference between red and yellow bone marrow?
red marrow - active (contains large numbers of mature rbc's)
yellow (fatty) marrow - inactive (adipose tissue gives yellow color)
175
stages of erythropoiesis (start to finish)
stem cell (CFU-E)
proerythroblast
erythroblst
normoblast
reticulocyte
mature rbc
176
what are the overall trends in erythropoiesis?
progressive decrease in cell size
loss of nucleus and organelles
increase in hemoglobin
177
what are some of the defining characteristics of rbc's?
- no nucleus in mammals
- before released into blood stream - nucleus extruded and all organelles degenerate
- lack mitochondria (make ATP via glycolysis)
178
what is the term for occasional, basophilic nuclear remnants visible within cytoplasm?
Howell-Jolly bodies
179
what is the term for immature rbc's with stippled cytoplasm, still have some rRNA and are slightly larger than mature rbc's?
reticulocytes
180
what is the term for an increase number of reticulocytes in circulation associated with chronic blood loss, hemolytic anemia (aka left shift)?
reticulocytosis
181
vitamin B12 and B9 deficiency can lead to what?
large cells called macrocytes (delayed maturation of rbc's)
182
what is the term for large numbers of erythrocyte precursors in peripheral blood?
megaloblastic anemia
183
what size are erythrocytes?
6-8 um diameter biconcave discs (allow for deformability)
184
what is the primary structural protein in rbc's?
spectrin
185
transport of what gases are erythrocytes involved in?
O2 and CO2 exchange
contain large amounts of Fe containing pigment (hemoglobin)
186
what disease can occur from low levels of Fe or blood loss?
anemia
187
what are some characteristics of rbc's if a person has Fe deficient anemia?
small (microcytic) and pale staining (hypochromic)
(normal rbc's are normocytic and normochromic)
188
what disease is caused by a single amino acid substitution that causes a 3D change in structure of Hb molecule?
sickle cell anemia (causes these cells to be more fragile and easily damaged)
189
what is a term for small, non-nucleated cells containing organelles?
platlets (thrombocytes)
190
how are platelets formed?
formed from large, polyploid cells in bone marrow (megakaryocytes) which develop pleated demarcation channels in cytoplasm (platelets then tear off)
191
what is the term used to describe the result of cascade interaction between plasma proteins and coagulation factors?
coagulation
192
explain what the two convergent pathways of coagulation entail
extrinsic (faster) - initiated by release of tissue thromboplastin as a result of tissue damage
intrinsic (slower) - initiated by exposure of collagen (requires numerous clotting factors and is a longer cascade reaction)
193
what happens after the wall of a blood vessel breaks (think of both coagulation pathways)?
- releases thromboplastin (initiates extrinsic pathway)
- exposes collagen (initiates intrinsic pathway)
- platelets mechanically adhere to exposed collagen and release serotonin (vasoconstrictor)
194
at what point do the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways converge to form the common pathway for coagulation?
where factor X is activated
results in conversion of prothrombin to thrombin, converts soluble fibrinogen, into soluble fibrin
195
what are two anticoagulants?
antithrombin III and heparin
196
what is hemophilia a result of (present on X chromosome)?
deficiency in clotting factors so blood can't clot (defect in intrinsic pathway)
197
how are leukocytes (WBC) able to leave circulation?
migration
pavementing (rolling and adhesion)
diapedesis
extravasation
198
how are leukocytes attracted to inflammatory sites?
chemotaxis via cytokines
199
how are white blood cells categorized (2 categories)?
granulocytes (possessing granules)
agranulocytes (lacking granules)
200
what type of granules do all WBC's possess?
primary granules (stain blue/ purple - azurophilic granules)
201
what type of enzymes do primary granules contain?
lysosomal enzymes (acid hydrolases)
202
what type of granules do granulocytes possess?
primary and secondary granules
203
what are the three types of granulocytes?
neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils
204
what type of granulocyte makes up 40-75% of WBC's?
neutrophils
205
how many lobes does the nucleus of a neutrophil have?
3-5 lobes (polymorphonuclear cells)
206
what type of energy metabolism does neutrophils use?
primary anaerobic glycolysis
207
how do secondary granules stain in neutrophils?
either basophilic or eosinophilic (neutral)
208
which type of granulocyte contains inflammatory mediators, complement activators, proteases, defensins, lactoferrin, lysozoyme (actibacterial compounds) and are released during inflammatory reaction?
neutrophils
209
what do the tertiary granules of neutrophils contain?
gelatinase (breaks down collagen)
210
how long does acute inflammation last?
several days
211
how long does subacute inflammation last?
1 week to 10 days
212
how long does chronic inflammation last?
more than 10 days
213
which granulocyte is associated with acute inflammation (lasting several days)?
neutrophils
214
what are redness (rubor), swelling (tumor), heat (calore), and pain (et dolore) cardinal signs of?
inflammation
215
how are neutrophils attracted to bacteria and damaged tissue?
chemotactic factors
216
what type of granulocyte functions in primary phagocytosis and can be increased via opsonization?
neutrophils
217
what is the term for bacterial killing by generating hydrogen peroxide and hypochlorous acid?
respiratory burst
218
what is a term used to describe immature neutrophils?
stab cells (band cells)
219
what is the least common WBC making up <1% with a bilobed nucleus?
basophils
220
what type of granulocyte is the equivalent of mast cells in tissue?
basophils
221
what granulocyte can be characterized by large basophilic specific granules?
basophils
222
what do specific granules of basophils contain?
hydrolytic enzymes
heparin sulfate (anticoagulant)
chondroitin sulfate (proteoglycan)
histamine
leukotrienes
- (slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis)
- (eosinophilic chemotactic factor)
223
what is the term for release of granule contents into ECS?
degranulation
224
what type of WBC counteracts the effects of basophils?
eosinophils
225
what type of granulocyte makesup 1-6% of WBC's and has a bilobed nucleus?
eosinophils
226
which granulocyte has surface receptors for IgE?
eosinophils
227
what type of reactions are eosinophils important in to counteract the effects of basophils?
hypersensitivity reactions
228
by which factor are eosinophils chemotactically attracted to basophils and mast cells?
eosinophilic chemotactic factor
229
what inhibitor is released by eosinophils and inhibits basophil and mast cell degranulation?
eosinophil derived inhibitor
230
which type of granulocyte has antiparasitic function (especially against flukes) and affinity for antigen/ antibody complexes
eosinophils
231
what are monocytes and lymphocytes examples of?
agranulocytes
NOTE - have unlobed nucleus and only primary (axurophilic) granules
232
what type of WBC (agranulocyte) makes up 2-10% of WBC's and is the largest of WBC's?
monocytes
233
what are two defining characteristics of monocytes?
- abundant gray/blue - lavender cytoplasm
- large indented (kidney bean shaped) nucleus
234
what is the term for monocytes that have left the blood stream and entered tissues?
macrophages (histiocytes)
235
what type of agranulocyte is active in subacute chronic infections?
monocytes
236
what type of WBC (agranulocyte) can fuse together to become multinucleate epitheloid giant cells in chronic granulomas?
monocytes
237
what type of agranulocyte can function as antigen presenting cells in lymphoid organs?
monocytes
238
what type of agranulocyte makes up about 20-45% of WBC's and is present in subacute to chronic infections?
lymphocytes
239
what is a defining characteristic of lymphocytes?
round, densely staining nucleus surrounded by thin rim of cytoplasm
240
what are the two types of lymphocytes?
b-cells and t-cells
NOTE - lymphocytes are the primary cell of immune system (recirculating, immunocompetent cells)
241
what type of lymphocyte is formed in the bone marrow and becomes immunocompetent in bone marrow?
b-cells
242
what type of lymphocyte functions in humorally mediated immune responses and produces antibodies?
b-cells
243
explain what amplification or clonal expansion is
after encountering antigen, b-cells undergo multiple divisions to produce clone of antibody producing plasma cells
244
what is the term for b-cells and t-cells that DO NOT replicate but remain as long-lived _____?
memory cells or effector cells
245
what type of response do memory or effector cells function in?
anamnestic response or humoral immunity
(premise of vaccination)
246
what type of lymphocyte can function as an antigen presenting cell?
b-cells
247
b-cells have what surface marker along with surface immunoglobulins to mark them as "self"?
HLA - human leukocyte antigen
248
what type of lymphocyte is formed in the bone marrow but migrates to the thymus to become immunocompetant?
t-cells (thymus-dependent)
249
what type of immunity are t-cells responsible for?
cell-mediated immunity
250
what is the term for receptors on the cell surface of t-cells (like those present on antibodies)?
paratopes
251
what is the term for surface receptors on t-cells that recognize foreign proteins of antigens?
epitopes
252
cytotoxic, suppressor, and helper lymphocytes are what type of cell?
t-cells
253
what type of t-cell is the primary effector in cell-mediated immunity and tend to be large lymphocytes?
cytotoxic or killer t-cells
254
what type of t-cell recognized cells with foreign surface antigens / receptors and kills them by punching holes in the plasma membrane?
cytotoxic or killer t-cells
255
what type of t-cell detects invaders and sounds the chemical alarm?
helper t-cells
256
cells that secrete lymphokines (cytokines) that stimulate b-cells for antibody production or recruit killer cells are what type of t-cell?
helper t-cells
257
what type of t-cell suppresses activity of b-cells to dampen the immune response, especially to self molecules?
suppressor cells
258
the loss of control of what type of t-cell can result in autoimmune diseases?
suppressor t-cells
259
what type of lymphocyte lacks specific cell surface markers of either b-cells or t-cells but has Fc receptors?
null cells
260
natural killer cells are a type of _____?
null cell
261
which type of lymphocyte is responsible for NONSPECIFIC cytotoxicity against virus infected and tumor cells and can function in antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity?
null cells
262
what makes up the complete blood count (CBC)?
total number of WBC's
263
what makes up the differential cell count?
relative percentages of WBC's
264
mnemonic to remember relative concentrations of WBC's
NLMEB - never let monkeys eat bananas
265
what does a high WBC count suggest and what are its suffixes?
infection / tumor
(-philia and -osis)
266
what does a low WBC count suggest and what is its suffix?
immune suppression / tumor
(-penia)
267
what does a high neutrophil count suggest?
acute inflammation, bacterial inflammation
268
what does a high lymphocyte (and monocyte) count suggest?
subacute inflammation nd viral infection
269
what does a high eosinophil count suggest?
allergic reaction, parasitic infection
270
what does neutropenia suggest (low WBC count)?
acute viral infection or severe sepsis
271
what does thrombocytopenia suggest (low WBC count)?
low platelets (associated with clotting disorders)
272
what functions does connective tissue serve (5)?
