HMMS Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

Primary difference between SAL and RFA missiles?

A

SAL: tracks laser energy
RF: tracks reflected RF energy, has a guidance section

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2
Q

The the M36 training missile is detected, all live missiles on board the aircraft will display what?

A

NA

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3
Q

How many g’s approx to arm missile?

A

10gs

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4
Q

AGM -114R minimum arming distance?

A

375m

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5
Q

Mitssiles arm at approx what distance after launch?

A

181m

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6
Q

What amount of thrust is required for the missile to launch from rails?

A

600-830lbs

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7
Q

The thrust duration is what?
What’s the max velocity?

A

2.5-3.5
435m/s

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8
Q

Which component of the M299 launcher contains the training missile emulator which replicates area missile operation?

A

Launcher Electronic Assembly

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9
Q

Which MPD page allows the aircrew to electronically arm the M299 missile launcher?

A

WPN UTIL

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10
Q

Normal pylon articulation limits when the missiles or rockets are actioned?

A

+4 to -15

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11
Q

What is the minimum altitude to launch a SAL missile?

A

32 ft

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12
Q

A Sal missile that has not been coded will display what inside the missile icon?

A

L

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13
Q

RF missiles have what instead of a straight line at the seeker?

A

V

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14
Q

An RF missile that has an over temp condition will display what in the missile icon?

A

OT

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15
Q

What is displayed in the missile icon in the event of a hang fire?
How long will HANGFIRE be displayed in the HDU?

A

MH
6 sec

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16
Q

The SAL missile LOBLnconstraints symbology represents +/- ____ degrees and is being driven by the _____ in the crewmembers display?

A

20
Missile seeker

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17
Q

To prevent video washout 5e aircraft should be positioned _______ to the side from which the missile will be launched?

A

3-5 degrees

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18
Q

The ALT channel is only available after a ——- channel has been selected?

A

PRIORITY channel

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19
Q

The missile quantity defaults to what. For both channels if sufficient missiles are available of the selected warhead.

A

3

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20
Q

What button is used to maintain the missile in a LOAL flight trajectory

A

LOBL INHIBIT

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21
Q

What is the tri-service PRF code range?

A

1111-1788

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22
Q

The R missile main warhead defaults at power up for anti-armor with which fuse selection?

A

SQ (Discrete code of 1755]

23
Q

What negative factor during target illumination will cause the laser energy to be masked within the target?

24
Q

That are the 3 LOAL trajectory modes for the R missile?

25
When the TADS LOS and the missile seeker LOSS differ by more that ____ of back scatter message will be displayed in the weapons inhibit selection of the HAD?
2 degrees
26
Is backscatter a safety or performance inhibit? Can it be over ridden?
Safety, no
27
Minimum and maximum ranges of a K and R missile?
Min: 500m Max: 7.1k
28
Which trajectory should be used to engage a bunker?
Flat
29
When laser designating a 5000m target for a R missile, the last ____ seconds of the TOF is required to be on 5he target?
6 (terminal guidance)
30
The R missile LOFT constraints box is being driven in the crewmembers displayed by the _____ or _____
Stored coordinate data or SEL LOS
31
The remote designator should not displace more than how many degrees in azimuth from the launch aircraft to target line?
60
32
Max autonomous designation range is limited by what?
TADS ability to maintain the total laser spot on target
33
During a remote designation employing a K missile, the remote designator must be outside what safety fan either side of the gunner shot line?
43 degrees
34
5k engagement, the max separation between targets should not exceed_____ meters with a _____ second separation between missile launches
100m 8sec
35
The ripple mode after the primary channel missile is launched the alternate channel missile may be launched ____sec separation
1.5 sec
36
For autonomous engagements the aircraft should be oriented ________ to he side from which the missile will be launched
3-5 degrees
37
The L missile mode selections are _____ in each crew station.
Common
38
In the AUTO power mode the missiles are powered up at _____ min intervals
10 min
39
2nd target inhibit selections is used for engagements against what kind of targets only?
Stationary
40
The RF missile can OT if it is tracking a target for more than how many minutes?
3 min
41
With 6 L missiles loaded, the AUTO power mode selection will power up how many RF missiles?
2
42
The L missile allowable constraints is +/- ______ degrees when tracking the NTS target when the range is less than 1k.
5 degrees
43
What are the 3 RF missile modes?
STBY, prelaunch, post launch
44
Transfer alignment occurs in which missile mode?
Stby
45
In the pre-launch mode, what are the 3 methods of target handover to the RF missile?
FCR, TADS, RFHO/IDM
46
Doppler beam sharpening uses a curved trajectory to induce a relative motion for stationary targets to enhance the probability of detection and tracking between what ranges?
2500-8000m
47
At what range are targets too close for LOAL engagement and a “NO AQUIRE” message will be displayed
500-1000m
48
3 RF missile acquisition modes
Terminal track Pre terminal track Moving target
49
What is the RF missile radiation hazard area to be avoided?
1m 45*
50
When in training mode all tactical missiles will display what inside the missile icon?
NA
51
The TME allows for thermal management of the missiles by allowing for the cumulative time once, of how many minutes?
30
52
With the train mode selected, and a weapon system is actioned, the weapons inhibit field will display what?
Training
53
With the train mode selected and the missile system is actioned, the missile constraints box will display what in the center of the box?
T