HIV Flashcards

1
Q

What is Aids defined as ?

A

The outcome of chronic HIV infection and consequent depletion of CD4 cells.

Defined as CD4 count <200 cells/microL

or

the presence of any AIDS defining condition regardless of the CD4 count.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

According to the WHO, name some populations that are most at risk for HIV

A

Men who have sex with men
Transgender people
People who inject drugs
Sex workers
Heterosexuals
Healthcare workers – needlesticks (3 per 1000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is HIV trasnmitted?

A

Blood, semen, pre-seminal fluid, rectal fluids, vaginal fluids, and breast milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

____ type of T cell is most relevant to HIV/AIDs

A

CD4 helper T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why is it HIV hard to treat?

A

reverse transcriptase is error prone so the virus is constantly mutating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_____ are increased in blood smear of patients with HIV

A

monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the first stage of HIV known as?

A

acute retroviral syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some s/s of acute retroviral syndrome?

A

Nonspecific viral syndrome (fever, chills, diaphoresis, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, myalgias/arthralgias, cephalgia, fatigue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What PE should you do if you suspect HIV?

A

HEENT, lymph, abdomen, skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What labs should you order if you suspect HIV?

A

HIV testing, CBC, CMP, UA, Screen for additional STDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who should be tested for HIV?

A

Known or suspected sexual or hematologic exposure

Those with promiscuous sexual history (heterosexual or homosexual)

Known drug abuse, especially IVDU

Accidental needlestick

Pregnancy

Recent sexually transmitted infection

CDC recommends routine screening ages 13 - 64 years at least once in their lifetime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name some of the HIV tests?

A

Serum HIV enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

HIV rapid antibody test - screening test; 10-20 min

Serum Western Blot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F: All patients positive for HIV should be offered ART, regardless of their CD4 count

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How often should you check the CD4 count and HIV viral load?

A

Monitor CD4 counts every 3 - 6 months in patients taking ART consistently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the PrEP drug?

A

Truvada

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If an HIV positive women becomes pregnant, what things do you want to consider?

A

Initiation of ART if HIV positive

likely C-section delivery based on viral load

Avoidance of breastfeeding if HIV+

Start zidovudine (Retrovir)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the protocol if a healthcare worker is exposed to HIV?

A

HIV antibody testing and HIV viral load at baseline, 6 weeks, 3 months, and 6 months

ART ASAP and continued x 4 weeks
tenofovir 300mg plus emtricitabine 200mg (combo drug - Truvada) plus dolutegravir (Tivicay) or raltegravir (Isentress) = triple therapy*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

_____ is found in 5% of all HIV positive patients

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

80% of secondary syphilis rashes occur where?

A

on the palms and soles of the hands and feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the recommended vaccines that need to be up to date on a patient with HIV?

A

Pneumococcal vaccine
Inactivated influenza vaccine annually in season
Hepatitis A vaccine
Hepatitis B vaccine
Tdap vaccine
HPV vaccine for patients <45 years of age
Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Do not administer ____ vaccines to a HIV positive pt

A

LIVE vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the primary goal of ART?

A

suppression of HIV replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the recommended medication therapy schedule like?

A

Combination therapy with at least three medications from two different classes to avoid resistance → combination is termed HAART (highly-effective antiretroviral therapy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some classes of ART therapy?

