histo exam 2 Flashcards
(428 cards)
1
Q
what system in the human body functions to transport oxygen, carbon dioxide/ nutrients, thermoregulation, and transport of immune cells/ hormones?
A
circulatory system
2
Q
what two components does the vascular system consist of?
A
heart and blood vessels
3
Q
what type of circulation is made up of the RA&V, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, and LA?
A
pulmonary circulation
4
Q
what type of circulation is made up of the LA%V, aorta and rest of body?
A
systemic circulation
5
Q
what does the lymph vascular system lack and what does it rely on for returning lymph to blood vascular system?
A
lacks intrinsic pump
relies on muscle contraction
6
Q
what vascular tunic is the innermost layer and made up of simple squamous endothelial cells?
A
tunica intima (functions as semi-permeable layer)
7
Q
what type of special cell junction is found in the tunica intima to allow WBC’s to exit from vessels?
A
fascia occludens (discontinuous tight junction)
8
Q
what vascular tunic (if present) separates the tunica intima and media and what type of fibers is it composed of?
A
internal elastic lamina
composed of elastic fibers
9
Q
what vascular tunic is considered the middle layer and can be highly variable?
A
tunica media
10
Q
in arteries, which tunic is the thickest and what type of fibers can it contain?
A
tunica media
may contain reticulin (type 3 collagen) and elastic fibers
11
Q
what vascular tunic (if present) separates the tunica media and adventitia?
A
external elastic lamina
12
Q
what vascular tunic is the outermost layer and consists of loose fibroblastic connective tissue?
A
tunica adventitia
13
Q
in veins, which tunic is the thickest and may contain vasa vasorum?
A
tunica adventitia
14
Q
what is the term used to describe autonomic nerves within tunica adventitia that controls smooth muscle contraction in vessel walls?
A
nervi vasculares
15
Q
what type of action is vasoconstriction due to?
A
action of sympathetic, post-ganglionic nerve fibers
16
Q
what type of effect does sympathetic, post-ganglionic nerve fibers have on smooth muscle of tunica media?
A
vasoconstriction and decrease in lumen diameter
17
Q
what are the 3 possible explanations of how vasodilation occurs?
A
- absence of sympathetic stimulation
- indirect parasympathetic innervation (nitrous oxide)
- low O2 tension, walls relax and results in increased blood flow
18
Q
what type of sensory receptor detects blood pressure?
A
baroreceptors
19
Q
what type of sensory receptor detects changes in O2, CO2 tension, and pH?
A
chemoreceptors
20
Q
the ______ system conducts blood away from the heart to capillary beds
A
arterial
21
Q
the ______ system returns blood from capillaries to the heart
A
venous system
22
Q
what part of a blood pressure reading is described as contraction of ventricles resulting in a pressure wave?
A
systole
23
Q
what part of a blood pressure reading is described as relaxation of ventricles resulting in decreased pressure?
A
diastole
24
Q
what type of arteries typically receive blood directly from the heart (examples include aorta, common cartoid, subclavian, etc)?
A
elastic arteries
25
what tunic is typically the thickest in elastic arteries?
tunica media
26
elastic arteries possess both internal and external elastic laminae (true or false)
true
27
what type of artery has a distinct elastic lamina but can vary whether it has an external elastic lamina based on its size?
muscular arteries
28
what term is used to describe the terminal branches of the arterial system that supplies capillary beds?
arterioles
29
what type of artery is considered the major site of vasoconstriction and vasodilation?
arterioles
30
what type of artery is characterized by a discontinuous layer of smooth muscle in the tunica media?
metarterioles
31
what is the relationship between the amount of smooth muscle and diameter of the vessel in regard to arteries?
amount of smooth muscle increases with increasing diameter of vessel (relative amount of connective tissue decreases)
32
where does microcirculation occur primarily?
capillaries (can also occur in arterioles and venules)
33
what are capillaries made up of?
- single layer of endothelial cells supported by basal lamina (tunica intima)
- small number of pericytes
34
what two cells can pericytes differentiate into following injury?
endothelial cells or smooth muscle cells
35
what type of capillary is characterized by a continuous endothelium lining and is the most common type of capillary?
continuous
36
what type of capillary is characterized by endothelial cells possessing pores or fenestrae within cells?
fenestrated
37
what type of capillary is characterized by a non-continuous basal lamina (endothelial cells are separated by large gaps between cells?
discontinuous
38
what can discontinuous capillaries form?
sinusoids
39
in comparison to arteries, the venous system is a _____ pressure system and includes ______ walled vessels
- low pressure system
- thinner walled vessels
40
what tunic is the thickest in veins?
tunica adventitia
41
what characteristic of veins helps to prevent backflow?
valves
42
where is the preferential site for diapedesis?
post-capillary venules
43
what type of substances act on venules?
vasoactive substances
44
what does enlarged intracellular spaces lead to?
increased permeability of vessel
45
what within the tunica media controls the luminal diameter of muscular veins and venules?
smooth muscle
46
what type of shunt acts as a bypass for a capillary bed?
