histo exam 3 Flashcards
(426 cards)
1
Q
what is the area called that is enclosed between the lips and teeth?
A
vestibule
2
Q
what is the transitional zone between external haired skin and internal oral mucosa called?
A
vermillion border
3
Q
color of oral cavity is derived from highly vascular _______ and thin overlying _______ epidermis
A
- dermis
- keratinized
4
Q
lips lack ______ and ______ glands
A
sweat and sebaceous glands
5
Q
the oral cavity is important in what three functions regarding food?
A
- ingestion
- fragmentation
- moistening of food
6
Q
what term is used to describe the cutting, chewing, and grinding of food by occlusal surfaces of teeth?
A
mastication
7
Q
what type of mucosa is non-keratinized and found on inner cheeks, floor of mouth, inferior surface of tongue, and soft palate?
A
lining mucosa
8
Q
what layer of the epidermis does lining mucosa lack?
A
stratum corneum
9
Q
what oral mucosa is present in high areas of abrasion (gingiva and hard palate)?
A
masticatory mucosa
10
Q
is masticatory mucosa keratinized or non-keratinized?
A
keratinized or parakeratinized
11
Q
what oral mucosa is restricted to the dorsal surface of tongue and is keratinized?
A
specialized mucosa
12
Q
what type of oral mucosa is specialized for manipulation of food and sensation of taste?
A
specialized mucosa
13
Q
what cranial nerves is the tongue innervated by?
A
- V (general sensation anterior to sulcus terminalis)
- VII (taste)
- IX (general sensation and tase posterior)
- X (taste, motor?)
- XII (motor)
14
Q
what is the thin band of connective tissue called that anchors the tongue to the floor of the mouth?
A
frenulum
15
Q
where is the anterior 2/3 of tongue derived from?
A
ectoderm
16
Q
where is the posterior 1/3 of tongue derived from?
A
pharynx (mesoderm)
17
Q
what is the groove of the tongue called that separates the anterior and posterior parts of the tongue?
A
sulcus terminalis
18
Q
what type of lingual papillae are most numerous, keratinized, short bristled, distributed in parallel rows, and lacks taste buds?
A
filiform papillae
19
Q
what type of lingual papillae are mushroom shaped, scattered among filiform papillae and contain taste buds located on dorsal surface?
A
fungiform papillae
20
Q
what type of lingual papillae are located in furrows/ ridges on lateral portion of tongue and are associated with von ebner’s glands at base of papillae?
A
foliate papillae
21
Q
what type of lingual papillae are located anterior to the sulcus terminalis and surrounded by moat-like sulcus that has large numbers of taste buds (also associated with on ebner’s glands)?
A
circumvallate papillae
22
Q
where are taste buds located on tongue in humans?
A
papillae of tongue
NOTE - also found scattered over palate, pharynx, and epiglottis
23
Q
what components make up taste buds?
A
taste cells containing taste hairs
24
Q
what type of nerve endings are taste cells associated with?
A
myelinated nerve endings
25
what cranial nerves innervate taste buds?
- VII
- IX
- X
26
what are the four basic tastes that we have as humans?
- sweet, sour, bitter, and salty
27
each taste cell contains receptors for only ______ taste, but taste buds contain a _______ of taste cells
- one taste
- mixture of taste cells
28
where are bitter taste receptors concentrated at?
circumvallate papillae
29
savory taste sensation detects certain amino acids such as ________ and ________
glutamate and aspartate
30
what is the term used to describe the decreased ability to detect taste?
hypogeusia
31
type I familial dysautonomia is the total absence of ______ _______
taste buds
32
what is the term used to describe the lingual, palatine, and pharyngeal tonsils?
Waldeyer's ring
33
what is the term used to describe the extension of posterior free margin of soft palate that helps to prevent food from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing?
uvula
34
what type of salivary gland can be found on cheeks and is almost completely serous?
parotid
35
what type of salivary gland is located below the tongue and is mostly mucous?
sublingual
36
what type of salivary gland is located inferior and medial to ramus of mandible and is considered a mixed gland?
submandibular
37
what type of cells surround acini and contract to aid in secretion of saliva into ducts?
myoepitheial cells
38
what are intercalated ducts ducts lined by and what do they secrete/ absorb?
- lined by simple cuboidal epithelium
- secrete HCO3
- resorb Cl
39
what are striated ducts lined by and what do they secrete/ absorb?
- lined by simple cuboidal to columnar epithelium
- secrete K
- resorb Na
40
what type of stimulation inhibits aqueous secretion and results in thick, viscous, rich in protein mucus?
sympathetic
41
what type of stimulation results in copious, watery saliva?
parasympathetic stimulation
42
proteins in saliva cover teeth with _______ pellicle
acquired pellicle
NOTE - contains antibodies that prevent tooth decay
43
what are the 6 functions of saliva?
