HM MAN ch 18: pharmacy Flashcards
(246 cards)
1
Q
what is the branch of pharmacology dealing with biological, biochemical, and economic features of natural medications and their constituents?
A
pharmcognosy
2
Q
what is the branch of pharmacology dealing with the preparation, dispensing, and proper use of medications?
A
pharmacy
3
Q
what is the study of the dosages of medicines and medications?
A
posology
4
Q
what is the study of the action or effects of medications on living organisms?
A
pharmacodynamics
5
Q
what is the study of the uses of medications in the treatment of disease?
A
pharmacotherapeutics
6
Q
what is the study of poisons, their actions, their detection, and the treatment of the conditions produced by them?
A
toxicology
7
Q
what is the science of treating disease by any method that will relieve pain, treat or cure diseases and infections, or prolong life?
A
therapeutics
8
Q
what text sets standards for the quality, purity, strength, and consistency and provides standards for medications of therapeutic usefulness and pharmaceutical necessity?
A
USP-NF
United States Pharmacopeia and National formulary
9
Q
What text is a comprehensive medication information reference that is organized by therapeutic medication class?
A
Drug Facts and comparisons
10
Q
Which publication is used as a reference for in-depth information on pharmaceutical products by healthcare providers and pharmacy personnel?
A
Drug facts and comparisons
11
Q
What is an easy to use reference for clinicians and healthcare providers seeking quick and concise medication information?
A
Drug information handbook
12
Q
what is the most widely used text/reference in American pharmacies?
A
Remington: the science and practice of pharmacy
13
Q
the Remington is a textbook of _____, ____, and ____.
A
pharmacology
toxicology
therapeutics
14
Q
what text is also known as the “blue bible” of pharmacology?
A
the Remington
15
Q
the amount of medication to be administered is referred to as the what?
A
dose
16
Q
the doses given in the USP-NF are average therapeutic doses and are known as what?
A
“usual adult doses”
17
Q
____ is a term applying to the range between the minimum and maximum amounts of a given medication required to produce the desired effect.
A
dosage range
18
Q
___ is the least amount of medication required to produce a therapeutic effect.
A
minimum dose
19
Q
___ is the largest amount of medication that can be given without reaching the toxic effect.
A
maximum dose
20
Q
___ is the least amount of medication that will produce symptoms of poisoning.
A
toxic dose
21
Q
___ is referred to as the normal adult dose, the usual dose, or average dose.
A
therapeutic dose
22
Q
___ is the amount of medication needed to produce the desired therapeutic effect.
A
therapeutic dose
23
Q
the therapeutic dose is calculated on an average adult ____ (male/female) of ___ years in age who weighs approximately ___ pounds.
A
male
24
150
24
Q
__ is the least amount of medication that can produce death.
A
minimum lethal dose
25
what is the most common factor that influences the amount of medication to be given?
age
26
what is young's rule?
(age in years/age in years +12) X adult dose= child's dose
27
In the calculation of dosages, what has a more direct bearing on the dose than any other factor?
weight
28
what is Clark's rule?
(weight in pounds/150) X adult dose= child's dose
29
what are 9 factors that influence dosages of medications?
```
age
weight
sex
race
occupation
habitual use
time of administration
frequency of administration
mode of administration
```
30
what is the most common route of administration of medication?
oral
31
What are two medication administration methods that are closely associated with oral administration?
sublingual and buccal
32
define parenteral medications.
medications that are introduced by injection
33
medications that are introduced by injection are called what
Parenteral
34
Parenteral solutions are examined at least three times at the activity at which they are ultimately used. They are:
upon receiving the solution
periodically while in storage
immediately preceding use
35
what are the five methods of parenteral administration?
```
subcutaneous
intradermal
intramuscular
intravenous
intrathecal or intraspinal
```
36
______ is the medication injected just below the skin's cutaneous layers
subcutaneous
37
_______ is the medication injected within the dermis layer of the skin.
intradermal
38
_______ is the medication injected into the muscle.
intramuscular
39
_______ is the medication introduced directly into the vein.
intravenous
40
what is the route of parenteral administration that provides the most rapid onset of action?