AV shunts
47
what type of vessel can be either a vein or artery that connects two capillary beds?
portal vessels
48
what occurs when the endothelium of a vessel is damaged?
cholesterol adheres to exposed proteins
49
if an inflammatory response becomes chronic via foam cells, what can this result in?
atherosclerosis and plaque formation
50
what medical condition is atherosclerosis associated with due to a decrease in diameter of vessel lumen and increase in systolic blood pressure?
hypertension
51
atherosclerosis is the most common cause of what disease?
ischemic heart disease
52
what is the term used to describe if a piece of thrombus breaks off and what can it result in if it causes sudden occlusion?
- embolus
- acute ischemic event
53
how does healing occur in the heart since cardiac muscle cells are terminally differentiated?
fibrosis
54
what event results in cerebral infarct with similar cell death and loss of function in the brain?
stroke (neurons are terminally differentiatied)
55
what is the term used to describe thin walled, balloon-like regions that can occasionally burst?
aneurisms
56
what system drains excess fluid from ECS and returns it to the bloodstream?
lymph vascular system
57
what is the largest lymph vessel in the body?
thoracic duct
58
how is movement of lymph accomplished?
via skeletal muscle contraction (no central pumping mechanism)
59
what is asymmetrical lymph drainage important in?
tumor metastasis
60
what part of the lymph vascular system is used for antigenic sampling and recognition?
lymph nodes
61
what are the 4 main functions of skin?
- protection
- sensation
- thermoregulation
- metabolic functions
62
what are the 3 layers of skin?
epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis
63
what are the cells of the epidermis?
keratinocytes
64
what does the epidermis lack?
blood vessels (do not penetrate basement membrane)
65
how is the epidermis supplied and nourished with blood and nutrients?
via blood vessels in the underlying dermis
66
what type of tissue is the dermis composed of?
dense, irregular, collagenous connective tissue interspersed with elastic fibers
67
what are the 2 layers of the dermis?
papillary layer and reticular layer
68
what are large dermal ridges in thick skin termed?
fingerprints
69
what does the papillary layer of the dermis help to prevent?
shear and mechanical abrasion
70
what layer of the dermis contains hair follicles, sweat, and sebaceous glands?
reticular layer of dermis
71
what layer of skin is made up of loose, irregular connective tissue/ adipose tissue and is located below the dermis?
hypodermis
72
what is the subcutaneous plexus used in?
thermoregulation
73
what are the 5 layers of the epidermis?
- stratum corneum
- stratum lucidum
- stratum granulosum
- stratum spinosum
- stratum basale
74
what is the basal layer of the epidermis?
stratum basale
75
what is the stratum basale bound to the basement membrane by?
hemidesmosomes
76
what is the thickest layer of epidermis in thin skin?
stratum spinosum
77
what is the predominant cell product within the stratum spinosum?
cytokeratin
78
what layer of the epidermis is characterized by cells containing keratohyaline granules?
stratum granulosum
79
keratinization of cells represents interaction between what two substances?
keratohyaline granules and tonofibrils
80
what structures contain glycolipids and provide waterproofing coat for skin cells?
keratinosomoes
81
what layer of the epidermis is only present in thick skin?
stratum lucidum
82
what is the most superficial layer of the epidermis?
stratum corneum
83
what are the three common types of skin tumors and what type of cells are they derived from?
- squamous cell carcinoma (epithelial cells)
- basal cell carcinoma (epithelial cells)
- melanoma (melanocytes)
84
what type of leukocyte infiltrates the clot formed 3-24 hours after an injury (acute phase)?
neutrophils
85
what type of leukocytes infiltrate during days 3-7 during the transition from the acute to subacute phase?
neutrophils are replaced by macrophages
86
what are the 3 processes that take place during days 3-7 following an injury?
- neovascularization
- fibroplasia
- re-epithelialization (production of granulation tissue)
87
what is the term used to describe excess fibroplasia and looks like a raised thickened connective tissue scar?
keloid
88
what stage of wound healing occurs with more extensive loss of tissue where wound edges to not approximate?
second intention healing
89
what level of skin does a first degree burn involve?
only epidermis
90
what levels of skin does a second degree burn involve?
epidermis and dermis
91
what levels of skin does a third degree burn involve?
epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis
92
what is the origin of melanocytes?
neuroectodermal (neural crest origin) dendritic cells
93
where are melanocytes usually found within the epidermis?
stratum basale layer
94
what pigment do melanocytes produce?
melanin
95
what are the organelles from which melanin are released from?
melanosomes
96
what type of melanin is present in dark haired individuals (dark brown/ black pigment)?
eumelanin
97
what type of melanin is present in individuals with red or blonde hair (red to yellow pigment)?
pheomelanin
98
what is the relationship of melanin digestion in lighter skinned individuals?
produce less pigment or digest pigment faster
99
what is the relationship of melanin digestion in darker skinned individuals?
produce more melanin and retain more pigment longer
100
what is the name of the autoimmune disease that results in the destruction of melanocytes (leads to depigmentation)?
vitiligo
101
what is the name of the pituitary hormone that regulates melanin synthesis?
melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)
102
what stage of melanin synthesis occurs in premelanosomes?
tyrosine precursor first oxidized to DOPA by tyrosinase
103
what stage of melanin synthesis occurs in melanosomes?
conversion of DOPA to melanin
104
what do albinos lack?
tyrosinase (DOPA and melanin not formed)
105
what can be stained for to help differentiate melanoma tumor and squamous cell carcinoma?
tyrosinase
106
what does melanin help to prevent by functioning as a UV shield?