- moistens oral mucosa and dry food
- provides carrier medium for sense of taste
- buffering via high bicarbonate content
- digestion of carbohydrates via amylase
- immunologic function - secretion of IgA
- control of bacterial flora
44
where is the tooth root located?
in alveolus (tooth socket) within alveolar ridge (jaw)
45
what is the portion of the tooth that projects into the oral cavity called?
crown
46
what substance is highly mineralized and covers the crown?
enamel
47
what is the main component in enamel?
hydroxyapatite
48
enamel is _______ in origin
ectodermal
49
what is enamel secreted by?
ameloblasts of enamel organ
50
apical, secretory end of ameloblast forms ________ process
Tome's process
51
enamel rods/ prisms are separated by less mineralized ___________ material
interprismatic material
52
enamel rods extend from ameloblasts at enamel surface into ________________ junction
dentino-enamel junction
53
dentin is ________ in origin?
mesodermal
54
what is dentin secreted by?
odontoblasts of dental papilla
NOTE - secreted as pre-dentine
55
dentin contains what type of collagen?
type I collagen
56
dentin is arranged in dentin ________ radiating from ______ _______
- dentin tubules
- pulp cavity
57
what area within the central part of the tooth contains sensory nerves and blood vessels?
pulp cavity
58
dental pulp is ________ in origin
mesodermal
59
the dental pulp is supplied by capillaries from arterioles running within the ________ ligament
periodontal ligament
60
what substance covers the tooth root?
cementum
61
what is the name of the dense fibers that make up the periodontal ligament?
sharpey's fibers
62
the periodontal ligament allows slight movement of tooth during __________
mastication
63
what type of gingiva covers the upper alveolar bone?
attached gingiva
64
what type of gingiva forms cuff around neck of tooth?
free gingiva
65
what is the space called between the free gingiva and crown of a tooth?
gingival sulcus
66
breach of the _________ epithelium by bacteria results in periodontal disease
crevicular epithelium
67
what are the tissues that surround and support the tooth termed?
periodontium
68
what 4 components make up the periodontium
- epithelium
- cementum
- periodontal ligament
- alveolar bone
69
what are the two opposing layers that are involved in tooth formation?
- ameloblasts of enamel organ
- odontoblasts of dental papilla
70
cells of enamel organ progressively differentiate into _________ reticulum
stellate reticulum
71
what is the term used to describe the formation of enamel?
amelogenesis
72
what is the term used to describe the formation of dentin?
dentinogenesis
73
development of ameloblasts induces differentiation of odontoblasts, but calcification of dentin induces deposition of ______
enamel
74
tooth formation is initiated by deposition of organic _______ by odontoblasts
pre-dentin
75
calcification of dentin secondarily induces ______ production by ameloblasts
enamel
76
what occurs to enamel organ and ameloblasts at time of tooth eruption?
enamel organ and ameloblasts degenerate
77
dental papilla shrinks to form the _______ ______ which is surrounded by dentin
dental pulp
78
what determines the 3D shape of tooth crown?
overall shape of enamel organ
79
what is the term for the outer rim of enamel organ?
epithelial sheath of hertwig
80
surrounding mesenchyme of the tooth forms the _______ ______ which later forms the periodontal ligament
dental follicle
81
what does tooth development begin in fetal development?
6th week
82
what does tooth eruption occur in children?
6-30 months after birth
83
how many deciduous teeth are present in primary dentition?
20 teeth
84
when are deciduous teeth replaced by permanent dentition?
6-12 years of age
85
what is the dental formula for primary dentition?
2I, 1C, 2P /quadrant
86
what drug that be administered during development of permanent dentition results in yellow discoloration of teeth?
tetracycline
87
how many teeth are there generally in the permanent dentition?
32 teeth
88
what is the dental formula for permanent dentition?
1 2/2, C 1/1, P 2/2, M3/3
89
what teeth are modified for cutting and biting?
incisors
90
what teeth are used for puncturing and holding?
canines
91
what teeth are generally used for grinding?
premolars and molars
92
what is the term used to describe the raised points on occlusal surfaces of molars and premolars?
cusps
93
what is the flattened posterior surface of lower molars known as?
talonid
94
what results when weak acids in food/ drink erode enamel?
dental caries
95
what substance helps to harden enamel and kill bacteria?
fluoride
96
if caries extend into dentin or pulp cavity, can lead to death of tooth and require what procedure?
root canal
97
what disease is caused by accumulation of calcified food and bacterial debris in the gingival sulcus which results in inflammation and destruction of periodontal ligament?
periodontal disease
98
what is the term used to describe inflammation of the gums?
gingivitis
99
what is the term used to describe inflammation of the periodontal ligament?
periodontitis
100
what are the 5 stages of food breakdown?
- ingestion
- fragmentation
- digestion
- absorption
- elimination
101
where does ingestion occur?
oral cavity
102
fragmentation results in _____ formation
bolus
103
what is the term used to describe contractions of smooth muscle within the alimentary canal?
peristalsis
NOTE - under autonomic control
104
emulsification of fat occurs in ________ via pancreatic and biliary secretions
duodenum
105
jejunum and ileum are the primary areas for ________ of nutrients
absorption
106
where does resorption of water and elimination of waste take place in alimentary canal?
colon
107
the liver, pancreas, and intestional glands are considered embryological outgrowths of the ______ tract
GI tract
108
what are the 4 layers of the GI tract?
- mucosa
- submucosa
- muscularis externa
- adventitia
109
what are the 3 functions of the mucosa of GI tract?
- protection
- secretion
- absorption
110
what are the 3 subdivisions of the mucosa of GI tract?
