Histology Flashcards
Week 1 (102 cards)
1
Q
Where is the most common NTD?
A
ant and/or post neuropore
2
Q
What are NTD associated with during conception and early pregnancy?
A
low maternal folate (vit. B)
3
Q
Cranial NTD including brain.
A
meningoencephalocele
4
Q
Cranial NTD with only a cranium bifida
A
meningocele
5
Q
Cranial NTD with part of the ventricle and brain.
A
meningohydroencephalocele
6
Q
Spina bifida occulta
A
tuft of hair; unfused neural arch
7
Q
Spina bifida cystic w/ meningocele
A
CSF protudes
8
Q
Spina bifida cystic with meningomyelocele
A
displaced spinal cord
9
Q
Spina bifida cystic with myeloschisis
A
open spinal cord
10
Q
Meroencephaly (anencephaly)
A
no brain, not compatible with life
11
Q
Craniorachischisis
A
NTD when the entire neural tube doesnt form
12
Q
Iniencephaly
A
cervicle vertebrae don’t develop
13
Q
True nerves
A
CN 3-12
14
Q
CNs that are tracts of the CNS/1st order afferent neurons; where are their cell bodies located?
A
CN 1 and 2; in olfactory epithelium and retina respectively
15
Q
All sypathetic ganglion are derive from what?
A
neural crest cells
16
Q
What zone is formed when the marginal and ventricular zone migrate out?
A
intermediate zone
17
Q
What does the spinal cord sensory nuclei derive from?
A
alar plate (column)
18
Q
What does the lower motor nuclei/gray matter derive from?
A
basal plate (column)
19
Q
What does the ependyma derive from?
A
ventricular zone
20
Q
What is the ependyma?
A
lining of the central canal
21
Q
The spinal cord extends further or shorter on the vertebral column in an adult compared to a neonate?
A
shorter
22
Q
This syndrome causes tension on the spinal cord and nerves, accompanies spina bifida and can present with pain in back and LE, numbness/paresthesia, weakenss and bowel and bladder issues.
A
tethered cord syndrome
23
Q
What primary and secondary vesicle does the cerebral hemiphseres and lateral ventricles derive from?
A
forebrain (prosencephalon); telencephalon
24
Q
What primary and secondary vesicle does the thalami derive from?
A
forebrain (proencephalon); diencephalon
25
What primary and secondary vesicle does the midbrain and aquaduct derive from?
midbrain (mesencephalon) for both
26
What primary and secondary vesicle does the pons, cerebellum and upper part of 4th ventricle derive from?
hindbrain (rhombencephalon); metencephalon
27
What primary and secondary vesicle does the medulla derive from?
hindbrain (rhombencephalon); myelencephalon
28
What is the upper part of the 4th vent. associated with?
pons
29
What is the lower part of the 4th vent. associated with?
medulla
30
What wall is the 3rd ventricle associated with?
cerebral hemisphere
31
What are the 3 primary vesicles?
forebrain (prosencephalon), midbrain (mesencephalon), hindbrain (rhombencephalon)
32
What does the foramen of luschka and megendie derive from?
met- and myelencephalon (rhombencephalon)
33
What does the interventricular foramen derive from?
telencephalon
34
Congenital anomaly that is the enlargemnt of the ventricular system and thinning of cerebral lobes that has symptoms of enlarged neurocranium, thinning calvaria and mental deficiencies
hydroencephaly
35
Non-communicating hydroencephaly
obstructive
36
Communicating hydroencephaly
non-obstructive
37
What is the congenital anomaly that involves the cerebellum herniating through the foramen magnum?
chiari malformation
38
Headache and neck pain, hearing and balance problems, loss of coordination and syringomyelia and/or syringobulbia are manifestations of what anomaly?
chiari malformation
39
Syringobulbia/myelia
fluid filled cavities in the brain/spinal cord respectively
40
Clinical manifestations include macrocephaly, delayed motor devo, and ataxia (loss of motor control)
Dandy Walker malformation
41
Dandy Walker malformation involves what malformations?
hyoplasia of verebellar vermis, cystic dilation of 4th ventricle and hydrocephaly
42
Microencephaly has what kind of structural abnormalities?
underdeveloped brain, large single ventricles in forebrain, redimentary development of corpus callosum, thalamus and forebrain structures,
43
What anomalie does not develop the septum pellucidum?
microencephaly and holoencephaly
44
A small neurocranium and severe mental deficiencies are clinical manifestations of what?
microencephaly
45
Failure of the prosencephalon to properly undergo cleavage is what anomaly?
holoprocephaly
46
What structural malformations does holoprocephaly involve?
large, single ventricle in forebrain, rudimentary development/absence of corpus callosum, thalamus and forebrain structures
47
What clinical manifestations does hypotelorism to cyclopia/synopthalmia, proboscis, cleft lips/palates and cognitive deficiencies describe?
holoproencephaly
48
hypotelorism
dec. in distance btwn 2 organs (eyes)
49
proboscis
mobile nose
50
cyclopia/synopthalmia
failure of the embryonic prosencephalon to properly divide the orbits of the eye into two cavities.
