Instrument Approaches Flashcards
(114 cards)
1
Q
A
2
Q
What are the three groups of approaches?
A
Precision, non-precision and approaches with vertical guidance.
3
Q
What is a precision approach usually?
A
An ILS, or Instrument Landing System. Has lateral guidance and glideslope.
4
Q
What is the DA?
A
The Decision Altitude for a decision approach; if runway is not in sight at DA, you go missed.
5
Q
What are the sources of a non-precision approach?
A
It provides lateral guidance with a VOR, an instrument localizer, or an RNAV/GPS.
6
Q
What is the MDA?
A
Minimum Descent Altitude; you descend manually to the MDA and fly laterally at that altitude for a certain time or distance; go missed if runway is not in sight.
7
Q
A
8
Q
What is an APV?
A
Approach with vertical guidance; has lateral and vertical guidance, but does not meet the official definition of precision approach. E.g., RNAV LPV or LNAV/VNAV.
9
Q
What are the requirements to descend below DA or MDA?
A
Must have: (1) runway (2) markings (3) approach lights or (4) runway lights in site.
And must have visibility specified on approach chart.
Must be able to descend to runway at normal right.
10
Q
What are the parts of an approach briefing?
A
Margin identifier
Briefing strop
Plan view
Profile view
Airport sketch
Minimums
11
Q
What is the IAF?
A
Initial approach fix.
12
Q
What is a TAA?
A
Terminal arrival area.
13
Q
What does NoPT mean?
A
A procedure turn is not authorized; you cannot fly procedure turn.
14
Q
How often are IFR charts updated?
A
Every 28 days.
15
Q
What does a number on the plan view without an underline or overline mean?
A
Recommended altitude.
16
Q
What does the lightening bolt indicate on the profile view?
A
The final approach fix when flying LPV or LNAV/VNAV. The number next to it is the glidepath intercept altitude.
17
Q
What does the maltese cross indicate on the profile view?
A
The final approach fix.
18
Q
What does the “V” indicate in the profile view?
A
It is the VDP, or Visual Descent Point, where you can start visually descending towards runway.
19
Q
What does the shaded area after the V indicate in the profile view?
A
The shaded path is clear of obstacles on a 34 to 1 slope.
20
Q
How you determine which aircraft category you are in for visual minimums?
A
Multiply your landing configuration stall speed (Vso) by 1.3, equals Vref.
21
Q
What are the four situations when PTs are not authorized?
A
- NoPT on chart
- Procedure Turn NA on chart
- ATC Vector-to-Final
- Timed approach from hold
22
Q
What is the MSA?
A
Minimum Safe Altitude, shown on plan view, for nearby sectors from navaid. Only for emergency use, not part of normal approach.
23
Q
What is the typical glideslope slope?
A
3 percent.
24
Q
What are the three components of an ILS?
A
Guidance, range and visual information.
25
Where is the localizer antenna located?
Typically 1,000 feet beyond the rollout end of the ILS runway.
26
How many localizer channels are there? Are they used for multiple purposes?
40, no exclusive to ILS.
27
What is the typical width of a localizer signal?
5 degrees from full scale left to right CDI deflection.
28
How are localizer signal widths adjusted?
Adjusted to be 700 feet wide at the approach end of runway; longer runways have narrow angles and shorter have wider.
29
What distance does full scale deflection of the localizer indicate at the approach threshold?
350 feet
30
How are localizers distinguished from VORs with their morse codes?
Preceded by the letter "I."
31
How does the sensitivity of the localizer compare with that of a VOR?
About 4x more sensitive; 5% at full deflection as opposed to 20%.
32
What is an LDA?
Localizer Type Directional Aid. Same as localizer but not aligned with center line of runway, e.g., because of high terrain.
33
What is an SDF?
Simplified Directional Facility. Like localizer, uses same frequencies, but not with the I prefix. Signal width is either 6 or 12 degrees (not specified). No glide slopes.
34
How are the localizer signals modulated?
One side of center line is 90 hz, and one is 150 hz. Shaded side is 150. Can't tune them in; have to put plane over center. Can have back courses, too, not always used.
35
What is the most common error for localizer?
Too big changes; limited to 5 degrees and then 2 degrees.
36
For small changes on localizer, how should you make correction?
Use rudder, not bank.
37
How do you fly the back course on a localizer?