Intravenous
41
_____ is the medication introduced into the subarachnoid space of the spinal column.
intrathecal or intraspinal
42
intrathecal or intraspinal is the medication introduced into the _____ space of the spinal column.
subarachnoid
43
____ is the means of introducing medication through the respiratory system in the form of a gas, vapor, or powder.
inhalation
44
What are the three major types of inhalation routes?
vaporization
gas inhalation
nebulization
45
what is the process by which a medication is changed from a liquid or solid to a gas or vapor by the use of heat?
vaporization
46
which type of inhalation type is almost entirely restricted to anesthesia?
gas inhalation
47
What is the process by which a medication is converted into a fine spray by the use of compressed gas?
nebulization
48
what medication route is applied to a surface area of the body?
topical
49
Topically applied medications serve what two purposes?
local effect
| systemic effect
50
What medication route is preferred to the oral route when there is danger of vomiting or when the PT is unconscious, uncooperative, or mentally incapable?
rectal
51
what are the six PT rights?
```
right Patient
right mediation
right dose
right route
right time
right documentation
```
52
medications are classified according to set criteria and fall into three specific areas. these areas are:
general
chemical
therapeutic
53
Which of the three medication classification group medications according to their source? (animal, vegetable, or mineral in origin)
general
54
Medication normally have three names. those three names are:
chemical name
generic name
brand name
55
what type of medication name is often derived from the chemical name?
generic name
56
what type of medication name is a proprietary name given by the manufacturer?
brand name
57
what class of medication cause a shrinkage of the skin and mucous membranes, and is mainly used to stop seepage, weeping, or discharge from mucous membranes?
astringents
58
What astringent medication is used as a wet to dry dressing for the relief of inflammatory conditions of the skin, such as athlete's foot, poison ivy, swelling, eternal otitis, bruises and insect bites?
aluminum acetate solution
| burrow's solution, domeboro
59
What astringent medication is used to treat various skin afflictions in the same way as aluminm acetate. it should be applied to blistered, raw, r oozing areas of the skin?
calamine, zinc oxide, glycerin, and bentonite magma in calcium hydroxide.
(calamine lotion)
60
What class of medication is aluminum acetate solution?
astringent
61
what class of medication is calamine lotion?
astringent
62
What class of medications are bland or fatty substances that may b applied to the skin to make it more pliable and soft?
emollients
63
what is an excellent emollient with a pleasant odor?
theobroma oil
| cocoa butter
64
what is ideal for the treatment of chapped skin and lips, cracked nipples, or minor irritated or abraded skin areas?
theobroma oil
| cocoa butter
65
What is a good emollient that provides a highly occlusive, protective barrier? when used as an ointment base, it may not release some drugs.
petrolatum
| petroleum jelly
66
What is a white petrolatum containing approximately 20% zinc oxide powder? it is used as an emollient with slightly astringent properties.
zinc oxide
67
what class of medications are commonly used in the symptomatic treatment of the common cold or bronchitis?
expectorants and antitussives
68
what type of medication are more accurately known as bronchomucotropic agents? these agents assist in the removal of secretions or exudates from the trachea, bronchi, or lungs.
expectorants
69
what class of medication are agents that inhibit or suppress the act of coughing.
antitussives
70
what drug combination may be useful in symptomatic relief of dry, nonproductive cough, and in the presence of mucous in the respiratory tract?
Guaifenesin and dextromethorphan
| Robitussin DM
71
____ is a synthetic non-narcotic derivative of codeine that acts as an antitussive. it is used to control non productive coughs by soothing minor throat and bronchial irritations.
Dextromethorphan
72
What drug combination are combined to relieve the symptoms of the common cold?
Guaifenesin and codeine phosphate
| Robitussin AC
73
What class of medication is often combined with antihistamines, antitussives, and expectorants to relieve symptoms of colds, allergies, and sinusitis?
nasal decongestants
74
what medication is indicated for the symptomatic relief of nasal congestion due to the common cold, hay fever, or other upper respiratory allergies?
```
pseudoephedrine hydrochloride
(Sudafed)
```
75
What medication combination are combined for the symptomatic relief of nasal congestion and cough due to the common cold, hay fever, or other respiratory allergies
pseudoephedrine and Guaifenesin
| Mucinex D
76
what is the most common side effect of antihistamines?
may cause drowsiness
77
what medication combination includes a nasal decongestant and an antihistamine combination?
Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride and triprolidine hydrochloride
| Actifed
78
What medication is given for active and prophylactic treatment of motion sickness, as a nighttime sleep aid, and for the symptomatic relief of urticarial, allergic rhinitis, and other allergic conditions?
diphenhydramine HCL
| Benadryl
79
What mediation is used for the symptomatic treatment of urticarial and other allergic conditions?
chlorpheniramine maleate
| chlor-Trimeton
80
What medication is given to prevent and treat nausea, vomiting , and dizziness of motion sickness? It has a longer duration of action than diphenhydramine HCL
meclizine HCL
| Antivert, Bonine
81
What medication is similar to other antihistamines, the greater usefulness is the prevention and treatment of motion sickness? it may also be used to treat nausea and vomiting associated with radiation poisoning.
dimenhydrinate
| Dramamine
82
What class of medication block histamines that cause an ncrease f gastric acid secretion in the stomach?
Histamine H2 receptor antagonist
83
what medication is used for the short term treatment and maintenance of active duodenal and benign gastric ulcers
cimetidine
| Tagamet
84
What medication is like cimetidine and is used for short term treatment and maintenance in active duodenal and benign gastric ulcers to promote healing of duodenal ulcers?
it is used to treat GERD
ranitidine
| zantac
85
What class of medication are used to counteract hyperacidity in the stomach?
antacids
86
what medication is used for the symptomatic relief of upset stomach associated with hyperacidity, treatment and maintenance of duodenal ulcers, and used to reduce phosphate absorption in PTs with chronic renal failure?
magnesium HCL
| milk of magnesia USP
87
Prolonged use of what medication may result in kidney stones?
magnesium HCL
| milk of magnesia USP
88
Magnesium HCL may cause ___, and have what type of an effect?
kidney stones
| laxative effect
89
What medication is used to manage peptic ulcers, gastritis, and gastric hyperacidity?
aluminum hydroxide gel
| Amphojel
90
what is the major advantage of aluminum hydroxide gel however it may cause what?
advantage is that there is no systemic alkalosis produced
| disadvantage is that it may cause constipation
91
what medication combination coats the stomach lining and neutralizes gastric acid?
it is less constipating than aluminum hydroxide alone.
alumina and magnesia oral suspension
| Maalox
92
What class of medications suppress the growth of microorganisms?
antiseptics
93
What class of medication kills susceptible organisms?
germicides
94
What class of medication are used on inanimate objects and are primarily germicidal in their action?
disinfectants
95
historically, one of the first antiseptic agents was what?
phenl
| carbolic acid
96
What is the standard by which all other antiseptic, disinfectant, and germicidal agents are measured in effectiveness?
phenol
| carbolic acid
97
Phenol is inactivated by what?
alcohol
98
What medication is used externally to destroy bacteria, fungi, viruses, protozoa, and yeasts?
povidone-iodine
99
What medication is used in a 70% solution as a skin antiseptic and has volatile as well as a drying effect on the skin?
isopropyl alcohol
100
what bacteriostatic cleansing agent is effective against gram positive organisms?
hexachlorophene
101
What medication is a neurotoxin agent and must not be used on premature infants, denuded skin, burns, or mucous membranes?
hexahlorophene
102
What medication in an eye drop form is used to prevent gonorrheal ophthalmia in newborns?
silver nitrate
103
what is the most common side effect of silver nitrate?
the skin turns black where the nitrate comes in contact with it.
104
what was the first effective chemotherapeutic agents to be available in safe therapeutic dosage ranges?
sulfonamides
105
_____ are synthetically produced and are effective against what types of organisms
both grams stain positive and negative.
106
What medication is indicated to treat urinary tract infections and acute otitis media?
sulfisoxazole
| gantrisin
107
What medication combination is used to treat UTIs and acute otitis media?
trimethoprim and sufamethoxazole
108
What medication is an ophthalmic bacteriostatic for the treatment of conjunctivitis, corneal ulcer, and other superficial ocular infections?
sulfacetamide sodium
109
what is a topical antimicrobial agent used to treat second and third degree burns to prevent wounds sepsis?
silver sulfadiazide
110
What is one of the most important antibiotics?
PCN
111
what is PCN derived from?
a number of penicillium molds commonly found on breads and fruits
112
What medication is indicated for susceptible infections such as meningococcal meningitis, anthrax, and gonorrhea?