- provides structural support
- provides metabolic support for other tissues and organs
- carries blood vessels
- functions in tissue repair
-mediates exchange of nutrients / metabolites and waste products between tissue and circulation
273
what is primitive connective tissue derived from?
mesodermal mesenchyme
274
what does mature connective tissue contain?
cells and extracellular matrix (secreted by cells)
275
what are cells in connective tissue that look pointed, elongate, and spindle shaped?
fibroblasts
276
what cells of connective tissue synthesize and maintain proteinaceous ground substance and connective tissue fibers (collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers)
fibroblasts
277
what are fibroblasts with contractile ability called?
myofibroblasts
278
what is the cell in connective tissue of lymph nodes and bone marrow (type of fibroblast)?
reticular cells (reticulum cells)
279
what do reticular cells resemble?
branched fibroblasts
280
what type of fiber do reticular cells synthesize and what type of function does it have?
- reticular fiber (made out of reticulin)
- phagocytic function
281
what is the cell in connective tissue responsible for storage and metabolism of lipids?
adipocytes
282
what cell in connective tissue resembles a large balloon shaped cell with clear spaces filled with lipid?
adipocytes
283
what is another term for extracellular organic matrix?
ground substance
284
what three fibers can be found in the ground substance of connective tissue?
collagen, reticulin, and elastin
285
what is a principle fiber in the extracellular matrix of connective tissue that provides tensile strength and is based on amino acid sequence?
collagen
286
what type of collagen makes up 90% of collagen in the body and makes up loose & dense connective tissue of skin, tendons, ligaments, bone and fibrocartilage?
type 1 (type I)
287
what type of collagen are hyaline cartilage and elastic cartilage examples of?
type 2 (type II)
288
what type of collagen is made up of reticulin fibers, function in structural support for organs, and are produced by reticular cells in lymph nodes, bone marrow and fibroblasts?
type 3 (type III)
289
what type of collagen is argyrophilic (stains black with silver stain)?
type 3 (type III)
290
what type of collagen is found in the basement membrane and doesn't form fibers?
type 4 (type IV)
291
what type of collagen makes up the cornea, placenta and dermo-epidermal junctions?
type 5 (type V)
292
what type of collagen is involved in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome and is characterized by hyperextension of joints, skin, fragility, and poor would healing?
type 5 (type V)
293
what type of molecule is collagen considered?
glyoprotein - precursor proteins produced by fibroblasts
294
what is collagen initially synthesized as?
procollagen
295
after collagen is packed into secretory vesicles and secreted in ECS, extracellular enzymatic modification occurs to form _________?
tropocollagen monomers
296
what does polymerization of tropocollagen into larger bundles result in final formation of?
collagen microfibrils
297
what do several collagen microfibrils combine to form?
collagen fiber
298
what do several collagen fibers combine to form?
collagen bundle
299
what type of fibers are highly branched, have random coiling pattern to allow for stretching, are arranged into fibers / sheets and are retractile?
elastin fibers
300
what precursor are elastin fibers synthesized by fibroblasts to form and what to they polymerize into?
percursor - tropoelastin precursor
polymerizes in ECM to form elastin
301
what are the two components of elastic fibers?
elastin and fibrillin
302
what type of fiber in connective tissue has a protein core similar to collagen surrounded by microfibrils of fibrillin?
elastin
303
what syndrome is described by the following characteristics:
- autosomal dominant condition resulting in abnormal elastic fibers
- characterized by tall stature, long limbs, and long thin fingers
- enlarged aorta with high regurgitation and increased risk of developing a dissecting aneurysm
Marfan's syndrome (elastin is easily damaged by sunlight)
304
fibrillin and fibronectin are examples of __________?
structural glycoproteins - large polypeptides with branched polysaccharide side chains
305
what type of glycoprotein is found in the basement membrane?
fibronectin
306
fibronectin aids in adhesion between cell membrane and extracellular matrix via interaction with adhesion molecules know as ______?
integrins
307
what are the three types of non-filamentous molecules?
laminin, entactin, and tenascin
308
what type of non-filamentous molecule is a sulfated glycoprotein, major component of basement membrane, and produced by most epithelial and endothelial cells?
laminin
309
what type of non-filamentous molecule is a sulfated glycoprotein and binds with laminin?
entactin
310
what type of non-filamentous molecule binds cells to extracellular matrix and is thought to be important in cell migration in developing nervous system?
tenascin
311
what is the amorphous, transparent material with properties of a semi-fluid gel made up by long unbranched polysaccharide chains of repeating disaccharide units called?