- epithelium
- lamina propria
- muscularis mucosae
111
what subdivision of the mucosa of GI tract has secretory and absorptive functions?
epithelium
112
what subdivision of the mucosa of GI tract is underlying connective tissue and contains lymphoid nodules , glands, blood vessels, and lymphatics?
lamina propria
113
what subdivision of the mucosa of GI tract is a thin layer of smooth muscle and functions as a boundary between mucosa and submucosa?
muscularis mucosae
114
what type of connective tissue can the submucosa be characterized as?
loose to dense irregular connective tissue
115
which direction do the inner and outer muscle layers of the muscularis externa run?
- inner = circular
- outer = longitudinal
NOTE - orientated at right angles to one another
116
what characteristic of the gut allowed for local contractions and mixing of food (in both the proximal and distal direction)?
segmentation
117
what action of the gut propels food distally only
peristalsis
118
what type of connective tissue can the adventitia be characterized as?
loose connective tissue later
119
within the abdominal cavity, the adventitia is referred to as _______
serosa (visceral peritoneum)
120
within the gut, parasympathetic stimulation is ________ and sympathetic stimulation is _________
- excitatory
- inhibitory
121
where do parasympathetic motor neurons synapse in ganglia located at?
ganglia located near effector organ (within wall of gut)
122
what is the term used to describe clusters of parasympathetic ganglia within submucosa?
meissner's plexus
123
what is the term used to describe the clusters of parasympathetic ganglia located within inner and outer muscle layers?
myenteric or auerbach's plexus
124
what type of epithelium is the esophagus lined by?
stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
125
what types of muscle are present within the upper, middle, and lower thirds of the esophagus?
- upper third - skeletal muscle
- middle third - skeletal/ smooth muscle
- lower third - smooth muscle
126
what is the name of the sphincter located at gastro-esophageal junction?
gastroesophageal sphincter
127
what is the term used to describe heartburn?
pyrosis
128
what are the 3 regions of the stomach?
- cardia
- fundus
- pylorus
129
what type of muscle is found in the cardiac sphincter?
smooth muscle
130
what does the fundus secrete?
- acid
- pepsin
- some mucus
131
what type of muscle is found within the pyloric sphincter?
smooth muscle
132
what is the difference between peptic/ gastric ulcers and erosion?
- ulcer - damage extends below level of basement membrane (bleeding)
- erosion - partial loss of epithelium (no bleeding)
133
ulcers are frequently associated with chronic infection with _______ _______
helicobacter pylori
134
helicobacter pylori produced urease which ________ pH
increases pH
135
what is the term used to describe foot that has undergone mechanical/ chemical breakdown?
chyme
136
what are the longitudinal folds within the stomach called?
rugae
137
gastric glands within the stomach contain what 5 substances?
- HCl
- pepsinogen (precursor to pepsin)
- gastrin
- renin
- lipase
138
what type of mucus do surface mucus cells secrete?
insoluble mucus and bicarbonate ions
139
what type of mucus do mucus neck cells secrete?
soluble mucus
140
what is another term for acid secreting cells?
parietal cells
141
what 2 substances do parietal cells secrete?
- HCl
- intrinsic factor
142
what is another term for pepsin secreting cells?
chief cells
143
what do chief cells secrete?
inactive pepsinogen
144
parietal and chief cells are controlled by ________ nervous system
autonomic
145
gastrin is secreted by ____ cells
G cells
146
somatostatin is secreted by ____ cells
D cells
147
secretin is secreted by ____ cells
S cells
148
what is the term used to describe the mucosa and submucosa throughout the small intestine arranged in valve-like folds?
plica circulares
149
plica circulares have ______ core and villi have ______ ______ core
- submucosal core
- lamina propria core
150
what is the name of the crypts between villi?
crypts of Lieberkuhn
151
intestinal villi is lined by what type of epithelium?
simple squamous epithelium
152
what is the name of the mucosal cells of the small intestine?
enterocytes
153
highly modified brush border helps to _______ surface area for absorption
increase
154
what do goblet cells synthesize?
mucinogen (mucus)
155
what do paneth cells secrete?
antibacterial proteins called defensins (including lysozyme)
156
what type of cells help to regulate GI motility and secretion?
enteroendocrine cells
157
cholecystekinin (CCK) is secreted by ____ cells
I cells
158
glucagon is secreted by ____ cells
A cells
159
gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) is secreted by ____ cells
K cells
160
where is MALT located in small intestine?
- lamina propria
- submucosa
161
what does MALT secrete?
IgA
162
what types of cells are mofified for Ag sampling and uptake of macromolecules within small intestine?
M cells
163
what specific type of gland is present in duodenum?
brunner's glands
164
what is the main function of the duodenum?
neutralize gastric acid and pepsin, assisted by pancreas and gallbladder
165
where does the pancreatic duct and bile duct empty into within the duodenum?
major duodenal papilla
166
pancreatic secretions are highly _________ due to bicarbonate
alkaline
167
emulsifying agents for digestion of lipids form ______
micelles
168
what two substances do pancreatic secretions contain that are proteolytic enzymes?
- trypsin
- chymotrypsin
169
what is the pathway that leads to activation of chymotrypsinogen?