PCN G aqueous
| can only be used IV
113
what medication is indicated for conditions such as syphilis and upper respiratory tract infections caused by streptococcal group a bacteria?
PCN G benzathine
114
Which PCN G has a longer duration of action than most of the other PCNs?
PCN G Procaine
115
What medication is used to treat conditions such as URIs, otitis media, sinusitis, bacterial endocarditis, and mild staphylococcal infection of skin and soft tissue?
PCN V potassium
116
What medication is used to treat infections caused by PCN G resistant staphylococci?
dicloxacillin sodium
| dynapen
117
what medication is use to treat shigella, salmonella, E-coli, and gonorrhea?
ampicillin
118
Some patients allergic to PCN may also be allergic to what type of medication?
CEPHALOSPORINS
119
The cephalosporins are generally divided into how many generations?
three
120
what medication is used preoperatively to reduce the chance of certain infections following surgical procedures?
cefazolin sodium
121
What medication is indicated for the treatment of infection of the respiratory tract, otitis media, skin and sin structures, and genitourinary system?
cephalexin
| Keflex
122
What is considered to be the first truly broad-spectrum antibiotics?
tetracyclines
123
What year were tetracyclines introduced?
1948
124
what is the mode of action for tetracyclines?
the blocking of the formation of polpypeptides used in protein synthesis
125
True of False:
| Allergic reactions to tetracyclines is rare.
true
126
Administration of tetracyclines to children and pregnant women is not indicated because________.
it may produce discoloration of the teeth and depress bone marrow growth.
127
what is the major hazard of tetracycline therapy?
overgrowth of resistant organisms, especially candida and staphylococci.
128
Tetracyclines should not be administered with what? (4)
milk
milk products
antacids
iron preparations
129
What is used to treat infections caused by rickettsiae (such as rocky mountain spotted fever and typhus fever?
tetracycline hydrochloride
| achromycin, sumycin
130
What medication can be used for malaria prophylaxis?
doxycycline
131
What is one of the drugs of choice when penicillin is contraindicated?
erythromycin
132
what class of medication is erythromycin?
macrolides
133
what class of medication is doxycycline?
tetracycline
134
what is used to treat susceptible anaerobic organism?
Clindamycin
135
clindamycin has often been associated with what severe side effects?
severe colitis and profuse diarrhea
136
what class of medication is clindamycin?
macrolides
137
what medication is indicated in potentially life threatening infections not treatable with other effective, less toxic antimicrobials, including PCN?
vancomycin
138
what class of medication is vancomycin?
macrolides
139
What class of medication is azithromycin?
macrolides
140
_____ are antibiotics that constituting a large group of bacteriostatic agents that inhibit protein synthesis/
macrolides
141
what medication is used for community acquired pneumonia, otits media, infections of the skin structure, sexually transmitted diseases, and bacterial sinusitis?
azithromycin
142
____ are agents that inhibit or suppress the growth systems of fungi, dermatophytes, or candida.
antifungals
143
what is used to treat pediculosis capitis (head lice), and phthirus pubis (crab lice)?
permethrin
144
what class of medication is permetherin?
antiparasitic
145
What medication is effective in treating amebiasis?
metronidazole
| flagyl
146
PTs should be warned about combining flagyl and alcohol, as it can produce what kind of side effects?
violent side effects
147
what is effective in treating infestations of hookworm, roundworm, pinworm, and whipworm?
```
pyrantel pamoate
(antiminth)
```
148
What are the two antimalarial medicaitons?
chloroquine
| primaquine
149
what is the drug of choice in treating acute malarial attackes?
chloroquine
150
what is the drug of choice for the prevention or relapse of malaria caused by P. vivax and P. Ovale?
primaquine
151
primaquine is contraindicated in personnel with what?
G-6-PD
152
what is an emollient laxative used to lubricate the fecal mass?
mineral oil
153
what is used for the treatment of chronic constipation?
lactulose
154
what is relatively nontoxic irritant cathartic that reflexively stimulates the colon on contact?
bisacodyl
| dulcolax
155
bisacodyl (dulcolax) usually produces softly formed stools in how many hours and is normally taken when?