ground substance
312
what are non-functional or insufficient lysosomal enzymes termed?
mucopolysaccharidoses
313
most GAG's (glucosaminoglycan) are sulfated and covalently bound to protein molecules to form _______?
proteoglycans (mucroproteins)
314
what type of GAG is found in most connective tissue?
hyaluronic acid
315
what type of GAG is found in cartilage and bone?
chondroitin sulfate
316
what type of GAG is found in cartilage, bone, cornea, and intervertebral disc?
keratan sulfate
317
what type of GAG is found in dermis of skin, blood vessels, and heart valves?
dermatan sulfate
318
what type of GAG is found in basement membranes, lung, and liver?
heparan sulfate
319
what substance is made up of mostly GAG's (1' hyaluronic acid), proteoglycans, and water?
ground substance
320
imcompressibility of water provides ______ of connective tissue
turgor pressure
321
NOTE ABOUT HYALURONIC ACID (HYALURONATE)
- predominant GAG in loose connective tissue
- lacks sulfated side groups
- several thousand sugars long
- does NOT form proteoglycans itself but can bind with them
- ground substance is impervious barrier to microorganisms
322
what do pathogenic bacteria produce in order to destroy ground substance barrier and facilitate their spread?
hyaluronidase
323
what is the form of connective tissue that is characterized by sparse fibers and abundant ground substance (viscous gel-like consistency), has supportive function, and is located beneath epithelia / around nerves & vessels?
loose (areolar) connective tissue
324
what type of connective tissue provides structural support, has abundant fibers, moderate number of cells, and lesser ground substance?
dense connective tissue
325
what are the two types of dense connective tissue?
regular and irregular
326
what type of dense connective tissue has collagen fibers oriented parallel to each other, have densely packed fibers / cells arranged in fascicles, and are present in ligaments / tendons / aponeuroses?
regular (dense connective tissue)
327
what type of dense connective tissue has collagen fibers oriented randomly, moderate number of fibers and few cells?
irregular (dense connective tissue)
328
what type of connective tissue includes bone, cartilage, adipose tissue, hematopoietic tissue, lymphatic tissue, mesenchymal / mucus connective tissue (limited to embryo)?
specialized connective tissue
329
what type of tissue contains adipocytes?
adipose tissue
330
what cells are adipocytes derived from and what is their funciton?
lipoblasts - primitive mesemchyme adapted for storing fat (1' triglycerides)
331
does adipose tissue tend to be very active and does it have a high / low blood supply?
- fat energetically very active
- rich blood supple
332
what type of tissue functions in energy storage, thermoregulation and as a shock absorber?
adipose tissue
333
what type of fat in adipose tissue is UNIlocular, distributed in dermis and around intraperitoneal organs?
white fat
334
what type of fat in adipose tissue is MULTIlocular, highly specialized and present in infants and hibernating animals?
brown fat
335
what type of fat in adipose tissue is used in thermoregulation to maintain body temperature and is able to do so throughout use of the large number of mitochondria present?
brown fat
336
what type of fat in adipose tissue is located in the adrenals in humans?
brown fat
337
what does epithelia cover (3)?
- covers body surfaces
-lines body cavities
- forms glands
338
epithelial cells are characterized by production of __________ intermediate filaments
keratin
339
where is epithelia derived from?
ecto- , endo -, or medoderm
340
what does the ectoderm give rise to?
- epidermis (hair, skin, nails, glands, mammary glands)
- oral and anal mucosa
- enamel organ and enamel of teeth
- anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis)
- inner ear
341
what does the neuroectoderm give rise to?
- neural tube (CNS)
- pineal body, posterior pituitary, sensory epithelium of eye, ear and nose
- neural crest (PNS)
- ganglia, nerves, glial cells, adrenal medulla, melanocytes, neuroendocrine cells
342
what does the mesoderm give rise to?
- epithelium of kidneys and gonads
- mesothelium (lining pleura, peritoneal, and pericardial cavities)
- endothelium (blood and lymph vessels)
- adrenal cortex
343
what does the endoderm give rise to?
- respiratory epithelium
- alimentary epithelium (except oral / anal cavity)
- liver, pancreas, gallbladder, thyroid, parathyroid and thymus
- epithelial lining of tympanic cavity and Eustachian tubes
- transitional epithelium of bladder
344
what are the functions of epithelial (6)?
- barrier (skin)
- SPM
- secretion (stomach)
- absorption (intestines)
- transport (cilia in trachea)
- sensation (taste buds)
345
do blood vessels penetrate epithelia?
no , epithelia is avascular (never penetrated by blood vessels)
346
what helps to support epithelium and separates it from underlying connective tissue and blood vessels?
basement membrane
347
how do cells of epithelium receive nutrients from underlying tissues?
diffusion of O2 and nutrients
348
what type of epithelium lines cavities that connect with the outside world (alimentary, respiratory, or urogenital tracts)?
mucous membrane (mucose)
349
what type of epithelium contains surface epithelium of ectoderm (or endoderm), basement membrane, supporting connective tissue (lamina propria) and sometimes layers of smooth muscle (muscularis mucosae)?
