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Instrument Certificate (DA 40NG) > IFR Trouble Areas > Flashcards

IFR Trouble Areas Flashcards

1
Q

Pitot-Static Failure:

What will happen if your Pitot Tube AND Drain hole are blocked?

A

The Airspeed Indicator will act as an altimeter:

Airspeed will INCREASE during a climb, DECREASE during a descent. No longer reliable

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2
Q

Pitot-Static Failure:

What will happen if just your Pitot Tube is blocked but the drain hole is open?

A

The Airspeed Indicator will drop to zero

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3
Q

Pitot-Static Failure:

What will happen to your instruments if all your Static Ports are blocked?

A

Airspeed:
- At altitudes above the failure, it will read lower than normal
- At altitudes BELOW the failure it will read higher than normal
- Inverse effect, higher means lower, lower means higher

Altimeter:
- Freezes at the failure altitude

VSI:
- Gradually reduces to ZERO and freezes
Airspeed = Altitude

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4
Q

What will happen to your instruments when using the Alternate Static source?

A

Airspeed:
- Will read higher than normal

Altimeter:
- Will read slightly higher than normal

VSI:
- Will momentarily indicate a climb

*Pressure inside the cabin is lower than pressure outside

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5
Q

What can be said about the pressure readings from the Static Ports vs the Alternate Static Source and why?

A
  1. The pressure from the Alternate Static Source will be lower than the pressure from the Static Ports
  2. This is because of the Venturi Effect of fast moving air flowing around the fuselage, thus the air pressure inside the cabin is lower than the air pressure outside
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6
Q

What are the different types of Hypoxia?

A

Hypoxic - Altitude/pressure
Hypemic - Carbon Monoxide (CO) poisoning or blood loss
Histotoxic - Alcohol/drugs
Stagnant - G-force, limbs fall asleep

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7
Q

What is Hypoxia broadly speaking?

A

An oxygen deficiency in the blood cells (brain)

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8
Q

What are the symptoms of Hypoxia (10)?

A
  1. Confusion
  2. Drowsiness
  3. Headache
  4. Lightheaded/Dizzy/foggy brain
  5. Tingly sensation
  6. Sweating
  7. Poor coordination
  8. Impaired Judgement
  9. Tunnel vision
  10. Euphoria
  11. Blue fingers & Lips (Cyanosis)
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9
Q

What is Hypoxic Hypoxia?

A

At higher altitudes there’s less pressure, therefore less oxygen is able to be pressed into the membranes of the lungs for use by the body and brain.

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10
Q

What is Hypemic Hypoxia?

A

Inability of the blood to carry Oxygen molecules (normally caused by anemia or blood loss)

Carbon Monoxide poisoning causes this:
- CO molecules attach themselves to the blood cells and block them from absorbing oxygen molecules

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11
Q

What is Histotoxic Hypoxia?

A

Cells inside the body cannot effectively use oxygen

Caused by Alcohol or Drugs

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12
Q

What is Stagnant Hypoxia

A

Oxygen deficiency due to lack of circulation

Caused by G-Forces, Cold temperatures, or limbs falling asleep

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13
Q

How might the effects of altitude be different at night and why?

A
  1. Night vision can begin to deteriorate at altitudes as low as 5,000 ft
  2. This is because the Rods in our eyes, the cells responsible for night vision, are more sensitive to oxygen deficiency than the Cones
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14
Q

What is Hyperventilation why does it occur?

A
  1. A rapid increase in rate of breathing, that can eventually result in unconsciousness
  2. An excessive amount of Carbon Dioxide (CO2) is being exhaled from the body

**Symptoms are similar to Hypoxia

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15
Q

How much time of useful consciousness can you expect to have up to 20,000ft in a Hypoxia scenario?

A

PHAK

At least 30 mins, maybe more.
Depending on altitude. (PHAK Chart, 17-4)

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16
Q

What are the symptoms of Hyperventilation?

A

PHAK

  1. Visual Impairment
  2. Eventual unconsciousness
  3. Lightheaded/Dizzy
  4. Tingly sensation
  5. Hot & Cold sensation
  6. Muscle Spasms
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17
Q

What are the remedies for Hyperventilation?