51
What are the 5 functions of astrocytes?
forms BBB, regulates interstitial fluid composition, support/organizes CNS, assists neuronal devo, replicates to occupy space of dying neurons
52
What are the 2 functions of ependymal cells?
line ventricles of brain and central canal and assists in production and circulation of CSF
53
What are the 2 functions of microglial cells?
phagocytic cells that move through CNS, protect CNS by engulfing infectious agents and other potential harmful substances
54
What are the 2 functions of oligodendrocytes?
myelinate and insulate CNS axons and allows faster AP propogation along axons in CNS
55
The cells that project from basket cells in the cerebellum are?
purkinje cells
56
What is the order of layers in the cerebellum?
(superficial) molecular layer>purkinje cell layer>granular>subcortical white matter (deep)
57
Mossy and climbing fibers are in what layer of the cerebellum?
subcortical white matter
58
What do mossy fibers synapse onto?
granule cells in the granular layer
59
What part of purkinje cells are associated with climbing fibers?
dendrites of perkinje cells
60
What do the external granular layer, ext. pyramidal layer and internal pyramidal layer of the cerebral cortex all have in common?
have pyramidal neurons
61
What are the layers of the cerebral cortex from superficial to deep?
molecular layer>ext. granular layer>ext. pyramidal layer>int. granular layer>internal pyramidal layer>multiform layer
62
What layer of the cerebral cortex are pyramidal neurons not located in? What are they most numerous in?
layer I; 2,3, 5
63
What does most of the output from the cerebral cortex?
axons of pyramidal neurons
64
Association fibers from pyramidal cells go where?
ipsilateral cerebral hemisphere
65
Callosal fibers of pyramidal neurons go where?
contralateral cerebral hemisphere
66
Projection fibers of the pyramidal neurons go where?
targets in the forebrain, brainstem, cerebellum and spinal cord
67
The most common type of neuron? Number of axons and dendrites?
multipolar; single, 2+
68
Where are multipolar neurons located?
all motor neurons of CNS and PNS, all CNS interneurons
69
What are the primary sensory neurons with the exception to the retina, olfactory epithelium and inner ear?
pseudounipolar
70
How many axons does a pseudounipolar have?
only one that bifurcates to extend to peripheral sensory targets and centrally to CNS
71
A bipolar neuron has how many axons and dendrites?
1 of each
72
Where are bipolar neurons?
retina, olfactory epithelium and inner ear; primary sensory neurons
73
How many axons and dendrites does a anaxonic neuron have?
no axon, many dendrites
74
AP of an anaxonic neuron and location
no AP, amacrine cells of retina
75
Most abundant glial cells
astrocytes
76
What type of astrocyte is in gray matter?
protoplasmic astrocytes
77
What type of astrocyte predominates in white matter?
fibrous astrocytes
78
What cells relate the ionic concentration around neurons esp. K+?
astrocytes
79
What cells support movemnet and locations of differentiating neurons during CNS development?
astrocytes
80
What cells cover capillary cells to modulate blood flow and help move nutrients, wastes and metabolites btwen neurons and capillaries?
astrocytes
81
What cells form the glial limiting membrane?
astrocytes
82
What is the glial limiting membrane?
lines the meninges at the external CNS surface
83
What fills tissue defects after CNS injury by proliferation that forms a scar?
astrocytes
84
What cell type forms the tela choroidea that gives rise to the choroid plexuses, projections of the tela choroidea and capillary tufts into ventricles that produces CSF?
ependyma cells
85
Where are glial cells derived from?
neuroepithelium of neural tube (except microglial cells)
86
What are PNS glial cells derived from?
neural crest
87
Function of satellite cells of PNS?
supportive, protective and insulating layer around cell bodies
88
Function of schwann cells (neurolemmacytes)
protect and insulate sheath around axons in PNS
89
What do schwann cells form?
myelinated and unmyelinated axons
90
Conduction is faster in what kind of axons?
myelinated
91
What is the space btwn neighboring schwann cells where the axolemma is exposed to the ECM?
nodes of Ranvier
92
Layer of nerves in PNS.
epineurium (each nerve)>perineurium (fasicles of bundles of axon fibers)>endoneurium (each fiber=axon and schwann cell)
93
What neuronal cells are in CN 5, 7, 8 and 9?
pseudounipolar cell bodies
94
What type of neurons are in the viscera?
multipolar
95
Organization of the spinal cord
peripheral white matter with ascending/descending tracts; internal gray matter- dorsal horn, anterior horn and lateral horn
96
Dorsal horn of gray matter in spinal cord
sensory
97
Anterior horn of gray matter in spinal cord
motor, exit to form ventral root
98
Lateral horn of gray matter in spinal cord function? Where is the lateral horn located?
thoracolumbar; in thoracolumnar (T1-L2/3) and sacral region (S2-3) pre-sympathetic and contributes to ventral root
99
Function of mossy fibers
coordinating smooth and controlled movement
100
Where do climbing fibers get their input?
inferior olivary nuclei
101
Function of climbing fibers
learning motor skills like riding a bike, fade away shot, etc.
102
The layers of the cerebral cortex act to facilitate what process?
decision making process