mucous membrane (mucosa)
350
what type of epithelium lines closed body cavities (peritoneal, pleural, or pericardial cavities)?
serous membrane (serosa)
351
what type of epithelium consists of epithelial lining, the mesothelium (mesodermally derived), basement membrane, and supporting connective tissue?
serous membrane (serosa)
352
what type of epithelium lacks muscularis mucosae?
serous membrane (serosa)
353
what is the name of epithelium that lines blood and lymph vessels?
endothelium (mesodermally derived)
354
what type of epithelium is associated with variable numbers of muscle / connective tissue laters and tunics?
endothelium
355
what is the basal surface of epithelial cells attached to?
basement membrane
356
what is another term for extracellular matrix proteins?
external lamina
357
what structure within a tissue provides structural support, scaffolding for growth, differentiation, and migration of cells during embryonic growth / regeneration?
basement membrane
358
what makes up the basement membrane?
non-cellular, protein, and polysaccharide rich layer (acts as filter between epithelium and underlying connective tissue)
359
what are the major components of the base membrane?
- GAG's (heparan sulfate)
- type IV collagen
- structural glycoproteins (laminin, fibronectin, and entactin)
- large polypeptides with branched polysaccharide side chains
360
what layer of the basement membrane is in contact with the basal call membrane (electron lucent layer)?
lamina lucida
361
what layer of the basement membrane merges with surrounding tissue (electron lucent layer)?
lamina reticularis
362
what layer of the basement membrane is anchored to underlying connective tissue by microfibrils of type IV collagen (electron dense layer)?
lamina densa
363
how do epithelial cells adhere to one another?
cell junctions
364
what are the three types of cell junctions?
- occluding
- adhering
- communicating
365
what is another term for occluding junctions?
tight junctions
366
where are occluding junctions located?
immediately beneath luminal surface of simple columnar epithelia
367
what is the term for when portions of opposing cell membranes fuse together to form a continuous band around cells?
zonula occludens (occluding junctions)
368
what is the term for occluding junctions present between endothelial cells in wall of blood vessels?
fascia occludens
369
what is another term for adhering junctions?
anchoring junctions
370
what type of cell junction functions to bind cells together and act as anchoring points for cell cytoskeleton?
adhering junctions
371
what is the term for a continuous band characterized by transmembrane glycoproteins called cadherins?
zonula adherens (adhering junctions)
372
what type of cell junction is characterized by adjacent cell membranes not being fused together?
adhering junctions
373
what type of adhering junction is associated with attachment plaques containing attachment proteins (desmoplakins, desmogleins, and tonofilaments)?
macula adherens (desmosomes) - located on lateral surface of cell
374
what type of adherens junction is found on the basal surface of the cell only and helps to anchor it to the basement membrane via integrins (transmembrane receptor proteins)
hemidesmosomes
375
what type of adherens junction is associated with high mechanical abrasion and shearing forces?
hemidesmosomes
376
zonula occludens (tight junctions), zonula adherens (adheren junctions), and macula adherens (desmosomes) all present in a specific area is an indicator of what present?
junctional complex (terminal bar)
377
what is another term for communicating junctions?
gap junctions / nexus junctions
378
what type of cell junction permits passage of small molecules between adjacent cells and allowed transport of information / metabolites between cells?
gap junctions (communicating junctions)
379
what type of cell junction is made up of hundreds of individual channels (connexons) that combine to form connexins?
gap junctions (communicating junctions)
380
what cell surface modification resembles finger-like cytoplasmic projections that extend from the cell surface and contain actin filaments?
microvilli
381
what cell surface modification increases surface area for absorption or secretion (striated border = intestine and brush border = renal tubes)?
microvilli
382
what is the name of the cell surface modification that are long microvilli and found only in the epididymis of males and sensory cells of inner ear and are NON-motile?
sterocilia
383
what cell surface modification are characterized by long, motile cytoplasmic extensions and possesses an axoneme (9+2 arrangement of microtubules)?
cilia
384
what does each cilium arise from?
basal body developed from centrioles
385
cilial beat in synchronous __________?
metachronal rhythm - has rapid, rigid, effective stroke and slower / flexible recovery stroke
386
if microtubules lack dynein arms, ciliary movement is _________
impaired or absent
387
what syndrome results in sterility in males due to non-functional flagella on sperm?
Kartagener's syndrome
388
what conditions arise due to absence of ciliary activity during embryonic development?
- dextrocardia - heart is on right side of body
- situs inverus - all internal organs are swapped to other side
389
what condition results due to non-functional cilia on ependymal cells (line cells of brain and spinal cord) unable to circulate CSF?
hydrocephalus
390
what are the three criteria of epithelia classification?
- number of cell layers
- shape of cells at epithelial surface
- surface specializations (cilia, keratin)
391
what are the number of layer classifications for epithelia?
- simple = 1 cell layer thick
- stratified = 2 or more cell layers
- pseudostratified = looks stratified but its't (all cells rest on basement membrane but NOT all cells extend to epithelial surface)
392
what are the shape of cells classifications for epithelia?