A

Entry inhibitors
Fusion inhibitors
Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI)
Nucleoside and nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)
Integrase inhibitors
Protease inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
_____ was the first approved antiretroviral medication for HIV; often not well tolerated due to anemia
zidovudine/ZDV/AZT (Retrovir)
24
Nucleoside/Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor, what is a major complication?
peripheral neuropathy
25
What are some examples of Nucleoside/Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor?
(Truvada, Atripla, Stribild)
26
efavirenz (Sustiva) etravirine (Intelence) nevirapine (Viramune) rilpivirine (Edurant) doravirine (Pifeltro)
Name some examples of NON-NUCLEOSIDE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE INHIBITORS (NNRTIs
27
How do NON-NUCLEOSIDE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE INHIBITORS (NNRTIs) work? Are they well tolerated?
inhibit reverse transcriptase well tolerated
28
What class?
Protease inhibitors
29
What are some key points to know about protease inhibitors?
Suppress HIV replication Administered as combination therapy Metabolized by cytochrome P450 system → high potential for drug interaction Used to “boost” other regimens
30
____ function to block the entry of HIV into cells by blocking fusion to cell membrane or blocking receptors, Used as add-on therapy for patients with multidrug resistance
ENTRY/FUSION INHIBITORS
31
maraviroc (Selzentry) - CCR5 antagonist and enfuvirtide (Fuzeon) – Fusion Inhibitor Are both included in what class?
ENTRY/FUSION INHIBITORS
32
raltegravir (Isentress HD) cabotegravir (Vocabria) dolutegravir (Tivicay, Tivicay PD All fall in what category?
INTEGRASE STRAND TRANSFER INHIBITORS (INSTIs)
33
Slow HIV replication by blocking the HIV integrase enzyme needed for viral multiplication. Allow for more rapid decrease in viral load versus other regimens
Integrase Inhibitors
34
fostemsavir (Rukobia) What class?
Attachment Inhibitor
35
ibalizumab-uiyk (Trogarzo) What class?
Post-attachment Inhibitor:
36
lenacapavir (Sunlenca) What class?
Capsid Inhibitor
37
cobicistat (Tybost) What class?
Pharmacokinetic Enhancer
38
When do CD4 count and HIV viral load need to be monitored?
checked every 1-2 months after regimen initiation/change Every 3-6 months once stable
39
What is advanced HIV infection defined as ?
defined as CD4 count <50 cells/microL
40
What is AIDS defined as?
Defined as CD4 count <200 cells/microL or the presence of any AIDS defining condition regardless of the CD4 count.
41
Complaint of unpleasant taste or mouth dryness Pseudomembranous (removable white plaques) or erythematous (red friable plaques) in the mouth What am I?
MUCOCUTANEOUS CANDIDIASIS (oral thrush)
42
What is the treatment for MUCOCUTANEOUS CANDIDIASIS (oral thrush)?
clotrimazole 10 mg troches one PO 5 times a day x 14 days fluconazole 100 mg po daily x 3 - 7 days
43
What is a MUCOCUTANEOUS CANDIDIASIS - fungal rash caused by? What is the treatment?
Tinea cruris ketoconazole 2% cream bid clotrimazole 1% cream bid
44
ORAL HAIRY LEUKOPLAKIA is caused by _____
Epstein-Barr virus
45
White lesion on lateral aspect of the tongue that cannot be rubbed off Has corrugated appearance with fine or thick “hairy” projections What am I? What is the treatment?
ORAL HAIRY LEUKOPLAKIA No specific treatment - resolves with ART
46
What is the treatment for genital herpes?
Treated for 5 - 10 days with: acyclovir 400 mg po TID famciclovir 500 mg po BID valacyclovir 1000 mg po BID
47
Painful, vesicular lesions occurring along dermatome What am I? What is the treatment?
Herpes Zoster/Shingles Treated for 7 - 10 days with: famciclovir 500mg po tid valacyclovir 500mg po tid
48
What is a way to prevent HERPES ZOSTER / SHINGLES?
Consider live attenuated zoster vaccine - Zostavax (ZVL) or inactivated Shingrix (RZV) for patients >50 years old with CD4 count >200 mcL
49
Caused by a pox virus Seen in children, but common in HIV - infected adults Umbilicated fleshy papules Treated topically with liquid nitrogen What am I? What is the treatment?
MOLLUSCUM CONTAGIOSUM imiquimod (Aldara) topical - off label
50