6-12 hours
| bedtime
156
What is a saline irritant laxative that also inhibits the absorption of water from the intestines?
magnesium citrate
157
what is the preferred laxative by radiology departments for use prior to special x-rays?
magnesium citrate
158
what laxative works by absorbing water?
psyllium
159
what is a stool softener that promotes water retention in the fecal mass?
ducosate calcium
| surfak
160
What type of medication increase the rate of urine formation?
diuretics
161
What medication is used for edema associated with CHF, and other edematous conditions?
hydrochlrothiazide
| esidrix, oretic
162
what is a potent diuretic used to treat edema associated with CHF, cirrhosis of the liver and renal disease?
furosemide
| Lasix
163
What are medications that relieve pain without producing unconsciousness or impairing mental capacities?
non-narcotic analgesics
164
What type of medication relieves or reduces fevers?
antipyretics
165
what is the most economical analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory agent available?
aspirin
166
What medication is an analgesic and antipyretic used to relieve pain and fever accompanying disease?
acetaminophen
167
What medication is indicated for patients who are allergic to asprin?
acetaminophen
168
what medication is indicated for relief of mild to moderate pain including cases of gastrointestinal bleeding, or renal impairment, or during the third trimester of pregnancy?
ibuprofen
169
what is an analgesic indicated for the relief of mild to moderate pain?
naproxen
170
what is an anti-inflammatory agent and is contraindicated in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy?
meloxicam
| Mobic
171
What are two examples of CNS stimulants?
```
methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin)
Dextroamphetamine sulfate (dexadrine)
```
172
what medication is indicated for use in hyperkinetic children and children with ADD?
In children it acts as a CNS depressant and is also indicated for narcolepsy in adults.
methylphenidate hydrochloride
| Ritalin
173
What medication is primarily indiated for narcolepsy, but occasionally used as an adjunct to diet therapy for obesity caused by overeating?
dextroamphetamine sulfate(dexadrine)
174
What are three examples of CNS depressants?
phenobarbital (luminal)
pentobarbital (Nembutal)
Phenytoin sodium (Dilantin)
175
what is a long lasting barbiturate frequently used to treat convulsive disorders and is the drug of choice in petit mal epilepsy?
phenobarbital
| Luminal
176
What medication is indicated for short term treatment of insomnia?
pentobarbital
| Nembutal
177
What mediation is a nonbarbiturate anticonvulsant that is the drug of choice for the treatment and management of grand mal epilepsy?
phenytoin sodium
| Dilantin
178
What is an opium alkaloid indicated for the relief of severe pain?
morphine sulfate
179
morphine is contraindicated for PT with what three things?
head injuries
acute alcoholism
convulsive disorders
180
what has only 1/6th the analgesic power and 1/4th of the respiratory depressant effect of morphine?
codeine sulfate
181
Codeine is used for moderate to severe pain and as a ____.
antitussive
182
what is a synhetic analgesic similar to morphine?
meperidine hydrochloride
| Demerol
183
What medication is indicated for alleviating manifestations of psychosis, tension, and agitation and may be used as an antiemetic?
chlorpromazine hydrochloride
| throazine
184
what medication is used for antipsychotic purposes and is considered to be a good all around tranquilizer?
thioridazine
| mellaril
185
what mediation is indicated for treating schizophrenia with manifestations of acute manic symptoms?
haldol
186
What medication is used to treat manic episodes of manic-depressive illness?
it is the drug of choice to prevent or diminish the intensity of manic episodes
lithium
187
What medication is used in the abatement of acute withdrawal symptoms of alcoholism?
chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride
| Librium
188
what medication is useful in treating mild to moderate depression with anxiety and tension?
diazepam
| valium
189
What medication is indicated as an adjunct to rest and physical therapy for relief of muscle spasm and acute painful musculoskeletal conditions?
cyclobenzaprine
| flexeril
190
What medication is a topical vasoconstrictor used to relieve nasal congestion?
oxymetazonline hydrochlorid
| Afrin
191
What medication is used in prophylaxis and treatment of venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism?
heparin sodium
192
what medication is used extensively to treat embolism in the prevention of occlusions?
(blood)
warfarin sodium
| Coumadin
193
Which vitamin deficiency leads to rickets in children and asteomalaia in adults?
vitamin D
194
Which vitamin is necessary for the prevention and cre of scurvy?