- squamous = flattened (width > height)
- cuboidal = square (width = depth = height)
- columnar = height > width
393
what is the surface specialization classification for epithelia?
ciliated
394
what type of epithelia is characterized by being one cell thick and cells appear flattened?
simple squamous
395
what type of epithelia is characterized by being one cel thick and square in shape?
simple cuboidal
396
what type of epithelia is characterized by being one cell thick and cells are tall/ slender?
simple columnar
397
what type of epithelia is characterized by being more than one cell layer thick, cells at surface are flattended?
stratified squamous
398
what type of epithelia is characterized by looking stratified (but really is not), cells are in contact with the basement membrane?
pseudostratified
399
what type of epithelia can be found lining the urinary tract and is characterized as stratified epithelium for distensibility (varies from squamous to cuboidal)?
transitional epithelia
400
what type of epithelia is found lining blood vessels and lymphatics (simple squamous)?
endothelium
401
what type of epithelia is found lining closed body cavities (simple squamous)
mesothelium
402
what are the three ways that glands can be classified?
- morphology of gland/ duct
- type of secretory product
- mode of discharge of secretory product
403
duct morphology : what type of gland has unbranched ducts (straight or coiled)?
simple gland
404
duct morphology : what type of gland has branched ducts?
compound gland
405
shape of gland : what type of gland is tube-like (straight or coiled)?
tubular
406
shape of gland : what type of gland is sac-like or flask-shaped?
acinar
NOTE - individual sac called acinus
407
shape of gland : what type of gland is considered intermediate, tube with dilated end?
tubuloacinar
408
type of secretory product : what type of gland produces a watery, basophilic acini (parotid)?
serous
409
type of secretory product : what type of gland produces a thick, viscid secretion (mucus), appears clear on H&E?
mucous
410
type of secretory product : what type of gland contains both mucous and serous acini, often include serous demilunes (sunlingual/ submandibular)?
mixed
411
type of secretory product : what type of gland secretes lipids in the form of sebum?
sebaceous glands
412
type of secretory product : what type of gland secretes cerumen?
ceruminous
413
what type of gland lacks ducts and secretes hormones directly into blood stream?
endocrine gland
414
what type of gland secretes products onto epithelial cells and basement membrane, assist in secretion?
exocrine glands
415
mode of discharge : what type of gland only secretes products released (involves simple exocytosis)?
merocrine
416
mode of discharge : what type of gland secretes membrane bound vesicles, product is accompanied by some cytoplasm?
apocrine
417
mode of discharge : what type of gland involves the secretion of the entire cell (ruptures and released contents)?
holocrine
418
what are the two components of nervous tissue?
neurons and supporting cells (non-conducting)
419
what is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system?
neuron
420
what are the three categories of supporting cells within nervous tissue?
- neuroglia (CNS)
- Schwann cells (PNS)
- satellite cells (ganglia)
421
general neuroanatomy terms to know
- soma = cell body
- perikaryon = cytoplasm
- nissl substance = rER
- neurilemma = plasma membrane
- melanin, lipofusin = pigments
422
where does the axon for a neuron arise and where does it terminate at?
- arises from axon hillock
- terminates in terminal bouton
423
what do each type of axonal transport carry (slow vs fast)?
- slow = cytoskeletal elements
- fast = membrane-bound organelles
424
what type of transport uses kinesin to transport materials from cell body down axon?
anterograde transport
425
what type of transport uses dynein to transport materials from axon to cell body?
retrograde
426
what type of neuron is most common and has several dendrites (motor neurons)?
multi-polar meuron
427
what type of neuron has a single dendrite opposite of axon?
bipolar neuron
428
what type of neuron has no dendrites on soma, only on the axon (sensory neurons)?
unipolar neuron
429
what type of neuron has a single dendrite and axon fuse, soma off to one side (dorsal root ganglia)?
pseudounipolar
430
what is the period termed when a nerve is unresponsive to stimuli after an action potential?
refractory period
431
what two periods does the refractory period include (and what are their effects?
- absolute = response to stimulus is impossible
- relative = only very strong stimuli can cause depolarization
432
what is the term for a specialized junction between neurons?
synapses
433
what is the term for a specialized junction between a neuron and a effector cell?
neuromuscular junction
434
what functions to separate the terminal bouton from the effector cell (this is where neurotransmitters are released into)?
synaptic cleft
435
what are the two types of neurotransmitters used in the PNS?
acetylcholine and norepinephrine
436
what type of neurotransmitter is used in sympathetic pathway and what type of receptors are found in this division?
- uses noradrenaline
- adrenergic receptors
437
what type of neurotransmitter is used in parasympathetic pathway and what type of receptors are found in this division?
- uses acetylcholine
- cholinergic receptors
438
what types of innervation do we see in peripheral nervous tissue?
- afferent or efferent fibers (axons)
- somatic or autonomic nerves
439
a bundle of axons or fascicle forms a _______?
peripheral nerve
440
in what type of (non-myelinated or myelinated) nerve are axons that lie in the channels of schwann cells surrounded by a single layer of neurilemma?
non-myelinated
441
in what type of (non-myelinated or myelinated) nerve are axons insultated by many concentric layers of plasma membrane from many schwann cells?
myelinated
442
what is the term for gaps in myelin sheath between adjacent schwann cells?
nodes of ranvier
443
what are myelinated nerves in the CNS sheathed by?
oligodendrocytes
444
what are individual axon and schwann cells surrounded by (loose connective tissue)?
endoneurim
445
what are multiple axons organized into fascicles surrounded by?
perineurium
446
larger nerves containing several fascicles are surrounded by an additional layer of connective tissue termed _________?
epineurium
447
where are preganglionic cell bodies located in the ANS?
gray matter of brain and spinal cord (CNS)
448
where are postganglionic cell bodies located in the ANS?
ganglia
449
what type of supporting cells surround each cell body and provide structural/ metabolic support?
satellite cells
450
pre- and para- vertebral ganglia are involved in which pathway of the ANS?
sympathetic
451
ganglia located near or in the effector organ are involved in which pathway of the ANS?
parasympathetic
452
which meninge is considered a thick layer of dense connective tissue internally lined by mesothelium?
dura amter
453
what surrounds the dura mater?
epidural space
454
what space is located beneath the dura and separates the dura from the arachnoid mater?
subdural space
455
what space separates the arachnoid mater from pia mater and what is found here?
subarachnoid space
CSF found here
456
what is the term used to describe pia + arachnoid mater?
leptomeninges
457
what structures extends from pia and anchors the spinal cord to arachnoid, dura, and periosteum?
denticulate ligaments
458
what type of matter contains neuron cell bodies, dendrites, and axons?
peripheral gray matter
459
what type of matter contains mostly myelinated axons?
white matter
460
what is the largest neuroglial cell and is highly branched?
astrocytes
461
what is the smallest neuroglial cell and has an immune function (phagocytic)?
microglia
462
what type of cells are frequently ciliated, have microvilli for reabsorption of CSF and line ventricles/ central canal of spinal cord?
ependymal cells
463
what is the structure that arises from the walls of ventricle of brain and secretes CSF?
choroid plexus
464
what portion of the brain is organized into folds (gyri) and composed of gray matter peripherally?
cerebrum
NOTE - includes sensory, motor, and association needs
465
meuroglial cells in gray matter within the cerebrum include _____ and ________?
astrocytes and microglial cells
466
what portion of the brain coordinates muscular activity, posture, and equilibrium?
cerebellum
467
what is the term for the folds that the cerebellum is organized into?
folia
468
what is found primarily in the white matter of the cerebellum?
- oligodendrocytes
- myelinated axons
469
which layer of the cerebellum contains few neurons and large numbers of unmyelinated axons?
outer moelcular layer
470
which layer of the cerebellum is highly cellular, very basophilic?
inner granular layer
471
what is the name of the neuron that separates the molecular and granular layers (functions in coordination and equilibrium)?
purkinje cells
472
what is the structure within the spinal cord that contains CSF, is lined by ependymal cells, and is continuous with the ventricles of the brain?
central canal
473
what does the dorsal horn involve signal-wise?
sensory (afferent)
474
what does the ventral horn involve signal-wise?
motor (efferent)
475
if portion of axon distal to point of injury degenerates, what does this result in?
anterograde (wallerian) degeneration
476
if the injury to a neuron is severe enough, what does this result in?
retrograde degeneration and death of cell body
477
what is the response to a neuron injury in the CNS?
in the CNS, neuroglial cells multiple and prevents regeneration, physicalls blocks contact between cell body and axon
478
what is the term for inflammation of meninges (can be bacterial or viral)?
meningitis
479
what is the term for inflammation of brain?
encephalitis
480
what is the term for inflammation of spinal cord?
myelitis
481
general muscle terms
- individual muscle cell = myocyte = muscle fiber
- muscle cytoplasm = sarcoplasm
- plasma membrane = sarcolemma
482
what are the three types of skeletal muscle (all mesodermally derived)?
- skeletal muscle
- smooth muscle
- cardiac muscle
483
individual muscle fibers are surrounded by _______?
endomysium
484
several fibers bound together into fascicles are surrounded by _______?
perimysium
485
the entire muscle is surrounded by _______ which is continuous with tendinous attachment
epimysium
486
the following are characteristics of what type of muscle fiber type?
- small fibers with large amounts of myoglobin
- use aerobic respiration
- large number of mitochondria
- resistant to fatigue
slow twitch fibers
487
the following are characteristics of what type of muscle fiber type?
- large fibers with less myoglobin
- fewer mitochondria
- use anaerobic glycolysis
- abundant glycogen
- fatigue rapidly
fast twitch fibers
NOTE :
- type IIA - oxidative and fatigue resistant
- type IIB - glycolytic and fatigue sensitive
488
explain how muscle cells can increase in size (hypertrophy)
- with exercise
- increase in number of mitochondria
- increase in volume of contractile proteins
- splitting/ branching of muscle fibers
489
explain how muscle cells can decrease in size (atrophy)
- disuse (immobilization)
- nerve damage
- with increased age = progressive loss of skeletal muscle (sarcopenia)
490
following injury, what type of cells proliferate and differentiate into myoblasts?
satellite cells
491
what are the two types of mechanorecetors located within mucle cells?