Fly away from the needle. Or on an HSI, you can set the needle outbound and still fly towards the needle.
38
What is a marker beacon?
Part of an ILS; provides distance information.
39
What direction does a marker beacon transmit? What is it's range pattern?
Straight up; ellipse perpendicular to localizer centerline.
40
What sensitivity to you set a marker beacon to for maximum accuracy?
Low sensitivity.
41
What frequency(ies) do marker beacons transmit on?
All are on same; 75 MHz.
42
What is the outer marker?
Located between 4 and 7 miles from the approach end of runway.
43
What happens at the ILS outer marker?
Glide slope usually begins.
Blue light on the marker beacon receiver brightens and dims with dashes.
44
How are ILS's categorized?
By decision height and visibility. Category I to III; 200 ft and 1/2 mile, 100 ft, and less than 100 ft. II and III need special training.
45
46
What can reduce visibility minimum to 1,800 feet RVR?
Touchdown zone (first 3000 ft) and centerline (entire runway) lighting.
47
What is RVR?
Runway Visual Range, machine-measured horizontal visibility near the approach end; can have zero decision height and zero flight visibility with special pilot and aircraft certification.
48
What provides vertical navigation during an approach?
Glideslope.
49
What frequencies do glideslopes transmit on? How are they selected?
UHF. Automatically selected when you tune in localizer.
50
Where is the glideslope antenna placed? What threshold crossing height does it provide?
About 1,000 feet down the side of the runway from approach end; about 55 feet above threshold.
51
What is the optimal glideslope descent angle?
3 degrees from horizontal, or about 318 feet per mile.
52
What does the glideslope indicator show?
Centerline of the glide path; chase the diamond.
53
What is a false glide slope?
Possible slope above real one due to reflected signals.
54
How can you tell a false glideslope?
Angle is 10 degrees or more; beware of fast descent rate.
55
What are the glideslope dimensions, and how do they play out at outer marker and half mile from threshold?
Total vertical depth is 1.4 degrees, 0.7 each above and below.
At outer marker, about 1,800 feet above the runway; half scale deviation is about 200 feet.
At half mile, depth is about 100 feet; half scale deviation is about 25 feet.
56
How do you calculate the descent rate for glideslope?
Depends on groundspeed; at 90 kts, about 478 per minute.
Estimate by dividing groundspeed by 2 and multiply by 10.
57
How should you correct deviations from glideslope less than half scale?
Pitch changes only.
58
What types of approaches other than an ILS have a glideslope?
Electronically generated glideslopes in LPV, LNAV/VNAV approaches. Require a WAAS transmitter and have DAs almost as low as ILS.
59
What colors are used on the G1000 to show whether RNAV or ILS?
Green is ILS; Magenta is RNAV.
60
What are the advantages of a GPS/RNAV approach?
Since don't rely on ground based instruments, (1) allow straight in approaches, (2) can have several IAFs with don't require procedure turn or course reversal
BUT--usually still include holding pattern at one of the IAFs to use for course reversal when coming from opposite direction
61
What is the most basic type of RNAV approach?
LNAV--lateral guidance only, relies on step-down fixes for descents down to the MDA.
62
What is the most precise RNAV approach?
LPV, localizer performance with vertical guidance.
63
What is the equipment requirement for an RNAV approach?
Database must be current and approach must be identified and loaded from the database.
64
What equipment is necessary to fly an LPV arrpach?
Requires a WAAS-capable GPS and uses WAAS to generate electronic glideslope.
65
With a DA, when must you execute a missed?
Immediately when you hit DA.
66
Which approach will the Garmin automatically select?
LPV if it has a lower minimum.
67
When can an advisory glidepath be available? What is its use?
When flying LNAV or LP approaches with WAAS. Does not change approach minima or MDA. Shown as LNAV+V or LP+V on GPS display.
68
How does the CDI scale change when you approach a terminal area"
It goes from 2 NM to 1 NM.
69
When can you activate the approach?
When you are cleared for the approach?
70
Difference between fly-by and fly-over fixes?
Required to actually fly over, not next to.
71
When are you required to use the ILS for a precision approach?
Only during the final approach segment; GPS overlay can be used during other segments and may provide better situational awareness.
72
How are approaches designed?
To certain standards. To deviate, need approval.
73
What is a sidestep maneuver?
Used for parallel runways that are less than 1,200' apart.
74
What are timed approaches?
Standard approaches entered from holding pattern; ensures proper sequencing without radar. Only at controlled airports.
75
What is a high minimum approach?
Unusually high minimums due to obstructions in the missed approach area.
76
What does a dagger symbol next to a mandatory altitude signify?
ATC can amend the minimum.
77
What are the minimums in parenthesis for?
Military use only.
78
What purpose do lead-in lights serve?
To guide pilots ato the appropriate runway while avoiding terrain, obstacles or for noise abatement.
79
Why would an airport have charted visual approach procedures?
For environmental/noise abatement considerations.
80
Does a Jeppeson chart meet FAA requirements?
Yes, same information just different presentation.
81
What are the five Ts when crossing a fix?
1. Time--if needed
2. Turn--30 to 45 degrees
3. Twist--set OBS to keep clean cockpit
4. Throttle--if need to descend
5. Talk--if required
82
What is bracketing on the final leg of an instrument approach?
Splitting the difference between the heading that took you off course and a heading that brings you back on course.
83
What is a good descent rate that works for most GA aircraft when descending from final to MDA?
800 fpm
84
What is the first step of flying a hold?
Flying over the fix.
85
When do you have to slow to holding speed in advance of a hold?
At least 3 minutes before entering hold.
86
What are the sources of holding patterns?
Either charted or given by ATC
87
What are the components of a non-standard hold?
Direction
Fix
Bearing or airway for holding
Leg length if necessary
Turning direction (if left)
Expect further clearance time
88
What are standard holding directions and length?
Right turns; 1 minute up to 14K MSL; 1.5 minutes above
89
What turns do you use on a hold?
Standard rate but not more than 30%
90
Which leg should be made to be 1 minute?
Inbound leg; change outbound to compensate.
91
What are circling approaches?
When no runway designated, or permits more than one runway.
92
What is the maximum deviation between approach and runway heading for a straight in approach?
30 degrees, 15 for GPS
93
Why would a circling approach be called for even when the runway is aligned with the approach?
If excessive descents are required.
94
How are non-straight in approaches designated?
With a letter rather than a number.
95
What restrictions are there on visibility for a circling approach?
Must maintain visual contact with airport while circling at or above MDA; must go missed unless momentary due to normal bank turning.
96
What is the standard circling radius protection for Category A aircraft?
1.3 miles
97
What does a relief "C" before the Circling minimums reflect?
Expanded area of protection, but mostly for faster aircraft.
98
Can you land straight in on a circling approach?
Yes, if the weather conditions permit.
99
Where can you start a missed approach and be assured of obstacle clearance?
Only at the missed approach point.
100
What is a VDP?
Visual descent point--point on the final approach course that allows a normal descent from MDA that is obstruction free.
101
Are VDPs mandatory?
No
102
Where is VDP positioned?
Where the VASI glide slope intersects the lowest MDA.
103
Can you use GPS instead of DME?
Yes.
104
When do you not need to specify an alternate airport IFR?
1--one hour before and after flight
2--2,000' or grater ceiling
3--3 SM visibility
105
When planning an alternate, what do you need to check?
For alternate whether minimums.
106
When actually diverting to an alternate airport, what minimums do you need to abide by?
Only the minimums for the procedure you choose; alternate airport minimums are not required.
107
What are the fuel requirements for IFR?
To fly to destination, then alternate, then 45 minutes.
108
If there is no TAF published for a destination or alternate airport, how do you judge weather?
Use the clouds and visibility forecast layers on the graphical forecast for aviation utility.
109
When can you use an airport with no instrument approach as an alternate?
When the weather is forecast to permit an approach and landing from the MEA in VFR conditions.
110
What are the default alternate minimums if none are published>
600' and 2 miles for precision, 800' and 2 miles for a non-precision.
111
What does a black triangle letter A at the top of the approach chart mean?
The IFR alternate weather minimums are not default; go to the Terminal Procedures Supplement to find.
112
How can pilots determine which sector of the TAA their plane enter?
Magnetic bearing to designated fix.
113
How is the hold in lieu of PT used?
Fly the entry to the hold and proceed inbound.
114
What does the TAA approach use instead of an MSA?
Operationally usable altitudes depicted for multiple areas of an approach.