protects nucleus to inhibit mutagenesis
107
what is the name of phagocytic antigen presenting cells found within the epidermis?
langerhans cells
108
what distinctive feature do langerhans cells contain that can be seen on EM?
birbeck granules
109
where are langerhans cells found within the epidermis?
stratum spinosum
110
what type of allergic reaction are langerhans cells involved in?
contact allergic dermatitis
111
what is the term used to describe embryological outgrowths of epidermis?
skin appendages
112
what are the two components of the hair shaft?
outer cortex and inner medulla
113
where does hair growth occur?
within hair bulb (expansion of follicle)
114
what component of hair helps to prevent matting?
thin cuticle of overlapping keratin plates
115
what is the hair bulb lined by?
actively dividing epithelial cells
116
what part of the hair bulb functions as a vascular core and contains blood vessels?
dermal papilla
117
what does melanin that is produced next to hair follicles and incorporated into cortex result in?
hair color
118
what are two functions of hair?
aids in protection and thermoregulation
119
developing hair surrounded and protected by _______ and ________ root sheath
internal and external root sheath
120
what structure separates the hair bulb from surrounding dermis?
glassy membrane
121
what muscle is active in piloerection (goose bumps)?
arrector pili muscle
122
what are goose bumps caused by?
sympathetic stimulation due to cold, fear or aggression
123
what are the four phases of hair growth?
1. growth phase (anagen)
2. involuting phase (catagen) - loss of blood supply
3. inactive resting phase (telogen)
4. shedding of old hair shaft (exogen)
124
hair growth is continuous (true or false)
false - NOT continuous
125
what is the type of hair found on children (fine body hair)?
vellus hair
126
what is the type of hair that is found after puberty on adolescents and adults?
terminal hair
127
what enzyme do individuals with androgenic alopecia have high levels of?
5-alpha-reductase
128
what conversion is 5-alpha-reductase involved in?
converts testosterone to dihydroxytestosterone
129
what does the nail plate rest on?
rests on stratified squamous epithelium of nail bed
130
what part of a nail extends into dermis and attaches to periosteum of distal phalanx?
nail root
131
how and where does nail growth occur at?
occurs by proliferation and differentiation of epithelium at nail root in germinative zone of nail matrix
132
what is the term for the white crescent at the base of the nail?
lunula
133
what structure of a nail overlies the lunula?
cuticle (eponychium)
134
what type of cells make up the nail plate?
mature, dead keratinized epithelial cells
135
what type of gland secretes the entire cell?
sebaceous glands (holocrine)
136
sebaceous glands develop as outgrowth of the ______ root sheath
external
137
what do sebaceous glands secrete?
sebum
138
what does sebum function in?
waterproofing, moisturizing skin and hair
139
what is the term used to describe excessive secretion of sebum?
sebborrhea
140
what three components make up the pilosebaceous unit?
- hair follicle
- arrector pili muscle
- sebaceous gland
141
what are the two types of sweat glands?
merocrine/eccrine and apocrine
142
what type of glands secrete only product?
merocrine (eccrine)
143
where are merocrine glands NOT found?
lips and genitalia
144
what 4 components make up sweat?
hypotonic solution of:
- salts
- ammonia
- urea
- uric acid
145
thermoregulatory sweating is ________
cholinergic
146
emotional sweating is _________
adrenergic
147
thermoregulatory sweating is due to ________ (parasympathetic or sympathetic)
parasympathetic
148
emotional sweating is due to ________ (parasympathetic or sympathetic)
sympathetic
149
where does thermoregulatory sweating usually start and where are the last places to experience it?
first - axille, forehead, scalp
last - hands and feet
150
where does emotional sweating tend to begin?
palms and soles
151
what type of gland secretes product along with some cytoplasm?
apocrine
152
where are apocrine sweat glands located?
axillae and groin (develop at pubertty)
153
what occurs as a result of bacterial breakdown in apocrine glands?
acrid odor
154
secretion in apocrine glands is ________
adrenergic
155
what substance is produced by ceruminous glands in the external auditory meatus?
cerumen (ear wax)
156
in females, hormones from what sources help to develop mammary glands?
influence of pituitary and ovarian hormones
157
what is the organization of drainage for mammary glands?
- mammary glands drained by terminal ducts
- drain into larger lactiferous ducts
- empty into lactiferous sinus in region of nipple
158
during lactation, what causes mammary glands to become enlarged?
- hypertrophy of secretory cells
- accumulation of secretory product
159
what does colostrum contain that is important in transfer of passive immunity to offspring?
large amounts of antibodies
160
milk production is both ________ and _______
- mecrcrine (protein secretion)
- apocrine (lipid secretion)
161
what type of sensory receptor responds to touch or pressure in dermal ridges of papillary layer?
meissner's corpuscles
162
what type of sensory receptor detects mechanical and vibratory pressure and is located within the dermis and hypodermis?
pacinian corpuscles
163
what type of sensory receptor is especially common in soles of feet?
ruffini corpuscles
164
what sensory receptors that surround most hair follicles help to detect heat/cold, touch, pain, and movement?
free nerve endings
165
where are merkel cells derived from?
epidermal cells derived from neural crest
166
where are merkel cells located?
stratum basale
167
what do merkel cells store?
serotonin
168
what type of cells are bone and cartilage both derived from?
primitive mesenchymal cells
169
what is the relative strength of bone and cartilage due to?
properties of ground substance and extracellular fibers
170
what is the term used to describe what chondrocytes are trapped within?
lucunae
171
what structure surrounds cartilage?
perichondrium
172
what type of growth is used to describe new cartilage within mass (due to the fact that chondrocytes retain the ability to divide)?
interstitial growth
173
what type of growth is used to describe new cartilage forming at surface of pre-existing cartilage and is more common?
appositional growth
174
cartilage is an ________ connective tissue
avascular
175
exchange of metabolites to cartilage occurs via ________ through _________ __________
diffusion through ground substance
176
what gives cartilage its flexibility and incompressibility properties?
