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IFR Navigation Flashcards

(96 cards)

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1
Q

What is the IFR en route planning chart?

A

Good for long range planning, but not in the air.

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2
Q

What is the best chart for in air use?

A

IFR low altitude en route chart.

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3
Q

What are Victor airways?

A

Airways starting with a V and followed by a number.

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4
Q

What numbering system do Victor airways use?

A

East West are even numbered; North South are odd numbered.

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5
Q

How should you use the courses when planning and flying?

A

When planning, average the courses; when flying, fly the charted radials.

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6
Q

What are the black numbers in boxes on the Victor airway charts?

A

Distance in NM of the airway.

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7
Q

What are the numbers not in boxes printed above or below Victor airways?

A

Segment distances.

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8
Q

What are triangles on the IFR en route charts?

A

Reporting points. Black is VOR; Brown is for NBD.

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9
Q

What do blue stars represent on the IFR en route chart?

A

RNAV reporting points. Solid is compulsory; outlined is when requested by ATC.

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10
Q

What does a filled in VORTAC symbol represent?

A

Mandatory reporting point to ATC.

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11
Q

What are the different altitudes for a Victor airway?

A

MEA–Minimum En Route Altitude assures clearance and nav signal reception.
MOCA–Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude, prefixed with asterisk, assures obstacle clearance but nav signal only within 22 NM of the nav aid; if GPS, can use the entire way. At least 1,000 feet above obstruction within 4 NM of centerline; 2,000 feet if mountain.
OROCA–Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude, off established airways, but does not guarantee NAV reception, radar coverage or ATC comm’n.
MRA–Minimum Reception Altitude, denoted with an R, lowest altitude for a specific NAV aid.
MEA GAP–NAV signal coverage does not meet standards; continue on heading until receive signal again.
MAA–Maximum Authorized Altitude, shown with MAA on chart.

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12
Q

What do short crossbars indicate on a Victor airway?

A

That the MEA changes at the crossbars.

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13
Q

Can a Victor airway have multiple MEAs?

A

Yes, can have MEAs for different directions in anticipation of next climb.

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14
Q

When does changeover between NAV aids occur?

A

Usually, at the midpoint of the airway. If something different, shown by a thick vertical line, and two horizontal lines at top and bottom with different numbers showing number of NM from NAV to change.

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15
Q

What to arrows on radials show?

A

How the intersection is defined.

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16
Q

What does an open headed arrow show on a Victor airway?

A

DME distance and asmuth. Second and successive shows cummulative distances.

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17
Q

What do the airport colors on the VFR En Route denote?

A

Blue or Green–instrument approach is available.

Brown–no instrument approach available, emergency only.

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18
Q

How are the low altitude RNAV Terminal Transition Routes (T-Routes) shown and what do they do?

A

Shown in blue with a T and a three digit number. Includes mileage, GPS MEAs, and reference bearings; need IFR approved GPS to use.

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19
Q

What are GPS and WAAS?

A

Global Positioning System and
Wide Area Augmentation System.

Both part of Global Navigation Satellite System, GNSS.

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20
Q

What is RNAV?

A

Random Area Navigation.

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21
Q

How many many GPS sattelites are in view at any one time?

A

At least 5.

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22
Q

How does GPS positioning work?

A

Based on knowing the position of the satellites and reconciling the clock on the satellite.

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23
Q

How many satellites are required to fix position and altitude?

A

At least 4.

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24
Q

What does WAAS do?

A

Uses two geostationary satellites to improve the accuracy in US airspace system.

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25
What characteristics do GPS satellite signals have?
Line of sight, virtually unaffected by weather.
26
What is accuracy with WAAS?
Typically down to 2-3 meters.
27
Can you rely on WAAS for vertical guidance during approaches?
Yes, it is precise enough.
28
When should you use RNAV?
Once out of traffic areas, direct is the way to go.
29
How does the approach minimum vary between RNAV and other precision approaches?
Lower minimums for RNAV.
30
When do you have to consider using areas instead of direct?
On departure and arrival and any busy terminals in between.
31
What happens if ATC cannot accommodate your long direct leg?
They will issue a full flight plan instead.
32
Will controllers clear you for IFR flight below minimum sector altitudes?
No, and radar coverage is required for certain routes.
33
Do you need a current database in your GPS unit?
No, if you can determine that the waypoints you use are current.
34
What requirements are there on your database to fly GPS approaches?
Must be current.
35
What do you need at a particular location to fly a GPS approach?
RAIM, or Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring, calculates accuracy within limit.
36
What does RAIM require?
One of: 5 GPS satellites in view 4 satellites and barometric altimeter input 4 satellites plus WAAS geostationary in view
37
What does DTK indicate on the GN unit?
Desired Track, or course between two selected waypoints.
38
What does TRK show on the GNS screen?
Actual track of airplane across the ground, continuously updated. Includes wind drift.
39
40
What does the BRG on the GTN show?
The desired track from your CURRENT POSITION to the waypoint.
41
What is XTK on the GTN?
Cross track error, or the distance in miles between your desired track and your position.
42
Is the altitude on the GTN more or less accurate than pressure altitude?
Less, but acceptable backup in emergencyl
43
What is the minimum above a touchdown zone a WAAS GPS unit can provide?
200 feet.
44
What was the original name for transponders?
IFF, or identify friend or foe. Also came Parrot (the transponder), Squawk (set code) and "Strangle the Parrot" (turn it off.
45
What does ADS stand for?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast.
46
What do ADS-B out transponders do?
Continuously sending to anyone and everyone GPS position, altitude and groundspeed.
47
Where is an ADS-B Out transponder required?
Class A airspace Anywhere within 30 NM of the primary airport ("Mode C Veil") Class C airspace and above it Class E airspace above 10,000 MSL, but not below 2,500 AGL
48
What must be the input for ADS-B Out?
Approved position source, basically meaning WAAS.
49
Should you keep your ADS-B on while taxiing?
Yes, major airports use signal to prevent incursions.
50
How often do ADS-B transponders need to be checked?
Every 24 months.
51
Is ADS-B In required?
No, not regulatorily required.
52
What is the difference between Mode C and ADS-B out.
ADS-B added speed and ground track.
53
54
What are the different Instrument ATS (Air Traffic Services) routes?
Victor (VOR) Airways Jet (VOR) Airways Q/T (RNAV) Routes Colored (NDB) Airways Arrival / Departure Routes
55
What altitudes do Victor airways cover?
1,200 AGL to 17,999 MSL
56
What altitudes to Jet Routes cover?
18,000 MSL to FL450
57
How is navigation done above FL 450?
Point to point, or RNAV, navigation.
58
What color are RNAV routes on the high and low altitude IFR charts? What letters are used to identify them?
Blue. On high altitude, they are Q routes. On low altitude, T-routes, used for transitions around busy terminal airspace, and supplements and replacement for decomissioned NAV aids.
59
What are colored routes? How are they designated?
Based on low-medium frequency NAV aids. Alaska and coastal North Carolina. Red, green, amber or blue, and number.
60
How wide are airways?
8 NM, 4 on each side.
61
How much altitude protection do established airways provide?
1,000 feet in non mountainous areas, 2,000 in mountainous
62
How many degrees off course does a full scale deflection of a CDI indicate?
10 degrees
63
How much of a deviation off the VOR centerline does one degree translate to?
At 60 NM from destination, it's 1 NM per degree. At 30 NM from destination, it's 0.5 NM per degree.
64
What time of deviation occurs with GPS from the centerline?
Usually linear, not angular, but can be angular close to destination.
65
What happens to GPS route sensitivity as destination is approached?
Increases.
66
What are the types of VORs?
Low, High and Terminal.
67
What "service volume" does a VOR have?
Low VORs can be detected at least 40 NM from center. High VORs depend on altitude: <14,500 40 NM 14,500 to 17,999 100NM FL18 to FL 450 130 NM Above FL450 to FL60 100NM Terminal are for approach navigation, not for airways, and are good for 25 NM up to 12,000 AGL
68
How many total VOR frequencies are available in the US?
Only 80
69
What changes are in process for VORs?
FAA is reducing the number of VORs and creating a new standard that will guarantee reception out to 70 NM starting at 5,000 ft MSL
70
Can you receive signals for more than one VOR at once?
Yes, given limited numbers, and particularly at high altitudes.
71
How often does a VOR need to be checked?
Every 30 days, but only if the plane will be used for IFR navigation.
72
What methods are available for testing a VOR?
VOT (VOR test facility; transmits 360 on all radials) Designated airborne checkpoint Dual VOR receiver check Radio repair station signal Homemade airborne checkpoint
73
What are the tolerances for VOR checks?
4 degrees for all methods except airborne checkpoints, which are 6
74
What does the VOR test log entry have to include?
PADS: place, amount of error, date and signature
75
What is the pilot's responsibility for VOR checks?
Plane is not airworthy for VOR if VOR has not been properly checked.
76
What will a controller say if you are cleared to fly the flight plan you filed?
"Cleared as filed"; abbreviated clearance.
77
What will controller also specify if the plan is cleared as filed?
Name of destination airport Assigned altitude Departure if Standard Instrument Departure
78
Can you get a clearance at a non-towered airport? If so, how does it differ from a towered airport?
Yes, clearance is given, also with a release time and a void time. You cannot take off until release time.
79
What obligation do you have if you do not take off before void time?
You have to let ATC know within a half hour or search and rescue will be called.
80
What is a "VFR On Top" clearance?
Does not assign an altitude, and allows you to essentially fly VFR for cruise portion of flight.
81
What requirements are there to receive VFR On Top clearance?
Pilots must be IFR rated and current IFR flight plan must be filed IFR clearance must be received
82
How is VFR on top conducted? What obligations does the pilot have?
Must be requested by the pilot. Must follow both IFR and VFR rules. Cruise altitude must be a VFR altitude. Aircraft separation is completely pilot's responsibility.
83
What advantage does VFR on top provide?
Allows pilot to choose best altitude, and climb or descend, without ATC permission for each change.
84
What is a cruise clearance?
Allows to select any altitude between MEA and cruise specified. You are not required to report descent. But if you do, can't return to altitude without clearance.
85
What is a pop-up IFR clearance?
No flight plan on file, but need IFR due to bad weather. Contact ATC and they will help soon.
86
What things do you have to know before a flight?
Runway length destination airport Alternative airports NOTAMS Flight Data Center (FDC) D NOTAMs Pointer NOTAM (point out other important NOTAMS)
87
When do you need IFR clearance?
Required to enter controlled airspace when weather is below VFR minimums. Always required for Class A airspace Not available or required in Class G airspace.
88
What is a composite flight plan?
Combines IFR and VFR; can start one way and end another. Pilot responsible for closing VFR plan and requesting IFR clearance, and for closing IFR plan.
89
What entity provides preflight and in-flight services?
Flight Service Stations
90
What entities provide aircraft separation in controlled airspace?
Towers, approach and departure controls, and Air Rout Traffic Control Centers (ARTCCs).
91
What is the controller's first duty?
Ensuring separation and issuing safety alerts.
92
Who has responsibility to avoid other aircraft and obstructions in VFR weather?
You as pilot.
93
When must you file and receive ATC clearance?
In controlled airspace in less than VFR conditions.
94
Do you need to file or receive ATC clearance in Class G airspace?
No, ATC has no authority or responsibility there, but you still have to follow all IFR rules in IMC conditions. Class G ends at 14,500 feet MSL. Usually much lower, so don't fly through it very often.
95
When does ATC automatically close your flight plan?
Only when you land at a towered airport; you must close when landing elsewhere.
96

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