Vitamin C
195
Which vitamin is most often used during INH therapy?
vitamin B6
196
Which vitamin deficiency leads to an increase in blood clotting time?
Vitamin K
197
What medications is commonly called laughing gas and is used with oxygen in general anesthesia?
nitrous oxide
198
high concentrations of nitrous oxide may cause what? (2)
cyanosis and asphyxia
199
what medication is used for inhalation anesthesia in most operative procedures with PTs of all ages?
halothane
200
What medication is a fast acting general anesthetic agent used as preinductation n agent or for procedures that do not require skeletal muscle relaxation?
Ketamine
201
what anesthetic agent is administered only by injection?
procaine hydrochloride
| Novocain
202
What medication is the standard to which all other anesthetic are compared?
```
lidocaine hydrochloride
(xylocaine)
```
203
What medication is a local ophthalmic anesthetic used topically?
proparacaine
204
How do oytoic medications work?
produce a rhythmic contrition of the uterus.
205
What are the three basic measurements used for weight, volume, and linear units?
weight: gram
Volume: liter
Linear unit: meter
206
what does the prefix deka mean?
multiples by ten
207
what does the prefix hector mean?
multiples by 100
208
what does the prefix kilo mean?
multiples by 1,000
209
5ml is = to 1___
teaspoon
210
15ml is = to 1__
tablespoon
211
____ are aromatic, sweetened hydroalcoholic solutions containing medicinal substances.
elixirs
212
_____ are coarse dispersions comprised of finely divided insoluble material suspended in a liquid medium.
suspensions
213
____ are semisolid, fatty or oily preparations of medicinal substances.
ointments
214
____ are gelatin shells containing solid or liquid medicinal substances to be taken orally
capsules
215
What are elixirs?
aromatic, sweetened hydroalcoholic solutions containing medicinal substances.
216
What are suspensions?
coarse dispersions comprised of finely divided insoluble material suspended in a liquid medium.
217
What are ointments?
are semisolid, fatty or oily preparations of medicinal substances.
218
What are capsules?
gelatin shells containing solid or liquid medicinal substances to be taken orally
219
What are the two types of pharmaceutical balances commonly used in the Navy?
torsion balances
| electronic balances
220
what type of pharmaceutical balance is also called a class A prescription balance?
torsion balance
221
A torision balance are used for weighing loads from __mg to __ G.
120mg to 120g
222
All dispensing pharmacies are required to have how many class A balances on havd at all times?
at least one
223
Most pharmacies now use what type of balances?
electronic
224
What are a mortar and pestle used for?
to reduce substances to fine powders
225
What is a spatula?
knifelike utensil with a rounded, flexible, smoothly ground blade, available in various sizes.
226
What are the three classes of medication incompatibilities?
therapeutic
physical
chemical
227
what are the two standardized forms used for prescriptions?
DD form 1289
| NAVMED 6710/6
228
Which prescription form is used extensively for outpatient prescriptions?
DD 1289
229
How many medications does a DD 1289 contain?
only one
230
How many medications can be on a NAVMED 6710/6?
up to four
| all for the same PT
231
What are the four parts of the prescription block?
inscription
superscription
subscription
signa
232
what is the superscription?
Rx
233
what is the inscription?
the part of the prescription that list the name and quantity of the medication to be used
234
What is the subscription?
directions to the compounder
235
what is the signa?
the part of the prescription that gives the directions for the patient
236
What is the part of the prescription that gives the directions for the patient ?
the signa
237
Currently, prescriptions are required to be kept on file for at least how long after the date of issue?
2 years
238
schedule II medications must be filled within how many days of the date originally written?
7 days
239
How may refills can be ordered for schedule II medications?
none
240
schedule III medications must be filled within how many days of the date originally written?
30 days
241
How may refills can be ordered for schedule III medications?
may be refilled up to five times within 6 months
242
schedule IV medications must be filled within how many days of the date originally written?
30 days
243
How may refills can be ordered for schedule IV medications?
may be refilled up to five times within 6 months
244
schedule V medications must be filled within how many days of the date originally written?
30 days
245
How may refills can be ordered for schedule V medications?
may be refilled up to five times within 6 months
246
How many control substance levels are there
five