_____ is the most common cause of pulmonary disease in HIV infected patients
COMMUNITY ACQUIRED PNEUMONIA (CAP)
51
COMMUNITY ACQUIRED PNEUMONIA (CAP) is caused by what 3 bacteria?
Pneumococcal pneumonia Haemophilus influenzae Pseudomonas aeruginosa
52
Fever, cough, dyspnea, hypoxemia Classic CXR findings - diffuse or perihilar infiltrates Most common opportunistic infection with AIDS Fungal in origin AIDS-defining condition What am I?
PNEUMOCYSTIS JIROVECI PNEUMONIA
53
How do you diagnose PNEUMOCYSTIS JIROVECI PNEUMONIA?
Dx through Wright-Giemsa stain of sputum, or direct fluorescence antibody testing of sputum Serum lactate dehydrogenase elevated in 95%; positive serum beta-glucan test
54
What is the treatment for PNEUMOCYSTIS JIROVECI PNEUMONIA?
Rx: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole DS (Bactrim DS) po TID x 21 days + prednisone 80 mg taper x 21 days Prophylaxis started for CD4 count <200 cells/mcL
55
Common AIDS complication / AIDS-defining condition Typically caused by C. albicans Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing Commonly diagnosed via EGD What am I? What is the treatment?
ESOPHAGEAL CANDIDIASIS fluconazole 100 - 200 mg po qd x 14 - 21 days
56
Name some aids defining conditions?
PNEUMOCYSTIS JIROVECI PNEUMONIA ESOPHAGEAL CANDIDIASIS KAPOSI’S SARCOMA
57
Purplish, non-blanching lesions, either papular or nodular Caused by _____ sarcoma associated herpesvirus, also known as HHV8 Lesions appear anywhere - inspect for occult lesions May flare as part of Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome What am I? What is the treatment?
KAPOSI’S SARCOMA Resolve with effective ART
58
What are some treatments for wasting syndrome?
proper ART megestrol acetate (Megace – appetite stimulant) 80mg po QID, dronabinol (appetite stimulant / antiemetic) 2.5 - 5mg po BID,? medical cannabis anabolic steroids (testosterone)
59
What is the treatment for MYCOBACTERIUM AVIUM INFECTION? When should you treat a pt?
clarithromycin 500mg po bid plus ethambutol (EMB) 15mg/kg/day Treated for at least 12 months after which may be discontinued if CD4 counts have exceeded 100 cells/mcL for 6 months while on antiretroviral therapy Prophylaxis offered for all patients with CD4 count <50 cells/mcL (clarithromycin or azithromycin)
60
Encapsulated budding yeast found in soil and pigeon dung Spread by inhalation Starts as pulmonary nodules and/or infiltrates that spread to CNS Gram stain of CNS fluid with budding, encapsulated fungi What am I? What is the treatment?
CRYPTOCOCCAL MENINGITIS Treated with IV liposomal amphotericin B with PO flucytosine (Ancobon - antifungal), followed by PO fluconazole to complete one year of therapy
61
Most common retinal infection in AIDS patients Retinal perivascular hemorrhages and white fluffy exudates Rapidly progressive visual loss with involvement of optic nerve or retinal detachment What am I? What is the treatment?
CYTOMEGALOVIRUS RETINITIS IV ganciclovir x 7 - 10 days plus valganciclovir 900 mg po BID x 21 days, then 900 mg/day maintenance
62
Causes CNS disease Most common space-occupying lesion in HIV affected patients Headache, focal neurologic deficits, altered mental status, seizures Multiple contrast-enhancing lesions on CT scan What am I? What is another way to diagnose? What is the treatment?
TOXOPLASMOSIS Most have positive Toxoplasma serologic testing (may not mean active disease) Treated with pyrimethamine (anti-parasitic) combined with sulfadiazine (antibiotic) and leucovorin (folic acid)
63
You should test for ______ at all CD4 counts
Tuberculosis
64
Need to test for _____ at a CD4 count at or below 250
Coccidiomycosis: Annual IgG and IgM serologic screening Prophylactic fluconazole if positive until CD4 > 250 for > 6 months
65
Need to test for _____ at a CD4 count at or below 200
Pneumocystis TMP-SMX in all patients for prophylaxis Discontinue when CD4 > 200
66
Need to test for _____ at a CD4 count at or below 150
Histoplasmosis
67
Need to test for _____ at a CD4 count at or below 100
Toxoplasmosis: Bactrim Cryptococcus
68
Need to test for _____ at a CD4 count at or below 50
Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC): check blood cultures treat with azithromycin