- trypsin activated by enterokinase
- trypsin then activates chymotrypsin
170
what step of the digestion process involves mixing of chyme with pancreatic enzymes leading to molecule breakdown?
luminal digestion
171
what step of the digestion process involves enzymes of glycocalyx on plasma membrane of enterocytes?
membrane digestion
172
what segments of the digestive tract make up the large intestine?
- cecum
- appendix
- ascending colon
- transverse colon
- descending colon
- sigmoid colon
- rectum
173
the large intestine lacks _____ and ______ ______
- villi
- plicae circulares
174
if the appendix is inflamed, this results in _________
appendicitis
175
what is the primary function of the colon?
water and electrolyte resorption
176
what structures are formed from the outer longitudinal muscle layer in the muscularis externa that is incomplete within the colon?
taenia coli
177
what is the term used to describe the segmentation of the colon?
haustra
178
what is the term used to describe any mass arising from the wall of the colon that protrudes into the lumen?
polyps
179
what is the name of the short, dilated, terminal portion of the large intestine?
rectum
180
what is the transition of the epithelium at the anal canal?
simple columnar epithelium to stratified squamous epithelium
181
what type of muscle makes up the internal and external anal sphincters?
- internal = smooth muscle (involuntary)
- external = skeletal muscle (voluntary)
182
what are the four lobes of the liver?
- left
- right
- caudate
- quadrate
183
deamination of amino acids leads to the production of _____
urea
184
where do processes such as glycogen synthesis/ storage and gluconeogenesis take place in the body?
liver
185
what is the name of the capsule that covers the external surface of the liver?
glisson's capsule
186
by what artery is oxygenated blood supplied to the liver?
hepatic artery
187
the liver is a _____ rich but ____ poor environment
- nutrient rich
- O2 poor
188
what are the cells of the liver called?
hepatocytes
189
again hepatocytes accumulate what brown pigment?
lipofuscin
190
what type of cells line sinusoids within the liver?
sinusoidal lining cells
191
what space is present between the sinusoidal lining and hepatocytes within the liver?
space of disse
192
what type of collagen fibers can be found in hepatic cords and sinusoids?
type III collage (reticulin fibers)
193
what is the name of the fixed tissue macrophage present in the liver?
Kupffer cells
194
what type of cells within the liver are used as fat-storing cells containing lipid droplets and are used for vitamin A&D storage?
ito cells
195
cords of hepatocytes are arranged in ______
lobules
196
what blood vessel structure is located in the middle of a lobule within the liver?
central vein
197
what structures are contained within portal tracts/ triads?
- portal artery
- portal vein
- lymphatic vessel
- bile duct
198
classic lobules are based on ______ flow
blood flow
199
portal lobules are based on _____ flow
bile
200
what zone within a hepatic lobule is closest to the portal tract and receives most oxygenated blood?
zone 1 (perilobular zone)
201
what zone within a hepatic lobule is considered in the middle?
zone 2 (intermediate zone)
202
what zone within a hepatic lobule is furthest from the portal tract, closest to the central vein, and receives the least oxygenated blood?
zone 3 (centrolobular zone)
203
what zone within a hepatic lobule is most susceptible to ischemic injury?
zone 3
204
what medical condition is characterized by hepatic degeneration and necrosis followed by fibrosis and nodular regeneration?
cirrhosis
205
bile synthesis is considered an ________ function of the liver
exocrine (secretory)
206
bile is synthesized by hepatocytes and is secreted into network of ________ ________
bile canaliculi
207
the direction of bile flow is ________ to blood flow
opposite
208
where does bile enter the duodenum at after storage and modification in the gallbladder?
major duodenal papilla
209
what type of epithelium is found in the gallbladder?
simple columnar epithelium with apical microvilli
210
the gallbladder lacks a ________ ________
muscularis mucosae
211
what hormone stimulates contraction of the gallbladder?
CCK (cholecystokinin)
212
what is the best know bile pigment?
bilirubin
213
what is the medical condition that arises from a failure to absorb bilirubin or failure to conjugate it and secrete glucuronide which leads to an accumulation of bile pigments?
jaundice
214
if you have your gallbladder removed, you are no longer able to _______ bile
concentrate
215
ductless endocrine pancreatic tissue within the pancreas is located in islets of _________
langerhans
216
most of the pancreas is _______ with ducts
exocrine
217
the pancreas is considered a compound, acinar, ______ gland
serous
218
acinar cells of the pancreas contain _______ granules
zymogen
219
what two substances released from the pancreas function as proteases?
trypsin and chymotrypsin
220
what substance released from the pancreas functions to break down carbohydrates?
amylase
221
what substance released from the pancreas functions to break down lipids?
lipases
222
exocrine substances secreted from the pancreas empty into ________ ducts
intercalated ducts
223
within the pancreas, what are the cells that form the beginning of intercalated ducts?
centro-acinar cells
224
where do intercalated ducts empty into within the pancreas?
intralobular ducts which empty into extralobular ducts
225
where do pancreatic secretions enter the duodenum at?
via pancreatic duct at major duodenal papilla
226
what hormone is released by the stomach and functions to stimulate secretion of pancreatic fluid?
gastrin
227
what hormone is released by the duodenum and functions to stimulate secretion of bicarbonate by cells of intercalated ducts?
secretin
228
what hormone is released by the duodenum and functions to stimulate acinar cells to secrete zymogens?
