ID I: Background and ABX by Class Flashcards
penicillins, cephalos, carbapenems, AGs, FQs, macrolides, TTCs, SMX/TMP, Nitrofurantoin, Specific Pathogen Tx, Renal Dosing
1
Q
common CNS/meningitis pathogens
A
s pneumo
n meningitidis
h influenzae
GBS (kids)
listeria (adults)
2
Q
common URI pathogens
A
strep pyogenes
s pneumo
h influenzae
m cat
3
Q
common lower resp tract infection pathogens
A
community: s pneumo, h inf, atypicals, enteric GNR
hospital: s aureus (MSSA, MRSA), pseud, acinetobacter baumannii, enteric GNR (including ESBL and MDR), s. pneumo
4
Q
common endocarditis pathogens
A
s aureus/MRSA
s epidermidis
streptococci
enterococci
5
Q
common SSTI pathogens
A
s aureus
s pyogenes
staph epidermidis
G+/- anaerobes, aerobes
GNR (in T2DM)
6
Q
common UTI pathogens
A
e coli
proteus
klebsiella
staph saphrophyticus
enterococci
7
Q
common bone/joint infection pathogens
A
s aureus
s epidermidis
streptococci
N. gonorrhoeae
GNR
8
Q
what are the enteric gram - rods
A
proteus
e coli
klebsiella
enterobacter
serratia
9
Q
G+ vs G-
A
G+ have a thick cell wall and stan dark purple on gram stain from crystal violet
G- have a thin cell wall and stain pink on gram stain from safranin counter stain
10
Q
atypical pathogens and drugs that cover then
A
legionella
chlamydia
mycoplasma pnemoniae
mycobacterium
covered by TTC, macrolides, FQs and tigecycline, vibramycin
11
Q
cultures show G+ cocci in clusters
what pathogen could this be
A
s aureus (MSSA or MRSA)
12
Q
cultures show G- cocci
what pathogen could this be
A
neisseria spp.
13
Q
cultures show G+ cocci in pairs
what pathogen could this be
A
strep pneumo
strep spp.
enterococcus (including VRE)
14
Q
cultures show G+ spores
what pathogen could this be
A
anaerobes
peptostreptococcus
c diff
clostridium spp.
15
Q
cultures show G- coccobacilli
what pathogen could this be
A
acineobacter baumannii
bordatella pertussis
moraxella cat.
16
Q
cultures show G- rods (GNR)
what pathogen could this be
A
colonize gut = proteus mirabilis, e coli, klebsiella, serratia, enterobacter, citrobacter
curved or spiral GNR = h pylori, campylobacter spp, treponema spp.
do not colonize gut = pseud, h influenzae, providencia
17
Q
what GNR do not colonize the gut
A
pseud, h influenzae, providencia
18
Q
If a pathogen in + for ESBL, what does this mean and what are not treatment options? What are tx options?
A
pathogen has extended spectrum beta lactamases which makes all penicillins and most cephalosporins ineffective
tx options: carbapenems, ceftazidime/avibactam, ceftolozane/tazobactam
19
Q
what are the commonly resistant bugs
A
SPEEAK
s aureus (MRSA)
pseug aeruginosa
e coli (ESBL, CRE)
e. faecalis, e. faccium (VRE)
acinetobacter baumannii
klebsiella (ESBL, CRE)
20
Q
which abx has a BBW for c diff
A
clindamycin
21
Q
which abx are hydrophilic and which are lipophilic? How does this affect the drug?
A
hydrophilic: B lactams, AGs, vanco, dapto, polymixins
inc hydrophilicity –> dec Vd –> renal elim and tox–> dec cell penetration and low F–> IV:PO not 1:1 and low activity against atypicals
lipophilic: TTC, macrolides, FQs, rifampin, linezolid
inc lipophilicity –> inc Vd –> inc cell penetration –> activity against atypicals and more 1:1 IV:PO ratios and hepatic elim
22
Q
what does concentration dependent dosing mean? Which drugs use this?
A
goal is to have a high Cmax to inc killing while having a low trough to dec toxicity (large dose, long interval)
AGs, FQs, dapto
23
Q
what does exposure-dependent dosing mean? Which drugs use this?
A
AUC:MIC is used to assess exposure over time in TDM
vanco, macrolides, TTC, polymixins
24
Q
what does time>MIC dependent dosing mean? Which drugs use this?
A
goal is to maintain drug level>MIC for most of interval; uses
shorter dosing interval or extended/continuous dosing
B-lactams (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems)
25
what are the natural penicillins and what do they cover
pen VK, Pen G
streptococcus
enterococcus
mouth flora
26
what are the anti-staph penicillins and what do they cover
naficillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin
streptococcus
MSSA
27
which penicillins do not need renal dose adjustments
anti-staphs!
oxacillin, dicloxacillin and naficillin
28
what are the aminopenicillins and what do they cover
amox +- clav, amp +- sul
streptococcus
enterococcus
G- anaerobes in mouth flora
adding clavulanate or sulbactam extends coverage to
HNPEK
b frag (anaerobe)
MSSA
29
what is the extended spectrum penicillin? What does it cover?
pip/tazo
covers same bugs as aminopenicillin/beta lactamase-i (streptococcus, enterococcus, G- mouth flora, HNPEK, MSSA, anaerobe b frag)
PLUS
pseudomonas and CAPES
30
what are the G- bacilli
CAPES
camphylobacter
acinetobacter
providencia
enterobacter
serratia
31
Pen VK is first line for __________
dosing?
pharyngitis (strep throat) and mild non-purulent SSTI without abscess
125-500mg Q6-12H on empty stomach
32
Penicillin G must be administered
A. IV
B. IM
C. PO
D. IV or IM
B. IM
Pen G has BBW for IV administration, only administer IM!
33
ampicillin and amp/sul are only compatible with ____
NS
34
amp/sul IV dosing
1.5-3g Q6h
35
what is the use of probenacid with penicillins
decreases penicillin renal excretion which is used as a mechanism in severe infections
36
pip/tazo dosing (IV) and infusion time
3.375mg IV Q6H or 4.5g IV Q6-8H
over 4 hours
37
penicillins increase/decrease bleed risk with warfarin?
methotrexate [ ] is increased/decreased by penicillins?
naficillin and dicloxicllin increase/decrease clot risk with warfarin?
penicillins dec clot factor production and pose a bleed risk
MTX [ ] increase with penicillins
naficillin and dicloxacillin dec warfarin efficacy and pose a clot risk
38
what are the contraindications to penicillins?
allergy
augmentin and unasyn with cholestatic jaundice or hepatic dysfunction with prev use
ER forms and augmentin 875mg if CrCl <30
39
amoxicillin/clav is a _____ ratio to decrease risk of ___________
A. 14:1 ; constipation
B. 14:1 ; diarrhea
C. 5:1 ; constipation
D. 5:1 ; diarrhea
B. 14:1 ; diarrhea
SMX/TMP is 5:1
40
which penicillin is a vesicant and is preferably administered in a central line?
naficillin
41
What should be monitored when a patient is on a penicillin
allergic reaction, LFTs, renal function, rash (SJS/TEN), hemolytic anemia (+coombs test), myelosuppression with prolonged use
41
what is the pneumonic for non-CAPES G- organisms
HNPEK
h. influenzae
neisseria
proteus
e coli
klebsiella
42
as cephalosporin generation increases, _____ coverage increases
gram negative
43
as cephalosporin generation increases, penicillin (PCN) cross reactivity ________________--
decreases
44
first generation cephalos
coverage
cephalexin
cefazolin
weak G-/PEK coverage
strep
staph
45
second generation cephalos
coverage
cefuroxime
- covers staph and resistant HNPEK
cefotetan and cefoxitin
- cover staph, resistant HNPEK and b frag!
46
what type of bacteria is b frag
G- anaerobe
47
3rd gen cephalos
coverage
ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, cefdinir
- cover resistant strep virdans, MSSA, G+, HNPEK
ceftazidime
- NO G- COVERAGE, but covers pseud
48
4th gen cephalo
coverage
cefepime
- resistant strep virdans, MSSA
- HNPEK, CAPES, pseud
49
5th gen cephalo
coverage
ceftaroline
- G- anaerobes, MSSA
- MRSA
50
cefazolin
which generation
dosing
first
IV/IM 1-2g q8h
51
only cephalosporin without renal dose adjustments
CTX
52
cephalexin
which generation
dosing
first
250-500mg q6-12h
53
cefuroxime
which generation
dosing
second, group 1
PO/IV/IM 250-1500mg q8-12h
54
oral cephalosporins
cephalexin (1st)
cefuroxime (2nd)
cefdinir (3rd)
55
cefotetan
which generation
dosing
second - group 2
IV/IM 1-2g q12h
56
what is unique about cefotetan
has a unique side chain that increases bleed risk and risk of disulfiram reaction
57
cefoxitin
which generation
dosing
second - group 2
IV/IM 1-2g q6-8h
58
cefdinir
which generation
dosing
3rd - group 1
300mg q12h or 600mg qd
59
CTX
which generation
dosing
3rd - group 1
IV/IM 1-2g q12-24h
60
cefotaxime
which generation
dosing
3rd - group 1
IV/IM 1-2g q4-12h
61
ceftazidime
brand name
which generation
dosing
Tazicef
3rd - group 2
IV/IM 1-2g q8-12h
62
cefepime
which generation
dosing
4th
1-2g q8-12h
63
ceftaroline
which generation
dosing
5th
600mg q12h
64
CTX is contraindicated in
neonates (hyperbilirubinemia)
use with Ca-containing IV products
65
adverse effects of all cephalos
inc LFTs, seizure, AIN, hemolytic anemia, myelosuppression with long term use, SJS/TEN
66
If a patient is on an antacid, which cephalos are to be avoided
cefuroxime
cefpodoxime
cefdinir
67
cephalo monitoring
LFTs, renal function, CBC
68
cephalos with a beta lactamase - i (ceftazidime/avi, ceftolozane/tazo) cover which bugs
MDR GNR
69
SATA
carbapenems do NOT cover
A. atypicals
B. anaerobes
C. MRSA
E. c. diff
F. G- ESBL
G. VRE
H. staph and strep
I. stenotrophomonas
DO NOT COVER
atypicals, MRSA, c diff, VRE, stenotrophomonas
(covers G+, G- (including ESBL), and anaerobes
70
contraindications of carbapenems
pencillin allergy
71
adverse effects of carbapenems
seizures, DRESS, inc LFTs
72
ertapenem does not cover ______, _______ and _______ , but covers _________
does not cover pseudomonas, acinetobacter or enterococcus BUT
covers ESBL+ bugs
73
all carbapenems are administered ____
IV
74
meropenem
brand name
dosing
Vabomere
500-1000mg IV q8h
75
ertapenem
brand name
dosing
administration
Ivanz
1g IV/IM qd
in NS only
76
common uses of carbapenems
if combines w beta lactamase - i = used for CRE
polymicrobial diabetic foot infxn
empiric tx when suspecting ESBL+
resistant pseud, acinetobacter --> meropenem, not ertapenem
77
carbapenems interact with ______ by decreasing its plasma concentrations
valproic acid
78
what does aztreonam cover
brand name
dosing
gram negatives (HNPEK, CAPES, pseud
Azactam
500-2000mg IV q6-12 hours
CrCl < 30 --> dec dose
79
what do aminoglycosides cover
gram negatives including pseud
80
what are the benefits of extended / daily dosing of AGs
higher peaks, less accumulation and dec nephrotoxicity risk, dec cost, gives the kidneys a break, decreases likelihood of nephro and oto toxicities
81
which ABX have a post-ABX effect? What does this mean?
AGs
AG bacteriocidal killing continues even when [ ] is below MIC
82
How to determine which body weight to use when dosing AGs
if TBW use TBW
if TBW ~ IBW --> use either
if obese (TBW >120% of IBW --> use AdjBW
83
AdjBW equation for AG calculations
AdjBW = IBW + 0.4(TBW-IBW)
84
gentamicin and tobramycin dosing
when do we use the lower end of the range? higher end?
1-2.5mg/kg/dose
use lower end for G+ infections and higher for G- infections
85
what are the renal dose adjustments for gentamicin and tobramycin
CrCl >/= 60 Q8h
CrCl 40-60 = Q12H
CrCl 20-40 = Q24H
CrCl <20 1x dose and adjust per level
86
TDM for AGs tobramycin, gentamicin, amikacin
when to draw peak? trough?
what if its extended interval dosing?
peak trough
gent (G- synergy) 3-4 <1
gent (G-) 5-10 <2
tobra 5-10 <2
draw trough 30 min before 4th dose
draw trough 30 min after the 4th dose (30min infusion) is complete
if extended interval dosing, drawl level 6-14 hours after first infusion start, plot on Hartford nomogram and determine frequency from there
87
amikacin dosing
5-7.5mg/kg/dose
88
which are the respiratory fluoroquinolones? why?
levofloxacin and moxifloxacin since they have increased coverage of s pneumo and atypicals
89
the fluoroquinolones ____________ and ____________ have increased coverage of _____________ and ______________
levofloxacin and ciprofloxacin
G- and anti-pseud
90
moxifloxacin has increased coverage of _______ and _______
A. G- ; pseud
B. G+ ; anaerobes
C. G+ ; pseud
D. atypicals ; anaerobes
E. MRSA ; anaerobes
B. G+ ; anaerobes
91
moxifloxacin can be used for UTI. T or F
false, does not concentrate in the urine
92
BBW for all FQs
tendon rupture
peripheral neuropathy
CNS (seizure risk, tremor, paranoia, hallucnations, nightmares, inc ICP)
avoid in myasthenia gravis
93
ciprofloxacin is CI with use of
A. metronidazole
B. warfarin
C. SMX/TMP
D. rifampin
E. tinidazole
E. tinidazole
94
ciprofloxacin
dosing
renal adjustments?
PO: 250-500mg q12h
IV: 200-400 q8-12h
CrCl <50 q12h
CrCl<30 q18-24h
95
levofloxacin
brand
dosing
renal adjustments
Levaquin
PO/IV 250-750mg QD
CrCl <50 Q48h or dec dose
96
moxifloxacin
brand
dosing
renal adjustments
Avelox, Vigamox eye drops
IV/PO 400mg Q24H
trick question, no renal dose adjustments
97
Patient initiated on levofloxacin 750mg PO Q24H for pneumonia. What should be monitored?
QTc interval
potassium and mag to prevent prolonging QT and other cardiac events
BG
psych disturbances
tendons
antacid use
phosphate binder use
cations!!
98
which FQ has the highest risk of QT prolongation?
moxifloxacin
99
can a breast-feeding patient take a FQ
no, sorry charlie
100
Patient on feeding tube is to initiate ciprofloxacin oral suspension at 250mg PO Q12H. How should this be given through the feeding tube?
wrong-o cannot do that. Suspension adheres to feeding tube womp womp.
use ciprofloxacin IR tabs, crush, and reconstitute in water.
101
Patient BS is admitted to the hospital and a med rec is done by a superstar intern as follows (dosing not included bc not important in this case). While intern was doing med rec, patient was drinking coffee and enjoying the sunrise btw.
Patient is to be initiated on levofloxacin for CAP.
lisinopril
amlodipine
warfarin
glimepiride
insulin glargine
metformin
ibuprofen PRN
vitamin D
cincalcet
sevelamer
zocor
tums prn
protonix ER
rena-vite
which medications on the med list will the levofloxacin interact with? Anything else hint hint wink wink
warfarin (bleed risk)
glimepiride, insulin (hypoglycemia risk)
ibuprofen (increases FQ levels)
sevelamer (binds FQ)
protonix (absorption)
tums (binds FQ)
caffeine! (FQ will inc caffeine [ ])
102
macrolides cover
atypicals and haemophilus infl.
103
which macrolide requires renal dose adjustments? What is the threshold for adjustment?
clarithromycin, CrCl <30
104
macrolides dosing
azithromycin
500mg po x1 day 1, then 250mg po daily day 2-5
or 500mg po daily x3d
clarithromycin
250-500mg po BID, adjust if CrCl <30
erythromycin
meh
105
from azithro --> clarithro --> erythro what changes about drug solubilty? How does this affect dosing?
decreasing lipid solubility lowers Vd and plasma concentrations which leads to more frequent dosing
106
SATA
macrolides azithro, clarithro and erythro are contraindicated in
A. hepatic dysfunction with prev use
B. use with tinidazole
C. use with Ca-containing IV products
D. neonates 2/2 hyperbilirubinemia
E. cholestatic jaundice with prev use
A and E
A. hepatic dysfunction with prev use
B. use with tinidazole - this is for ciprofloxacin
C. use with Ca-containing IV products - for CTX
D. neonates 2/2 hyperbilirubinemia - for CTX
E. cholestatic jaundice with prev use
107
warnings for macrolides
QTc prolongation
hepatotox
myasthenia gravis exacerbation
clarithromycin in CAD
108
what do tetracyclines cover
G+ (staph, strep, entero, propioni)
G - (h. flu, moraxella, atypicals)
other unique: rickettsiae, bacillus anthracis, triponemia, spirochetes)
VRE
doxy: also covers chlamydia, CAP, Lyme
109
doxycycline dosing
with or without food
renal adjustments
IV:PO
100-200mg daily DIV qd-BID
take w food
no renal adjustments
1:1
110
doxycycline CI in
<8yo, pregnancy, BF 2/2 suppressed bone growth and skeletal development; discolored teeth
111
doxycycline should not be taken with
A. iron
B. calcium supplements
C. multivitamins
D. sucralfate
E. pepto bismol
F. warfarin
A-E
112
patient on doxy going to florida for vacation. what should you warn them about
photosensitivity
113
SMX/TMP
what does it cover
staph (MRSA, MSSA), HPEK (no N), enterobacter, shigella, salmonella, some OIs (PCP, toxo)
114
SMX/TMP does NOT cover
atypicals, pseud, enterococci, anaerobes
115
SMX/TMP has a _______ SMX/TMP ratio and doses need to be adjusted at a CrCl of _________. SMX/TMP is CI at a CrCl of ___________
5:1
<30
<15
116
SMX/TMP dosing for
uncomplicated UTI
PCP ppx
PCP tx
1 DS tablet PO BID for uncomp UTI
1DS or 1 SS tab PO daily for PCP ppx
15-20mg/kg/d TMP DIV q6h for PCP tx
117
a patient is starting SMX/TMP for PCP treatment. What should you warn the medical team about/monitoring?
blood dyscrasias, allergic reaction, hyperkalemia, dec BG, dec plts, crystalluria (stay hydrated)
118
which defines the DDI between SMX/TMP and warfarin?
A. warfarin inhibits SMX/TMP metabolism via 2D6
B. SMX/TMP inhibits warfarin metabolism via 3A4
C. SMX/TMP inhibits warfarin metabolism via 2C19
D. warfarin inhibits SMX/TMP metabolism via 2E1
E. SMX/TMP inhibits warfarin metabolism via 2C9
E. SMX/TMP inhibits warfarin metabolism via 2C9
119
what are examples of things that would increase the risk of hyperkalemia in a patient taking SMX/TMP?
concurrent ACE, ARB, MRA, NSAIDS, CYA, tacrolimus, canagliflozin, oral contraceptives
renal dysfunction
120
what bugs does vanco cover? SATA
A. G+
B. MRSA
C. G- anaerobes
D. VRE+
E. strep
F. c diff
G. enterococci
H. MSSA
A. G+
B. MRSA
E. strep
F. c diff
G. enterococci
H. MSSA
121
vanco dosing for systemic infection
which BW is it based on?
adjustments?
15-20 mg/kg q8-12h based on TBW
CrCl <50 -> q24h
CrCl <20 --> one time dose then adjust b/o level
122
what are the therapeutic drug monitoring parameters for vanco?
which is preferred?
when do we draw which level(s)?
AUC:MIC 400-600
trough for UTI, skin infxn 10-15 mcg/mL
trough for MRSA 15-20mcg/mL
*draw trough 30 min before 4th or 5th dose
123
nephrotoxins that are of concern with vanco use
NSAIDS, AGs, tacrolimus, amph B, loop diuretics, contrast dye, cyclosporine, polymixins
124
what toxicities are of concern with vanco
nephro and oto toxicity
124
ototoxic agents of concern with vanco use
cisplatin
AGs
loops
125
vanco dosing for c diff
125mg PO QID x 10 days
no renal dosing
126
to avoid an infusion reaction to vanco, the infusion should not exceed ______________
1 gram/ hour
127
lipoglycopeptides
drugs
coverage
administration
televancin
oritavancin
dalbavancin
cover same as vanco
all IV!
128
what are the black boxed warnings for televancin
fetal risk (need - preg test), CrCl
129
oritavancin can be used for an osteomyelitis infection. T or F
false, does not penetrate bone
130
should the medical team be concerned if a patients on televancin has an INR of 5.3
no, lipoglycopepetides falsely increase INR, aPTT and PT but do not inc bleed risk
131
daptomycin #1 warning
RHABDOMYOLYSIS
RISK INC WITH STATINS
132
should the medical team be concerned if a patients on daptomycin has an INR of 5.8
no, dapto falsely increase INR, aPTT and PT but do not inc bleed risk
133
linezolid coverage and dosing
G+, MRSA and VRE
600mg Q12H
134
adverse effects of linezolid
serotonin syndrome since it inhibits MAO, hypoglycemia, seizures, lactic acidosis, HTN
135
linezolid should be avoided with ___________________
tyramine-containing foods
136
clindamycin has a BBW for
c diff/colitis
137
tigecycline has a BBW for
increased risk of death
138
tigecycline should not be used in
SATA
A. bloodstream infections
B. pregnancy
C. lactation
D. <8yo
E. pseud, proteus, providencia (3 Ps)
A. bloodstream infections
D. <8yo
E. pseud, proteus, providencia (3 Ps)
139
what does clinda cover
G+ (CA MRSA) and G+ anaerobes
140
clindamycin dosing
po 150-450mg PO QID
iv 600-900mg TID
141
clinda renal dose adjustments
tricky tricky, does not need to be renally adjusted
142
metronidazole can be used for
gut infections (add on for anaerobes), b vag, trich, amebiasis, c diff (not first line)
143
attending wants to add on metronidazole for an enteric (gut) infection
what is the dosing?
IV or PO?
500-750mg q8-12h
IV:PO 1:1!!!
144
metronidazole, tinidazole and secnidazole BBW
possible carcinogenic
145
metronidazole, tinidazole and secnidazole CI
use with et-OH, pregnancy, use with propylene glycol
146
fidaxomicin
brand name
use
dificid
c diff
147
nitrofurantoin
brand names and each dosing
renal adjustments?
macrobid: 100mg PO BID x5d
macrodantin: 50-100mg PO QID x3-7d
CI CrCl <60
148
which ABX need to be refrigerated after reconstitution
amox/clav
Pen VK
ampcillin
cephalexin
vanco po
149
DO NOT REFRIGERATE antibiotics
cefdinir
azithro
doxy
cipro
levofloxacin
clinda
linezolid
acyclovir
fluconazole
150
ABX with DO NOT FREEZE warning
metronidazole
moxifloxacin
TMP/SMX
151
ABX that do not require renal dose adjustments
CTX
moxifloxacin
clinda
doxy
azithro and erythro
metronidazole
linezolid
152
ABX that need to be taken on an empty stomach
isoniazid
ampicillin
levofloxacin po soln
PenVK
rifampin
153
ABX with a 1:1 IV:PO
-azoles
metronidazole
SMX/TMP
linezolid
doxycycline, minocycline, levoflox, moxiflox
154
ABX that require NS only
ampicillin
amp/sul
ertapenem
dapto cubicin RF
155
ABX that can be in NS or LR
caspofungin
dapto cubicin
156
ABX that can be in dextrose only
SMX/TMP
quinopristin/dalfo
Amph B
157
what ABX cover MSSA
dicloxacillin, naficillin, oxacillin
3rd gens CTX, cefotaxime, cefdinir
4th gen cefepime
5th gen ceftaroline
amox/clav, amp/sul, pip/tazo
158
what ABX cover MRSA
vanco
SMX/TMP (CA MRSA SSTI)
ceftaroline
linezolid
daptomycin (not in pneumonia)
doxycycline, minocycline (CA MRSA SSTI)
clinda (need D-test first) (CA MRSA SSTI)
159
what ABX cover atypicals
TTC
macrolides (azithro and clarithro)
FQs
tigecycline
vibramycin
160
what ABX cover HNPEK
(h infl, nesseria, proteus, e coli, klebsiella gram negatives)
amp/sul, amox/clav
pip/tazo
2nd gens cefuroxime, cefotetan, cefoxitin
3rd gens CTX, cefotaxime, cefdinir
4th gen cefepime
5th gen ceftaroline
carbapenems
aminoglycosides
FQs
SMX/TMP
161
what ABX cover pseud
pip/tazo
3rd gen ceftazidime
4th gen cefepime
non-ertapenem carbapenems
ceftaz/avibactam
ceftolozane/tazobactam
levoflox and ciproflox
aztreonam
tobramycin
colistimethate, polymixin B
162
what ABX cover CAPES
camphylobacter, acinetobacter, providencia, enterobacter, serratia
pip/tazo
4th gen cefepime
carbapenems
AGs
163
what ABX cover ESBL+ GNRs
(ESBL is resistant to all penicillins and most cephalos)
carbapenems
ceftazidime/avi
caftolozane/tazo
164
ABX that cover CRE
(carbapenem resistant Enterobacteriaceae)
ceftazidime/avi
meropenem/vaborbactam
impenem/cilastin/relebactam
colistimethate
polymixin B
165
what ABX cover b frag (a G- anaerobe)
2nd gen cefotetan and cefoxitin
metronidazole
b-lactam and inhibitor (amox/clav, amp/sul, pip/tazo)
carbapenems
166
what ABX cover c diff
vanco PO
fidaxomicin
metronidazole
167
which ABX should be avoided in patients with myasthenia gravis
FQ (levoflox, ciproflox, moxiiflox)
macrolides (azithro, clarithro, erythro)
168
which ABX lower the seizure threshold
penicillins
cephalosporins
carbapenems
FQ (BBW)
linezolid
169
which ABX cause myelosuppression? what should be monitored?
penicillins
cephalos
carbapenems
linezolid
CBC (WBC, RBC etc.)
170
which ABX have a warning for SJS/TEN
penicillins
cephalos
vanco
TTC
SMX/TMP