- neuromuscular spindles = sensitive to changes in LENGTH
- neurotendinous spindles = sensitive to changes in TENSION
NOTE- both prevent overstretching and tearing in muscles
492
what is the general organization of muscular tissue?
- individual muscle fibers composed of myofibrils
- myofibrils composed of myofilaments/ contractile proteins
493
what are the two types of myofilaments?
- actin (thin filament)
- myosin (thick filament)
NOTE - present in a 2:1 ratio in skeletal muscle
494
what gives skeletal muscle its striated appearance in longitudinal sections?
parallel arrangement of contractile proteins
495
during muscle contraction, what happens to sarcomeres and myofilaments?
- sarcomeres = shortern
- myofilaments = remain same legnth
496
what is the site called where skeletal muscle is innervated by motor neuron?
neuromuscular junction
497
what is the term for the dilated terminal portion of an axon surrounded by myelin (rests on sarcolemma)?
motor end plate
NOTE - similar to terminal bouton but unmyelinated
498
the wave of depolarization down a muscle fiber travels down the ________?
transverse tubule system (t-tubules)
499
the ends of t-tubules are bounded by ________ to form a triad
terminal cisternae of ER
500
what two structures act as calcium reservoirs?
- sarcoplasmic reticulum
- terminal cisternae
501
what causes the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and terminal cisternae?
depolarization of sarcolemma from influx of sodium ions into cytoplasm from t-tubules
502
what determines the strength of overall msucle contraction (graded response)?
total number of muscle fibers
503
what is the term for a group of muscle fibers supplied by a single motor neuron?
motor unit
504
stimulation of a motor neuron results in contraction of ______ muscle fibers within that motor unit
ALL
505
what is the term used to describe the increase in number of motor units firing within a muscle?
recruitment
506
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WATCH POWER STROKE VIDEO ON YOUTUBE
507
what is the term used to describe the wave-like contractions that are independent of neurological stimulation in smooth muscle?
inherent contractility
508
what is the actin: myosin ration in smooth muscle?
15:1
509
smooth muscle has striations (true/false)
false
510
what structure provides attachments to actin in smooth muscle?
dense bodies
511
what ion activates myosin cross-binding in smooth muscle?
calmodulin
512
instead of t-tubule system and terminal cisternae, smooth muscle uses _______ in its cell membrane
caveolae
NOTE - relies on diffusion of extracellular calcium for contraction
513
what type of innervation is present in smooth muscle?
sympathetic and parasympathetic
NOTE - involuntary
514
in the gut, sympathetic innervation is _______ and parasympathetic innervation is _________
sympathetic = inhibitory
parasympathetic = stimulation
515
in a single unit of smooth muscle, fibers contract as a _______
unit
516
in a multi unit of smooth muscle, individual muscle fibers contract _______
independently
517
what are the three cell types that smooth muscle can develop from?
- endothelial cells
- pericytes of blood vessels
- fibroblasts
518
the pericardium contains ________ _______ for lubrication
pericardial fluid
519
what are the three layers of the heart?
- epicardium
- myocardium
- endocardium
520
what is the sac-like fibrous connective tissue that surrounds the heart?
pericardium
521
epicardium is made up of ______ _______ mesothelium
simple squamous
522
in the myocardium, we see thick, collagenous, connective tissue composed of _______ and ______
fibroblasts and collagen
523
cardiac muscle fibers are striated but involuntary (under autonomic control) (true/ false)?
true
524
what structures make up the intracellular diad in cardiac myocytes?
- one t-tubule
- one cisterna of ER
NOTE - located at z-disc
525
endocardium is made up of _______ ________ endothelium
simple squamous
526
what type of fibers can be found within subepi- and endocardial layers?
purkinje fibers
527
what is the layer of connective tissue covered by endothelium that is present in cardiac valves?
lamina fibrosa
528
individual cardiac myocytes exhibit ______ ________
inherent automaticity
529
what structure within cardiac muscle allows for synchronous contractions?
intercalated discs
530
what three types of cell junctions help to make up intercalated discs?
- desmosomes
- fascia adherens
- gap junctions
531
what are the 4 structures that make up the conduction system of the heart?
- SA node
- AV node
- bundle of his
- purkinje fibers
532
what type of cell junction is found in numerous amounts within cardiac tissue to allow for coordinated conduction?
gap junctions
533
structures included within the conduction system tend to stain paler than surrounding tissue due to higher ______ content
glycogen
534
what is considered the pacemaker of the heart and is located at the junction of the superior vena cava and right atrium?
SA node
535
how does sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation affect one's heart rate?
- sympathetic = stimulation from sympathetic ganglia to increase heart rate
- parasympathetic = stimulation from vagus nerve to lower heart rate
536
describe the flow of cardiac conduction
- SA node generates impulses that induce contraction of atria
- as impulse travels across atria, stimulates AV node
- delays impulse, gives atria time to contract
- travels down interventricular septum (IVS) via bundle of his and branches into L/R AV bundles within IVS
- fibers further subdivide into ventricular myocardium and ramify into purkinje fibers within subendo- and subepicardium of ventricular free wall... gradually merges with myocardium and initiates ventricular contraction
