Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Infectious Disease > Intro > Flashcards

Intro Flashcards

1
Q

WBC tend to be ____ in the presence of an infection

A

elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the relative proportions of the WBC

A
  • Neutrophils (roughly 60 – 70%)
  • Lymphocytes (roughly 20 – 30%)
  • Monocytes (approximately 1 – 6%)
  • Eosinophils (approximately 1 – 3%)
  • Basophils (less than 1%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

____ are the most abundant WBC and act in defense in bacterial and fungal infections as well in times of physiologic stress

A

neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_____ Primary defense for viral infections
Elevations also in leukemias and lymphomas

A

Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_____ are the most common WBC in the lymph

A

lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_____ are the largest WBC, becomes macrophages and are elevating in late or chronic infections

A

monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

____ defense mechanism in allergic reactions and parasitic infections

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_____ defense in hypersensitivity reactions and release inflammatory mediators

A

basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does cloudy/turbid urine indicate?

A

pyuria (pus or WBC present in the urine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does an elevated leukocyte esterase in a urine dipstick analysis indicate?

A

increased WBC in urine, aka infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Nitrites are produced by _____ bacteria

A

gram - bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Wet prep is best to show ___ and _____

A

Clue cells (Bacterial Vaginosis)

Protozoans (Trichomonas)

looking for bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

KOH prep is best to show ___ cells

A

fungal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What will a clue cell look like under a microscope?

A

clue cells are epithelial cells of the vagina that get their distinctive stippled appearance by being covered with bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

______ is used when collecting fluid in which opening pressure is needed

A

Lateral decubitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

_____ can be used if opening pressure isn’t needed

A

Upright position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many tubes do you collect in a CSF? What goes in each?

A
  1. Cell Count and differential
  2. Glucose and protein levels
  3. Gram stain, C&S
  4. Other
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does increased CSF pressure indicate? decreased?

A

Increased pressure:
Infection, Tumors, Intracranial bleed

Decreased pressure:
Dehydration, CSF Leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does cloudy/turbed CSF fluid indicate?

A

infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does xanthrochromia CSF fluid indicate?

A

bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the normal viscosity for CSF fluid? What does thick mean?

A

same as water

infection or malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does decreased glucose in the CSF mean?

A

infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is normal for proteins and CSF?

A

normal is NONE to trace proteins

elevated proteins means infection, malignancy or autoimmune disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What three additional CSF tests will be elevated in a bacterial infection?