CCK (cholecystokinin)
229
what hormone is released by the duodenum and functions to convert trypsinogen into trypsin and chymotrypsinogen into chymotrypsin?
enterokinase
230
what is the medical condition used to describe the autodigestion of the pancreas brought on by alcoholism?
pancreatitis
231
what organ system is responsible for water/ electrolyte homeostasis, osmoregulation, and acid-base balance?
urinary system
232
the primary function of the urinary system is the excrete toxic metabolic waste products especially ______ and ______
urea and creatinine
233
what is the number 1 nitrogenous waste product in mammals (include both soluble and insoluble forms)?
urea - soluble
uric acid - insoluble
234
what 4 substances does a blood nitrogen test measure?
- urea
- creatinine
- uric acid
- ammonia
235
what organ synthesizes renin?
kidneys
236
what does renin help to maintain?
blood pressure via renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
237
what organ synthesizes erythropoietin?
kidney
238
what hormone stimulates red blood cell production?
erythropoietin
239
kidneys are considered to be _________ organs
retroperitoneal
240
at what location of the kidney do blood vessels and ureters enter/ exit?
hilus
241
name the blood vessels in order that supply the kidney down to the glomeruli
- renal artery branches to form
- interlobar arteries
- arcuate arteries
- interlobular arteries that give off
- affarent arterioles to glomeruli
242
what two sections is the kidney divided into?
outer cortex and inner medulla
243
what two structures does the cortex of the kidney contain?
- renal corpuscles
- convoluted tubules
244
what three structures does the medulla of the kidney contain?
- loops of henle
- collecting tubules
- collecting ducts
245
what type of epithelium is unique to the urinary tract and is considered highly distensible to allow for changing urine volumes?
transitional epithelium
246
describe transitional epithelium
-varying number of layers (stratified)
- cuboidal to polygonal with scalloped outline (umbrella cells)
247
what is the functional unit of the kidney?
nephron
248
the nephron is embryologically derived from the _________ _______ which is part of the developing _______ _______
- nephrogenic blastema
- urogenital ridge
249
what are the three types of nephrons found in the kidney?
- cortical / subscapular nephrons
- juxtamedullary nephrons
- intermediate nephrons
250
describe where cortical / subscapular nephrons are found and its loop of henle length
- located in outer rim of cortex
- short loops of henle
251
describe where juxtamedullary nephrons are found and its loop of henle length
- adjacent to medulla
- long loops of henle
252
describe where intermediate nephrons are found and its loop of henle length
- middle of cortex
- intermediate length loops of henle
253
what are the two major components of a nephron?
- renal corpuscle
- renal tubule
254
what does the renal corpuscle filter?
blood plasma
255
what does the renal tubule collect?
filtrate
256
what are the two components that make up the renal corpuscle?
- bowman's capsule
- glomerulus
257
what is the term used to describe a single layer of squamous epithelial cells resting on basement membrane?
capsule (parietal layer)
258
the capsule forms hollow, dilated end of the _______ _______ ______ surrounding glomerulus
proximal convoluted tubule
259
in regards to nephrons, the parietal layer continues onto glomerulus as the _______ ______
visceral layer
260
what is the term used to describe cells of the visceral layer of nephrons?
podocytes
261
what is the term used to describe the space between the visceral and parietal layers of the nephron that collects glomerular filtrate and empties into the renal tubule?
bowman's space
262
what is the term used to describe a network of densely packed anastomosing fenestrated capillaries?
glomerulus
263
what two structures supply the glomerulus with blood?
afferent and efferent arterioles
264
where is water and small molecular weight molecules filtered from blood?
into bowman's space
265
the luminal surface of the capillary endothelium is _______ charged due to the presence of the ________
- negatively charged
- podocalyxin
266
the glomerular basement membrane acts as a physical _______ and _____ ______ filter
- physical barrier
- ion selective filter
267
what is the name of the space between the capillary basement membrane and second layer of podocytes?
subpodocyte space
268
what is the term used to describe the cytoplasmic extensions of podocytes that surround glomerular capillaries?
foot processes
269
what is the term used to describe the spaces between foot processes within a nephron?
filtration slits
270
what protein is present within slit diaphragms within a nephron?
nephrin
271
where is the resultant glomerular ultrafiltrate passed onto?
renal tubule
272
what are the 4 distinct zones of the renal tubule?
- proximal convoluted tubule
- loop of henle
- distal convoluted tubule
- collecting tubule/ duct
273
what type of epithelium can be found in the renal tubule?
simple, cuboidal epithelium
274
the primary function of the renal tubule includes the selective resorption of what substances from the glomerular filtrate?
- water
- inorganic ions (Na and bicarbonate)
- large molecules (amino acids, proteins, glucose)
275
the renal tubule helps to concentrate waste products such as...
- urea
- creatinine
- excess hydrogen
- excess potassium
276
what is the primary site for water resorption?
proximal convoluted tubule
277
where is the proximal convoluted tubule found?
confined to cortex
278
what membrane proteins are found within the proximal convoluted tubule to assist with the resorption of water?
aquaporins
279
in addition to water and ions, the proximal convoluted tubule also resorbs all ______, _______, and _______
- proteins
- amino acids
- sugars
280
what type of epithelium is characteristic to the proximal convoluted tubule?
simple cuboidal epithelium with apical microvilli (brush border)
281
what are the 4 parts of the loop of henle?
- pars recta (thick descending limb)
- thin descending limb
- thin ascending limb
- thick ascending limb
282
the bulk of the loop of henle extends into the ______ of the kidney
medulla
283
thin limbs are long in ________ nephrons and short in _______ nephrons
- long in juxtamedullary nephrons
- short in cortical nephrons
284
what type of epithelium is found within the thin limb of a loop of henle?
simple squamous epithelium
285
what type of epithelium is found within the thick limb of a loop of henle?
simple cuboidal epithelium
286
what part of the loop of henle has a brush border of apical microvilli?
pars recta
287
what is the term used to describe the peritubular capillary network that surrounds loops of henle?
vasa recta
288
describe what forms the cortico-medullary interstitial gradient
higher extracellular sodium in medulla combined with water resorption by proximal convoluted tubule in cortex
289
what does the cortico-medullary interstitial gradient form that results in the production of hypertonic urine?
counter current (exchange) multiplier system of urine concentration
290
what structure of the renal tubule is a continuation of the thick ascending limb of loop of henle and is present within the cortex?
distal convoluted tubule
291
what type of epithelium is found within the distal convoluted tubule?
simple cuboidal epithelium with short apical microvilli (no distinct brush border)
292
what type types of cells within the distal convoluted tubule are responsible for active resorption of Na & Cl coupled with secretion of H & K ions?
principal cells and intercalated cells
293
what cells within the distal convoluted tubule resorb Na and secrete K?
principal cells
294
what cells within the distal convoluted tubule resorb K and secrete H?
intercalated cells
295
what hormones helps to control principal cells and intercalated cells?
aldosterone
296
what is the term used to describe the terminal portion of a nephron?
collecting tubule
297
several collecting tubules converge to form a larger _______ ______
collecting duct
298
where do collecting ducts converge at?
renal papilla
299
what part of the nephron functions in Na resorption, maintenance of acid-base balance, K secretion, and resorption?
collecting tubule
300
epithelial cells of the collecting duct are normally ________ to water
impermeable
301
under the influence of what hormone do the collecting tubules become permeable and will resorb water?
ADH - vasopressin
302
by what organ is ADH (vasopressin) secreted by?
posterior pituitary
303
the juxtaglomerular apparatus is considered to be a combine _______ and _______
baroreceptor and chemoreceptor
304
the juxtaglomerular apparatus is used to regulate systemic blood pressure via what system?
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
305
what are the three components of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
- macula densa
- juxtaglomerular cells
- extraglomerular mesangial cells
306
describe where the macula densa are located and their function
- thickened region on one side of distal convoluted tubule
- contains densely packed cuboidal to columnar epithelial cells
- chemoreceptor sensitivity to changes in Na conc. in filtrate
307
describe where the juxtaglomerular cells are located and their function
- modified smooth muscle cells in wall of afferent arteriole
- act as baroreceptors to detect changes in blood pressure
- produce renin in response to LOW blood pressure
308
describe where the extraglomerular mesangial cells are located and their function
- flattened cells surrounding afferent and efferent arterioles
- provide structural support and phagocytosis
- may assist in tubular glomerular feedback (transmits signals from cells of macula densa to glomerular mesangial cells)
309
a decrease in blood pressure results in ______ release from juxtaglomerular cells in afferent arteriole
renin
310
a decrease in blood pressure leads to decreased glomerular filtration rate leading to a _______ concentration of sodium in the _______ _______ _______
- low sodium
- distal convoluted tubule
311
renin converts _________ into ________
angiotensinogen into angiotensin I
312
ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme) converts _________ into _______
angiotensin I into angiotensin II
313
explain the three ways that angiotensin II increases blood pressure
- vasoconstriction
- release of aldosterone from adrenal cortex (resorption of Na and water from DCT
- ADH secretion from posterior pituitary (increased water resorption from collecting tubule)
314
what conversion do ACE inhibitors help to prevent and what medical condition are they commonly used to treat?
- prevents conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II
- used to treat high blood pressure
315
what structure of the urinary system conducts urine from the kidneys to the bladder?
ureters
316
what type of epithelium is found within the ureters and it thrown into folds?
transitional epithelium
317
what type of contractions do the ureters produce to move urine?
peristaltic contractions
318
what type of epithelium lines the urinary bladder?
transitional epithelium with underlying fibroelastic lamina propria
319
what are the three entries to the bladder that define to trigone area?
- two for entry of urine from ureters
- one for exit of urine via urethra
320
cells in what area of the bladder are most prone to neoplastic transformation?
trigone area
321
what part of the urinary system transfers urine from the bladder to the outside world?
urethra
322
what type of epithelium and glands are found within the urethra?
pseudostratified columnar epithelium with paraurethral mucus glands
323
what are the three sections of the male urethra?
- prostatic
- membranous
- spongy (penile)
324
what type of epithelium is found within the prostatic urethra?
transitional epithelium
325
which gender is more susceptible to bladder infections because of short urethra?
females
326
what is the medial condition used to describe red blood cells, white blood cells, bacteria in urine and painful/ burning urination?
bacterial/ fungal (yeast infection)
327
what is the term used to describe excretion of protein in urine and what protein is usually excreted?
- proteinuria
- albumin
328
what is the term used to describe excretion of glucose in the urine and what medical condition is this commonly assocaited with?
- glucosuria
- diabetes mellitus
329
what two terms are used to describe high frequency of urination and drinking?
- polyuria (PU)
- polydypsia (PD)
330
what is the term used to describe crystal stone formation in the urinary system?
urinary calculi
331
what are the three places that kidney stones may become lodged at within the urinary tract?
- renal pelvis
- ureters
- urethra
332
what type of blood test measures renal function and is considered an indirect measure of renal disease?
blood urea nitrogen test
333
what is the term used to describe 75% of functional nephrons lost?
uremia
334
what organ system communicates via chemical messengers (hormones)?
endocrine system
335
the endocrine system lacks ______ and secretes hormones into surrounding ________ space?
- lacks ducts
- interstitial space
336
what organ coordinates endocrine functions of the body?
hypothalamus
337
what is an example of an organ with endocrine and exocrine tissue intermixed?
pancreas
338
what is the name of the "turkish saddle" that the pituitary gland sits in?
sella turcica
339
secretion of the pituitary hormones is controlled by the _______
hypothalamus
340
what system allows communication between the pituitary gland and hypothalamus?
hypophyseal portal system
341
_______ factors stimulate secretion
releasing factors
342
_______ factors inhibit secretion
inhibitory factors
343
direct acting hormones have ________ target organ
non-endocrine
344
trophic hormones have a target organ that is another ______ gland
endocrine
345
what are the five direct acting hormones?
- GH
- ADH
- MSH
- oxytocin
- prolactin
346
what are the four trophic hormones?
- TSH
- ACTH
- FSH
- LH
347
what are the three pituitary- dependent endocrine glands?
- thyroid gland
- adrenal cortex
- gonads
348
the anterior portion of the pituitary contains glandular ________ tissue and the posterior contains _______ _______ tissue
- glandular epithelial tissue
- neural secretory tissue
349
what is the name of the oral ectoderm that migrates to form the anterior pituitary?
raathke's pouch
350
what are the three distinct regions of the anterior pituitary?
- pars distalis
- pars intermedia
- pars tuberalis
351
what region of the anterior pituitary makes up the bulk of the anterior pituitary?
pars distalis
352
what region of the anterior pituitary is a thin layer between anterior and posterior pituitary that secretes MSH and ACTH?
pars intermedia
353
at region of the anterior pituitary frequently contains cystic remnants of rathke's pouch?
pars intermedia
354
what region of the anterior pituitary is an extension of anterior pituitary and forms the pituitary stalk (infundibulum)?
pars tuberalis
355
what region of the anterior pituitary secretes the bulk of pituitary hormones including both direct acting and tropic hormones?
pars distalis
356
what are two the direct acting hormones secreted by the pars distalis?
- GH
- prolactin
357
what are the four trophic hormones secreted by the pars distalis?
- TSH
- ACTH
- FSH
- LH
358
what type of chromophils stain with acidic dye (stain pink)?
acidophils
359
what type of chromophils stain with basic dye (pale blue to light purple)?
basophils
360
what type of cells do not take up either due and stain clear on H&E?
chromophobes
361
what are the two types of cells that are considered acidophils?
somatotrophs and mammotrophs
362
what are the three types of cells that are considered basophils?
thyrotrophs, gonadotrophs, and corticotrophs
363
what part of the posterior pituitary contains axons of neurosecretory origin?
infundibulum
364
what is the term used to describe the support cells of the posterior pituitary?
pituicytes
365
the hypothalamus secretes two hormones via the posterior pituitary which are _______ and ______
- ADH (vasopressin)
- oxytocin
366
ADH and oxytocin are stored in neurosecretory granules of axons of posterior pituitary known as ________ _______
herring bodies
367
what hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary controls blood pressure by altering the permeability of renal collecting tubules?
ADH
368
decreased production of ADH results in _______ urine production
increased
369
what hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary promotes smooth muscle contractions in the uterus and breast?
oxytocin
370
what endocrine gland is embryologically derived from epithelial down growth of fetal tongue?
thyroid gland
371
what is the inactive hormone that is stored within extracellular follicles?
thyroglobulin
372
T4 is _________ in liver to for T3
deiodinated
373
what is the more potent biologically active form of thyroid hormones?
T3
374
what are the secondary secretory cells in the thyroid gland?
parafollicular cells (C cells)
375
what do parafollicular cells (C cells) secrete?
calcitonin
376
what does calcitonin help to regulate?
blood calcium levels
NOTE - decreases serum calcium, inhibits osteoclasts
377
goiter can arise due to either ________ or ________ thyroidism
hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism
378
what disease of the thyroid gland results in an increase in number and size of follicle cells?
hyperthyroidism
379
what disease of the thyroid gland is likely due to an autoimmune reaction and results in a decreased size of the gland?
hypothyroidism
380
on what surface of the thyroid gland are the parathyroid glands present?
posterior surface
381
what hormone does the parathyroid hormone secrete?
parathyroid hormone
382
how does parathyroid hormone affect serum calcium levels?
increases
383
how does calcitonin hormone affect serum calcium levels?
decreases
384
what are the three ways which parathyroid hormones acts to increase blood calcium?