60-80% water bound to proteoglycans
177
what is the most common glycoprotein found in cartilage?
chondronectin
178
what type of properties were studied in sharks and are possibly associated with chondronectin?
anti-cancer properties
179
what type of cartilage is found in articular surfaces, growth plates, nasal septum, costal cartilage, tracheal and bronchial rings?
hyaline cartilage
180
what type of collagen fibers are found in hyaline cartilage?
type II collagen fibers
181
what type of cartilage consists of alternating layers of hyaline cartilage and dense connective tissue (contains both type I and type II collage)?
fibrocartilage
182
what type of cartilage lacks a perichondrium?
fibrocartilage
183
what type of cartilage makes up the TMJ?
fibrocartilage
184
what type of cartilage is similar to hyaline cartilage with addition of large number of elastic fibers in the ECM?
elastic cartilage
185
why is repair within cartilage limited?
repair requires blood flow and cartilage does not have a direct blood supply
186
what are the two types of bone?
woven and lamellar
187
describe the orientation of collagen fibers within woven bone
immature form characterized by random orientation of collagen fibers
188
describe the orientation of collagen fibers within lamellar bone
concentric layers (circumferential lamellae) with parallel collagen fibers
189
what are the two forms that lamellar bone can have
- dense and compact
- cancellous and spongy
190
what is the term used to describe the thin, bony spicules within cancellous bone?
trabeculae
191
within the diaphysis (shaft) of a long bone, where is the compact and cancellous bone located?
- compact - in cortex
- cancellous - in medullary cavity (marrow)
192
what are the two types of bone marrow?
- red (hematopoietic) marrow
- yellow (fatty) marrow
193
what is the term used to describe the ends of bones and what type of cartilage covers them?
- epiphyses
- covered with hyaline cartilage
194
what is the term used to describe the region between epiphysis and diaphysis?
metaphysis
195
what does the metaphysis contain of long bones?
epiphyseal plate
196
what is the layer of fibrous connective tissue that covers the external surface of bone called?
periosteum
197
what connective tissue layer lines the internal marrow cavity?
endosteum
198
what two types of cells does the periosteum contain?
fibroblasts and osteoprogenitor cells
199
what type of fibers help to provide anchorage and support that extend from periosteum / muscle tendon and insert into superficial layer of bone?
Sharpey's fibers
200
what type of precursor cell ca differentiate into osteoblasts and osteocytes?
osteoprogenitor cells
201
what bone cell is responsible for the synthesis of extracellular matrix and collagen?
osteoblasts
202
what is the term used to describe extracellular matrix and collagen during bone formation?
osteoid
203
calcification of matrix occurs via secretion of _______ vesicles
matrix vesicles
204
what do matrix vesicles contain to aid in calcification of matrix?
alkaline phosphatase
205
what do osteoblasts mature into within lucunae after matrix mineralizes?
osteocytes
206
what is the term for mature bone cells?
osteocytes
207
what bone cell is actively involved in resorption and remodeling of bone?
osteoclasts
208
explain the effects of parathormone and note where it is secreted from
- secreted from parathyroid gland
- stimulates osteoCLAST activity (bone resorption)
- increases blood calcium levels and decreases renal excretion by kidneys
209
explain the effects of calcitonin and note where it is secreted from
- secreted by thyroid gland
- stimulates osteoBLAST activity, inhibits osteoclasts (bone deposition)
- decreases blood calcium levels
210
explain the effects of somatotropin
- pituitary growth hormone
- stimulates growth and decreases blood calcium
211
what can over-secretion of somatotropin lead to?
gigantism (acromegaly)
212
what can under-secretion of somatotropin lead to?
pituitary dwarfism
213
within bone, what are the most common GAG's found?
- hyaluronic acid
- chondroitin sulfate
- keratin sulfate
214
what are the non-collagenous organic molecules of bone?