A

lactic acid

lactate dehydrogenase

c-reactive protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are 3 contraindications for a lumbar puncture?
26
When would you order a brain CT before a lumbar puncture?
coma without cause seizure focal neurologic signs immunosuppression
27
When would you order a brain MRI before a lumbar puncture?
28
Looking at normal pleural fluid under a microscope, what would you expect to find?
normal pleural fluid has small numbers of WBCs with no RBCs or microorganisms.
29
What is transudate?
An imbalance between the pressure within blood vessels (which drives fluid out) and the amount of protein in blood (which keeps fluid in), resulting in an abnormal accumulation of fluid. (talking about pleural fluid)
30
What is exudate caused by?
Caused by injury or inflammation of the pleura resulting in pleural effusion.
31
____ and ____ are the two most frequent causes of transudate
CHF or cirrhosis
32
What 3 things are normal to find in transudate?
clear fluid low protein/albumin/LDH cell count = few
33
What are some etiologies of exudate?
infectious diseases, bleeding, inflammatory conditions, malignancies, others
34
What 3 things are normal to find in exudate?
fluid may appear cloudy high protein/albumin/LDH cell count is increased
35
What does Light's criteria signify? What are the 3 things?
Assists in the classification of pleural fluid being transudative or exudative According to Light's criteria, pleural effusion is likely exudative if at least one of the following exists Pleural fluid protein:serum protein ratio >0.5 Pleural fluid LDH:serum LDH ratio >0.6 Pleural fluid LDH is >0.6 or >⅔ times the normal upper limit for serum LDH
36
What does having a milky appearance to pleural fluid indicate?
to lymphatic system involvement
37
Name some things you can test pleural fluid for
Glucose—typically about the same as blood glucose – ↓ in infection and if additional ↓ pH = malignancy Lactate levels can ↑ with infectious pleuritis Amylase levels ↑ with pancreatitis, esophageal rupture, or malignancy. TG levels ↑ with lymphatic system involvement. Tumor markers ↑ with some cancers
38
What are some complications of pericardiocentesis?
Myocardial perforation Bleeding Pneumothorax Arrhythmia Acute pulmonary edema
39
What is the water bottle sign?
40
What is a paracentesis used for?
Used to help diagnose the cause of peritonitis or ascites (peritoneal fluid accumulation)
41
What does milk-coloured (chylous) paracentesis fluid indicate?
malignant tumor, lymphoma, TB, parasitic infection, hepatic cirrhosis
42
What does cloudy/turbid paracentesis fluid indicate?
peritonitis, primary bacterial infection, perforated bowel, appendicitis, pancreatitis, strangulated or infarcted bowel
43
What does string-like viscosity of joint fluid indicate?
normal
44
What does increased viscosity of joint fluid indicate?
septic arthritis
45
What does decreased viscosity of joint fluid indicate?
inflammation
46
A chest x-ray is used to screen the lungs for ????
Consolidation Infiltrates Cavitations Nodules Effusions
47
_____ utilize radiation to produce images. Better for (bone/soft tissue)
CT Scan (computed tomography bone
48
_____ uses powerful magnetic fields and radio frequency pulses to produce images. Better for (bone/soft tissue)
MRI soft tissue
49
_____ retains the dye in a gram stain
peptidoglycan
50
What is the process for a grain stain? short version at the end
Slide is stained with crystal violet dye - turning all cells purple Gram’s iodine solution - causes dye to adhere more strongly to cell wall Decolorization with ethyl alcohol and acetone G+ cells - thick cell walls which retain the dye = stay purple G- cells - thin cell walls, decolorizer easily penetrates and washes away dye Counterstain with safranin red - turns G - pinkish red, while G+ remain purple --------------- purple dye is applied iodine is applied alcohol wash the counterstain, safranin is applied Gram + cells stay purple and gram - cells are pinkish red
51
Name the gram + cocci clusters
52
Name the gram + cocci chains
53
Name the gram + rods
54
Name the gram - cocci
55
name some gram - rods
56
Name some reasons your culture could be negative even if the patient does have an infection
Pathogen may not be present in sufficient quantity in the sample collected to be detected Symptoms could be due to a viral infection Patient could have been on previous antibiotics
57
When ordering blood cultures, what is the protocol?
Typically order TWO or more samples from TWO locations
58
How do you interpret blood culture results?
If both are positive for same organism = POSITIVE Culture If one is (+) and one is (-) = possible contamination; may require re-testing If both are negative for microorganisms (Reported as NO GROWTH) = NEGATIVE Culture
59
____ is the most common pathogen on a urine culture
E. coli
60
What is considered a positive urine culture?
Positive culture is ≥ 100,000 colonies of a single bacteria
61
What does a rust colored sputum culture indicate?
strep pneu
62
What does a yellowish/green sputum culture indicate?
H. influenzae
63
What does a green sputum culture indicate?
pseudomonas
64
What does a red, currant jelly sputum culture indicate?
klebsiella
65
What does a bloody sputum culture indicate?
tuberculosis
66
What does a foul smelling sputum culture indicate?
anaerobes
67
What does a thin/scant sticky sputum culture indicate?
atypicals
68
________, ______ and _____ do not grow on a basic sputum culture media
Atypical bacteria, mycobacterium (TB), and fungal infections
69
What is the Centor criteria?
70
What is MIC?
Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) the lowest concentration of drug that inhibits the growth of the organism
71
For sensitivity testing, you want the bacteria to be _____ to the abx in question at a (low/high) number
Susceptibility at the lowest MIC, (S with low number next to it)

Infectious Disease (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions