HM MAN ch 14: physical examinations Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

which chapter of the MANMED discusses physicals?

A

chapter 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the four types of routine physical examinations?

A
  1. entrance
  2. PHA
  3. Reenlistment
  4. Separation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Entrance physical examination results are documented on what two forms?

A

DD 2807 report of medical examination

DD 2808 report of medical history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how frequent must PHAs be performed?

A

annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the purpose of a reenlistment examination?

A

to ensure no new medial conditions have developed or previously diagnosed conditions have materially changed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

is a complete medical examination required if there is a valid examination in the service member’s health record for a reenlistment exam?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Reenlistment examination results are documented on what two forms?

A

DD 2807 report of medical examination

DD 2808 report of medical history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when is a PHA considered complete?

A

When the member has met all individual medical requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Separation examinations are required for personnel separating from the Navy, the Marine Corps, and Activated reservist serving __ consecutive days or greater on active duty.

A

31

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A thorough physical examination must be completed not less that ___ days form the last day served on active duty for a separation exam.

A

180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what documents are used for a MEB or PEB member separation from the Navy or Marines?

A

the MEB or PEB documents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

for service members found “unfit for continued naval service” what will be generated stating member found untif and processed for separation?

A

SF 600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are two situations in which a PA or Nurse Practisioner may perform a special duty exam?

A

if a MO or DOD physician is not available

workload is too great

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the single most important factor in determining fitness for duty in today’s Navy?

A

medical evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Processing time should not exceed __ working days to report TLD.

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what form is used to complete separation exams?

A

DD 2697

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what form is used to complete suitability screening for members that have orders for overseas and remote duty locations.

A

NAVMED 1300/1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the most important test of eye function?

A

visual acuity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the three accepted methods for testing visual acuity?

A
  1. snellen chart
  2. jaeger cards
  3. armed forces vision tester (AFVT)
20
Q

what is the first step in testing for visual acuity ?

A

find out if the PT wears corrective eyewear

21
Q

what blocks are used on the 2808 for visual acuity?

A

blocks 61 and 63

22
Q

when hanging the snellen chart on the wall ensure that the 20/20 line is __ inches from the floor.

23
Q

direct the examinees to stand how far away from a snellen chart?

24
Q

record the smallest line read on the snellen chart from the 20 foot distance on which block of the 2808?

25
when the AFVT is not available what test should be used to asses near vision?
Jaeger cards
26
how many paragraphs are on each jaeger card?
6
27
how is the smallest paragraph labeled on the jaeger cards?
J-1
28
how is the largest printed paragraph labeled on the Jaeger cards?
J-6
29
when using the Jaeger cards the PT must hold the card at what distance?
14-16 inches
30
what block on the 2808 is used to record near vision?
block 63
31
how should block 63 of the 2808 be recorded?
the smallest type that can be comfortably read and record the distance of the block J-2 at 14 inches
32
True or false: | the MANMED requires that all applicants for the naval service recieve a color vision test.
true
33
what are the two color vision test that the Navy uses?
1. Farnsworth Lantern test (FALANT) | 2. Pseudoisochromatic plates (PIP)
34
what is the preferred color vision test?
FALANT
35
what is the purpose of the farnsworth lantern test?
to evaluate color perception
36
what are the possible colors visible on thee FALANT test?
red green white
37
during the FALANT test the examinee is asked to identify the color combinations from top to bottom at what distance.
8 feet
38
A passing FALANT score is obtained by correctly identifying __ out of __ presentations of the first test series.
9 out of 9
39
on the second series of the FALANT test a passing score is obtained by correctly identifying what thee presentations?
16, 17, or 18
40
what are the two test available for the PIP?
18 plate test and the 15 plate test
41
when administering the PIP exam, hold the plates __ inches from the examinee.
30 inches
42
when administering the PIP exam allow __ seconds for the idetification of each plate.
2 seconds
43
can the examinee touch the plates during the PIP test?
no
44
what is considered passing on the PIP exam?
correctly identifying 12,13, or 14 out of 14 plates or 16, 17, or 18 out of 18 plates
45
an audiogram is a record of ___ an individual has for various sound frequencies.
hearing thresholds
46
all audiometric tracing or reading are recorded on what blocks of the DD 2808?
71a and 71b