- osteocalcin
- osteonectin
- sialoproteins
215
production of osteons and bony remodeling involves removal of existing bone by ______ and redeposition of new bone by _______
- osteoclasts
- osteoblasts
216
what is the term for the outer margin of an osteon?
cement line
217
what do osteoblasts mature into when they become trapped in lacunae in osteoid matrix and mature?
osteocytes
218
how do osteocytes communicate with one another?
via gap junctions
219
what is the name of the structure within each osteon that contains blood vessels and nerves?
haversian canal
220
what are haversian canals connected by?
volkmann's canals
221
through which structure does exchange of nutrients and waste take place in compact bone?
haversian vessels
222
what type of bone lacks haversian system?
spongy and woven bone
223
what is the outer periphery of cortical bone arranged into?
circumferential lamellae
224
what is the term for the dense connective tissue that surrounds compact bone?
periosteum
225
what type of bone growth is classified by replacement of cartilage precursor by bone?
endochondral ossification
226
long bones, vertebrae, pelvis, and base of skull are all examples of bones that form by which type of bone growth?
endochondral ossification
227
what type of bone growth is classified by direct replacement of mesenchyme by bone (no cartilage precursor)?
intramembranous ossification
228
in intramembranous ossification, mesenchymal cells differentiate into ______ and produce ______ which later mineralizes into bone
- osteoblasts
- produce osteoid
229
where does the primary ossification occur in endochondral ossification?
mid-diaphysis
230
during endochondral ossification, what does calcification of cartilage that inhibits diffusion of nutrients lead to?
death of chondrocytes and spread of osteoblasts
231
where are the two secondary centers of ossification that occur during endochondral ossification located?
epiphyses
232
in endochondral ossification, what does the epiphyseal plate remaining open allow for?
continuous longitudinal growth
233
what event occurs during endochondral ossification at maturity and involves complete ossification?
closure of epiphysis
234
after closure during endochondral ossification, the growth plate persists as _______ line in metaphysis and is visible on x-rays
epiphyseal line
235
what zone during the transition of cartilage to bone is classified by containing hyaline cartilage with clusters of chondrocytes (no cell proliferation)?
zone of reserve cartilage
236
what zone during the transition of cartilage to bone is classified by successive mitotic division of chondrocytes leading to the appearance of columns of chondrocytes?
zone of proliferation
237
what zone during the transition of cartilage to bone is classified by the division creasing and chondrocytes increasing in size?
zone of maturation
238
what zone during the transition of cartilage to bone is classified by where chondrocytes greatly enlarge, large amounts of glycogen are present, and become vacuolated & calcify?
zone of hypertrophy and calcification
239
what zone during the transition of cartilage to bone is classified by capillaries of marrow cavity grow from diaphysis into growth plate, chondrocytes degenerate, and lacunae are invaded by osteogenic cells?
zone of cartilage degeneration
240
what zone during the transition of cartilage to bone is classified by blood vessels from the marrow cavity growing into cartilage mass and osteogenic cells differentiate into osteoblasts to form bony trabeculae?
zone of ossification
241
during intermembranous ossification, _____ follows with subsequent _____ of adjacent enters of ossificaion
- mineralization
- fusion
242
during intermembranous ossification, the bone produced is _____ bone which is later remodeled by osteoclasts and osteoblasts to form ______ bone
- woven bone
- compact bone
243
what type of fracture is characterized by no break in the skin?
simple or closed fracture
244
what type of fracture is characterized by damage to skin exposing bone?
compound or open fracture
245
what type of fracture is characterized by bone broken into several pieces?
comminuted fracture
246
what is the term used to describe when blood fills fracture site?
hematoma
247
what are the four signs of an inflammatory response?
- pain
- swelling
- redness
- heat
248
what type of lymphocytes are first to arrive in the acute phase of inflammation?
neutrophils
249
after one week, fibroblasts and capillaries proliferate and grow into site to form ______ tissue
granulation
250
what type of tissue becomes progressively more fibrous in chronic phase? what is the tissue that is formed?
- granulation tissue
- forms fibrous granulation tissue
251
what is the term used to describe progressive replacement of granulation tissue by hyaline cartilage?
provisional callous
252
what forms after the provisional callous to help stabilize and bind fracture together?
bony callous
253
what is the term used to describe when the fracture site is completely bridges by woven bone?
bony union
254
how long does the bone repair process typically take (depends on severity and location)?
6-12 weeks
255
what type of joint is characterized by extensive movement?
synovial joint
256
the synovium (discontinuous layer of cells) secretes _____ _____ and bathes articular surfaces
synovial fluid
257
what type of cells within synovial joints resemble macrophages?
type A synoviocytes
258
what type of cells within synovial joints resemble fiibroblasts?
type B cells
259
what type of joint is characterized by limited movement and lacks articular surfaces?
nonsynovial joints
260
what is the term used to describe dense fibrous tissue between bones (sutures)?
syndesmosis
261
what is the term used to describe primary cartilage joints that contain a single layer of hyaline cartilage?
synchondrosis
262
what is the term used to describe secondary cartilage joints that contain two hyaline cartilage surfaces connected by fibrocartilage plate?
symphysis
263
what are the two components of intervertebral joints?
- annulus fibrosus (outer layer)
- nucleus pulposus (central viscous ground substance)
264
what is the medical condition called when there is damage to he annulus fibroses that causes the nucleus pulposus t herniate?
herniated disc
265
what is the term used to describe the inflammation of joints?
arthritis
266
what is the term used to describe the formation of bone spurs?
osteophytes
267
what is the term used to describe the bony fusion of joint with loss of mobility?
ankylosis
268
what is the term used to describe the progressive degeneration and loss of articular cartilage?
osteoarthritis
269
what medical condition is described as an autoimmune reaction in joints where the body produces antibodies that attack joints?
rheumatoid's arthritis
270
the medical condition that occurs as a result of replacement of articular cartilage with fibrovascular tissue?
pannus
271
what medical conditions occurs as a result of deposit of urates and uric acid crystals in joints?
gout
272
what medical conditions occurs as a result of the bone matrix not calcifying normally in children during growth and what can is lead to?