- increased osteoclast activity
- increased renal tubular absorption of calcium in kidneys
- increased calcium reabsorption from gut via vitamin D
385
______ levels of blood calcium stimulate the secretion of parathyroid hormone
low levels
386
what is the term used to describe excess PTH production?
hyperparathyroidism
387
what are the two types of cells present within the parathyroid gland and what is their function?
- chief cells - secrete parathyroid hormone
- oxyphil cells - function unknown
388
what endocrine glands are located superior to the kidneys?
adrenal glands
389
the adrenal cortex is regulated by ACTH which is secreted by the _________ ________
anterior pituitary
390
steroid hormones are structurally related to a _________ precursor
cholesterol precursor
391
what hormone released by the adrenal glands controls electrolyte/ fluid balance by regulating the Na and K levels via Na pumps?
mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
392
what hormone released by the adrenal glands stimulates gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis to increase blood glucose levels?
glucocorticoids (cortisol)
393
what hormone released by the adrenal glands stimulates increased metabolism and breakdown of proteins, carbs, and lipids?
glucocorticoids
394
what hormone released by the adrenal glands supplements gonadal production?
sex hormones
395
what layer of the adrenal cortex secretes mineralocorticoids?
zona glomerulosa
396
what layer of the adrenal cortex makes up 80% and secretes glucocorticoids?
zona fasciculata
397
what is the name of the cells present within the zona fasciculata layer of the adrenal cortex?
spongiocytes
398
what layer of the adrenal cortex secretes small quantities of androgens and glucocorticoids?
zona reticularis
399
what is the name of the medical condition used to describe failure of adrenal cortex to produce mineralo- and glucocorticoids?
hypoadrenocorticism
400
a decrease in cortisol results in _______ blood glucose
decreased
401
what is the common name for hypoadrenocorticism
addison's disease
402
what is the common name for hyperadrenocorticism?
cushing's disease
403
describe what causes PRIMARY hyperadrenocorticism
general adrenal hyperplasia or functional tumor of adrenal cortex leading to EXCESS cortisol secretion
404
describe what causes SECONDARY hyperadrenocorticism
- increased ACTH from anterior pituitary (pituitary tumor) or other cortisol producing tumor
- increased ACTH secretion leads to adrenal hyperplasia and excess cortisol secretion
405
what type of cells of neuroectodermal origin can be found within the adrenal medulla?
chromaffin
406
what type of nerve fibers control chromaffin cells within the adrenal medulla?
preganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers
407
what type of hormone do chromaffin cells secrete?
catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
408
where do chromaffin cells store catecholamines?
dense core granules
409
what response are catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) usually used in?
fight or flight response
410
what is the term used to describe endogenous opiates responsible for pain relief?
enkephaline
411
what is the name used to describe a tumor of chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla (generally benign and functional)?
pheochromocytoma
412
endocrine cells that have migrated from duct system and aggregated around capillaries of pancreas form _______ ______ ________
islets of langerhans
413
what are the three types of cells found within islets of the pancreas and what is their function?
- alpha cells - secrete glucagon (raise blood glucose)
- beta cells - secrete insulin (decrease blood glucose)
- delta cells - secrete somatostatin (inhibits insulin and glucagon production)
414
what is the medical condition used to describe insulin deficiency/ abnormality?
diabetes mellitus
415
what are two characteristics of diabetes mellitus?
- hyperglycemia (high blood glucose)
- glucosuria (glucose in urine)
416
what type of diabetes is characterized by a decreased insulin production?
type I
417
what type of diabetes is characterized by a decrease in the number of insulin receptors or decreased responsiveness?
type II
418
the ______ gland functions to translate light intensity and duration into endocrine activity
pineal gland
419
what hormones does the pineal gland secrete?
melatonin and serotonin
420
what effect does melatonin have on GNRH release from hypothalamus and thus sex hormone secretion from gonads?
- decreased GNRH from hypothalamus
- decreased sex hormone secretion from gonads
421
what are the two types of cells found within the pineal gland and what is their function?
- pinealocytes (most common) - secrete melatonin and serotonin
- neuroglial cells - support cells)
422
what is the term used to describe calcified accretions of calcium and magnesium phosphate in aging individuals within the pineal gland?
corpora arenacea
423
what is the term used to describe endocrine cells scattered in the mucosa of GI, respiratory tract, and other organs?
APUD cells (amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation)
424
what types of hormones do APUD cells (amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation) secrete?
peptide and amine hormones (gastrin, secretin, CCK, and serotonin)
425
from what origin are most APUD cells (amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation) derived from?
neural crest (neuroendocrine cells)
NOTE - others in gut derived from endoderm (enteroendocrine cells)
426
what are the three best known examples of APUD cells (amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation)
- chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
- thyroid C cells (calcitonin)
- pancreatic islets (insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin)