- rickets
- leads to soft, deformed bones (can be permanent)
273
what deficiency can rickets be due to?
insufficient dietary calcium or vitamin D
274
what can insufficient calcium and vitamin D lead to in adults?
osteomalacia (failure of mineralization and softening of bone)
275
what is the term used to describe the loss of bone mass?
osteoporosis
276
what is the relationship between the activity of osteoclasts and osteoblasts in osteoporosis?
resorption by osteoclasts exceeds deposition by osteoblasts
277
decrease in ______ levels in women can potentially lead to an increased risk of osteoporosis?
estrogen
278
what vitamin is necessary for synthesis of collagen?
vitamin C
279
what medical condition is caused by a vitamin C deficiency and is characterized by the bone matrix not being calcified?
scurvy
280
what type of lymphoid tissue is organized into discreet structures or organs (dense or diffuse)?
dense
281
what type of lymphoid tissue is located throughout the body and associated with mucous membranes (dense or diffuse)?
diffuse
282
what type of lymphoid tissue is where b- and t-cells acquire surface receptors (primary or secondary)?
primary lymphoid tissue
283
what type of lymphoid tissue is where mature b- and t-cells migrate to (primary or secondary)?
secondary lymphoid tissue
284
malignant tumors of immune system are referred to as ______ when they involve solid organs
lymphomas
285
malignant tumors of immune system are referred to as ______ when they involve blood
leukemias
286
what is the term used to describe encapsulated aggregates of lymphocytes and lymphoid tissue (distributed throughout the body)?
lymph nodes
287
what are the 4 functions of lymph nodes?
- non-specific filtering of matter and microorganisms
- interaction of circulating lymphocytes and antigens
- aggregation, activation, and proliferation of b-cells and antibody production
- aggregation and proliferation of t-cells and induction of cytotoxic immunity
288
what type of cells within lymph nodes are derived from bone marrow and enter node via bloodstream?
lymphoid cell
289
what is the term for antigen presenting cells within lymph nodes?
immune accessory cell
290
what is the term used to describe macrophages at the periphery of germinal centers?
follicular dendritic cells
291
what is the term used to describe the primary cell found in germinal centers?
tingible body macrohages
292
where do blood vessels enter and leave the lymph node?
hilus
293
b-cells, t-cells, and plasma cells are found in both the cortex and medulla layers (true/ false)?
true
294
what type of cells do b-cells and t-cells migrate across within lymph nodes and where are they located?
- post-capillary venules
- paracortical zone
295
what is the space beneath the capsule called adn what drains into this?
- subcapsular space
- numerous afferent lymph vessels drain into
296
endothelium of sinus on side adjacent to capsule is _______ which helps to prevent _______
- continuous
- prevents leakage
297
endothelium on the side adjacent to parenchyma is _______
discontinuous
298
what are the three sinuses in the outer cortex regarding lymphatic drainage?
- cortical sinuses
- trabecular sinuses
- peritrabecular sinuses
299
what sinus is located within the less cellular medulla and contains lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages and converges on hilus?
medullary sinus
300
lymphatic drainage eventually returns to bloodstream via which two ducts?
thoracic duct or R lymphatic duct
301
what clinical significance does lymphatic drainage have?
tumor metastasis of tumor cells
302
lymphoid follicles are located within which layer of lymph nodes?
cortex
303
if a lymph node has germinal centers present, what does this indicate?
node is responding to antigen
304
lymphocytes respond to antigen by increasing antibody production via what process?
clonal expansion
305
germinal centers serve as sites for what?
b-cell proliferation
306
what lymphatic organ is located within the mediastinum?
thymus
307
what is a special characteristic of the thymus when viewing it on a histology slide?
interlobular septa or trabeculae dividing thymus into lobules
308
failure of clonal deletion may result in what medical condition?
autoimmune diseases
309
what are the 4 general functions of the thymus?
- production of mature, immunocompetent Th and Tc cells
- clonal proliferation of Tc cells
- clonal deletion of self- antibodies
secretion of hormones regulating t-cell development and maturation
310
what 3 types of receptors/ markers to mature t-cells express?
- antigen specific t-cell receptors
- cluster of differentiation surface markers
- class I and II human leukocyte antigen surface markers
311
what type of follicle is absent in the thymus?
secondary follicles absent
312
lymphocytes (mostly t-cells and macrophages) are located within which layer of the thymus?
highly cellular cortex
313
b-cells, plasma cells, and macrophages can be found within which layer of the thymus?
les cellular, central medulla
314
what three hormones does the thymus secrete?
- thymotaxin
- thymosin
- thymopoietin
315
what is the function of the three hormones secreted by the thymus?
attract, regulate, and promote t-cell proliferation/ differentiation into Tc, Ts, and Th cells
316
what is the term used to describe when the thymus undergoes fatty infiltration and lymphatic depletion as one matures?
thymic involution
317
because t-cells are not fully differentiated, what type of lymph vessels does the thymus LACK?
lacks afferent lymph vessels
NOTE - does have efferent of lymph drainage
318
what is the term used to describe the connective tissue sheath that surrounds thymic blood vessels?
blood- thymus barrier
319
what is the largest lymphoid organ in the body?
spleen
320
the spleen recycles iron from ________
hemoglobin
321
if the spleen is removed by an splenectomy, its function is taken over by ______ and ______ _______
liver and bone marrow
322
unlike lymph nodes, the spleen lacks _____ and _____
cortex and medulla
323
what two structures can be found within the red pulp of the spleen?
- pulp cords
- sinusoids
324
what structure within the spleen can be seen as discrete nodules and contains large numbers of white blood cells?
white pulp
325
what 4 structures make up the areas of white pulp within the spleen?
- follicular areas (+/- germinal centers)
- central artery
- basophilic mantle zone
- paler marginal zone
326
what function does the white pulp serve within the spleen?
functions as site of antigen presentation and phagocytosis
NOTE - contains large numbers of macrophages, plasma cells, and t-helper cells
327
what is the term used to describe enlarged germinal centers that can be seen by the eye?
splenic nodules
328
what is forced by the central artery surrounded by t-cells?
periarteriolar lymphatic sheaths (PALS)
329
what are the endothelial cells called that line sinusoids in splenic circulation?
stave cells
330
what type of model describes circulation of spleen?
open circulation model
331
where are palatine tonsils located between anterior and posterior tonsilar pillars?
tonsillar crypts
332
what type of tonsils are present at the base of the tongue?
lingual tonsils
333
what type of tonsils are present in nasopharynx and associated with eustachian tubes?
pharyngeal tonsils
334
what is the term used to describe palatal, lingual, and pharyngeal tonsils collectively?
waldeyer's ring
335
what types of tonsils are referred to as nasal associated lymphoid tissue (NALT)?
palatal and pharyngeal tonsils
336
the palatine tonsil has a distinct cortex and medulla (true/ false)?
false
337
what type of tissue is the luminal surface of the palatine and lingual tonsils covered by?
stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
338
what organ in adults atrophies and contains mostly b-cells?
appendix
339
if the appendix is inflamed, what is the term used to describe this condition?
appendicitis
NOTE - treatment with surgical removal (appendectomy)
340
what does MALT stand for?
mucosa associated lymphoid tissue
341
where are MALTs located at?
subepithelial connective tissue of lamina propria
342
what antibody does MALT produce?
IgA - BOARDS QUESTION
343
MALTs sample _____ material, produce _____, and secrete ________
- antigenic material
- lymphoblasts
- secretes antibodies
344
MALT in gut contain specialized ______ (squamoid enterocytes
m-cells
345
m-cells within MALT in gut are responsible for ______ sampling and transfer from gut lumen into lymphoid follicles
antigen sampling
346
what is the special type of MALT that is scattered throughout the small intestine?
Peyer's patches
347
where are Peyer's patches within the small intestine the most and least common?
- most = ileum
- least = duodenum
348
what does the respiratory tract originate as an outgrowth of?
GI tract
349
what is the respiratory system derived from?
laryngotracheal groove
350
the laryngotracheal groove later develops into the respiratory ________ which is an outgrowth of the esophagus
respiratory diverticulum
351
primary functions of what system include air conduction, filtration, and gas exchange?
respiratory system
352
what are the two secondary functions of the respiratory system?
- olfaction (smell) in nasal cavity
- phonation (vocalization/ speech) from larynx
353
what type of respiration functions in gas exchange (O2 and CO2)
mechanical respiration
354
what kind of respiration functions in O2 being carried to tissues for use in oxidative metabolism to produce ATP?
cellular respiration
355
what structure separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity in mammals?
diaphragm
356
during inspiration, the intrathoracic volume ______ and the pressure ______
- volume - increased
- pressure - decreased
357
during iexpiration, the intrathoracic volume ______ and the pressure ______
- volume - decreased
- pressure - increased
358
what are the two types of pleura lining that make up the pleura of the lungs?
parietal and visceral pleura
359
what are the parietal and visceral pleura separated by and what can be found within this space?
- pleural space
- pleural fluid (decreases friction)
360
what is the term used to describe a breach in the pleural space?
pneumothorax
361
a pneumothorax usually remains unilateral due to loose connective tissue layer separating the left and right pleura sacs called ___________
mediastinum
362
where does air enter the upper respiratory tract at?
nostrils (opens into vestibule)
363
what helps to filter and trap particulate matter within the upper respiratory tract in the vestibule?
sinus hairs
364
after air is brought in though nostrils, where does it enter that contains nasal turbinates/ conchae?
nasal cavity
365
what type of epithelium is the nasal cavity lined by?
respiratory epithelium - moist, pseudostratified, ciliated, columnar, epithelium covered by mucus
366
what does the nasal cavity contain that synapses with the olfactory nerve (CN I)
olfactory receptors
367
what type of cells does olfactory epithelium contain that are columnar cells with apical microvilli?
brush-cells
368
what is the term used to describe generalized sensory cells of olfactory and respiratory epithelia?
brush-cells
369
after air has passed through the nasal cavity, where does it pass through next?
paranasal sinuses and nasopharynx
370
the upper respiratory tract functions to filter, humidify, and warm ______ air
inspired
371
the nasopharynx connects to middle ear via ______ tubes and allowed for ______ of air pressure
- eustacian tubes
- equilibration of air pressure
372
what type of cells secrete mucous within respiratory epithelia?
goblet cells
373
most glands within the upper respiratory tract are _______ glands
sero-mucus
374
what is the term used to describe the rythm that cilia in respiratory epithelium beat in?
metachronal rhythm
375
irritation to upper airways triggers _____ reflex
sneeze
376
irritation to lower airways triggers _____ reflex
cough
377
where does the lower respiratory tract begin?
larynx
378
what functions to protect the trachea during swallowing and covers the opening of the larynx?
epiglottis
379
if food enters the larynx of trachea, what reflex does this trigger?
choking
380
what type of cartilage makes up the cartilages of the larynx?
hyaline or elastic
381
what type of vocal cords are housed in the larynx?
true and false vocal cords
382
what type of epithelium covers the false vocal cords?
respiratory epithelium
383
what type of epithelium covers the true vocal cords?
stratified, squamous, nonkeratinzed epithelium
384
the vocalis muscle can be found in what type of vocal cords?
true vocal cords
385
what pharyngeal arches do the larynx and epiglottis develop from?
6th pharyngeal arches
386
what cranial nerve innervates the larynx?
vagus (CN X)
387
what type of epithelium lines the trachea?
respiratory epithelium w/ numerous goblet cells and sero-mucus glands
388
what type of cartilage are the c-shaped rings of cartilage that surround the trachea composed of?
hyaline cartilage
389
primary bronchi = ______ bronchi
secondary bronchi = _______ bronchi
tertiary bronchi = ________ bronchi
- mainstem
- lobar
- segmental
390
beyond what layer of bronchi is cartilage absent?
3' bronchi
391
what type of epithelium lines all bronchi?
respiratory epithelium
392
what is the term used to describe air in the upper respiratory tract, trachea, and bronchi NOT used for gas exchange?
dead space
393
what structure within the respiratory tract lacks cartilage and sero-mucus glands (smooth muscle performs support function instead)?
bronchioles
394
as bronchioles get smaller, general trend towards thinning of ______ with loss of _____ cells
- epithelium
- goblet cells
395
what type of epithelium is within terminal bronchioles?
tall, pseudostratified, ciliated columnar epithelium
396
what type of epithelium is within respiratory bronchioles?
simple, cuboidal to columnar, ciliated & non-ciliated epithelium with occasional alveoli
397
where does gas exchange occur at?
level of respiratory bronchioles
398
what structures contain numerous alveoli lined with simple, squamous epithelium?
alveolar ducts
399
what type of cell replaced goblet cells within terminal and respiratory bronchioles?
clara cells
400
what type of cells produce lipoproteins which is the primary components of surfactant within airways?
clara cells
401
what type of cells are scattered throughout the respiratory tract and secrete various GI hormones?
bronchioles
402
what type of cells are present within bronchioles and act as generalized sensory cells (columnar with apical microvilli)?
brush cells
403
where are MALT found in the respiratory tract?
lamina propria
404
what is the primary function of MALT within the respiratory tract?
secretion of IgA onto mucosal surface
405
in the respiratory tract, deep the mucosa is muscularis mucosae which is prominent in smaller airways as _______ ______
alveolar rings
406
what type of epithelium lines alveolar ducts and alveoli?
simple squamous epithelium
407
what is the term used to describe the walls between alveoli?
alveolar septa
408
what is the term used to describe the structure within septa that allow for communication spaces between alveoli?
alveolar pores
409
what type of pneumocytes are flatted epithelial cells modified for gas exchange?
type I pneumocytes
410
what type of pneumocytes possess lamellar bodies containing phospholipid?
type II pneumocytes
411
what type of pneumocytes has its contents secreted as surfactant?
type II pneumocytes
412
what medical condition arises as a result of lack of surfactant and is the primary problem for premature infants?
respiratory distress syndrome
413
alveolar macrophages can also be called ______ cells
dust cells
414
indirect lymph drainage of alveoli is via interstitium of ________ _______
interalveolar septa
415
what two medical conditions can arise from lymphatic obstruction?
- pleural effusion
- pulmonary edema
416
what medical condition can be bacterial or viral and is described as an infection of the lung with increased inflammatory cell infiltrate?
pneumonia
417
infections associated with pneumonia may lead to ________ production of pleural fluid
decreased
418
what medical condition results in the formation of multifocal nodules or tubercles where bacterial foci are surrounded by inflammatory cells within the lungs?
tuberculosis
419
mucus production is _______ in response to smoking
increased
420
what is the primary cause of lung cancer?
smoking
421
what structure within respiratory epithelium does smoking impair?
cilia - lose synchronicity then die
422
what medical condition is characterized by permanent enlargement of alveoli?
emphysema
423
COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) is a term used to refer to the collection of what three diseases?
- bronchitis
- asthma
- emphysema
424
in emphysema, we see chronic obstruction of the airways that causes destruction to ______ _______ and thus _______ the surface area for gas exchange
- alveolar septa
- decreases
425
______ is characterized by chronic airway obstruction, inflammation and increased responsiveness which leads to exaggerated bronchoconstriction
asthma
426
what is asthma initiated by?
formation of antigen/ antibody complexes on cell membranes
427
in asthma, what two substances do mast cells release and what are their effects?
- histamine and SRS
- smooth muscle contraction of bronchioles and vasodilation
428
in asthma, what two substances are released by eosinophils to counteract effects of histamine?
histaminase and eosinophil derived inhibitor