A
  1. Conscious effort to slow breathing rate
  2. Breath into a bag
  3. Talk out loud
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18
Q

What are the equipment and entry requirements for Class A airspace?

A

PHAK 15-9

Entry:
1. IFR rated
2. IFR flight plan
3. ATC clearance

Equipment:
1. Two-way radio
2. Transponder with at least Mode C
3. ADS-B Out
4. Aircraft must be IFR equipped

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19
Q

What are the equipment and entry requirements for Class B airspace?

A

PHAK 15-9

Entry:
1. ATC clearance
2. Hold at least a PPL (to operate at primary airport), unless specific requirements are met

Equipment:
1. Two-way radio
2. Transponder with at least Mode C
3. ADS-B Out

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20
Q

What are the equipment and entry requirements for Class C airspace?

A

Entry:
1. Establish Two-way radio comms

Equipment:
1. Two-way radio
2. Transponder Mode C
3. ADS-B Out

*Satellite Airports
- Towered: Maintain comms with tower
- Untowered: Establish comms with Class C as soon as practicable

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21
Q

What are the equipment and entry requirements for Class D airspace?

A

Entry:
1. Establish Two-way radio comms

Equipment:
1. Two-way radio

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22
Q

What are the most prominent types of NOTAMs?

A

Boldmethod & CFI Notebook

  1. D NOTAM - Domestic or Distant NOTAMS: Navigational Facilities, Public Use airports
  2. FDC NOTAM - Flight Data Center NOTAMS: Instrument Approaches & Airways
  3. SAA NOTAM - Special Activity Airspace NOTAMS: When Special use airspace is active outside of normal times
  4. Military NOTAM - Pertinent to US military Nav Aids & Airports
  5. GPS NOTAM - GPS & WAAS related
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23
Q

What is a D NOTAM?

A

Domestic or Distant NOTAM

Relays information on all Nav Aids and Airports such as..
- RWY/Taxiway closures
- VGSI lighting
- Taxiway lights
- Field conditions
- VORs & NDBs

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24
Q

What is an FDC NOTAM?

A

Flight Data Center NOTAM

Relays information on Instrument Approach Procedures & Aeronautical charts such as..
- Airway structure changes
- IAP changes (mins ETC)
- DP & STAR changes
- TFRs
- Laser light activity

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25
Q

What is an SAA NOTAM?

A

Special Activity Airspace NOTAM

Relays information related to Airspace being activated outside of normally published times, like SUA.

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26
Q

What is a Military NOTAM?

A

A NOTAM published which concerns military Nav Aids or Military airports

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27
Q

What is a GPS NOTAM? What does ‘GPS Unreliable’ mean?

A

A NOTAM concerning GPS/WAAS outages, testing & anomalies.

  • GPS Unreliable means that the expected level of service may not be available and pilots should GPS adequacy and should have ground based navigation equipment available
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28
Q

EMERGENCY:

List the items (11) to be completed during an Engine Failure in Flight

A
  1. Best glide, 88 Kts
  2. Flaps up
  3. Suitable landing site
  4. Voter switch check
  5. Fuel Pump ON
  6. Fuel Valve NORMAL
  7. Alternate air (if required)
  8. Fuel Quantity CHECKED
  9. Fuel Transfer Pump (if required)
  10. Electronic Master ON
  11. Engine Master ON

**Proceed with Emergency Landing with Engine Off checklist

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29
Q

EMERGENCY:

List the items (4) to be completed during an Engine Fire in Flight

A
  1. Cabin Heat OFF
  2. Suitable Landing Site
  3. Fuel Valve OFF
  4. Power Lever MAX

**Proceed with non-memory items listed in QRC

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30
Q

EMERGENCY:

List the items (4) to be completed during a Smoke in the Cabin scenario

A
  1. Emergency Battery ON
  2. Avionics Master OFF
  3. Electronic Master OFF
  4. Cabin Heat OFF

** Proceed with non-memory items listed in QRC

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31
Q

What are the training requirements for an IR applicant under part 141?

A

FAR 141 Appx C

  • 35hrs flight training (61: 40+50hrs Xcountry), of which more than 40% cannot be in a FTD. All time must be with CFII
  • 30 hrs of ground training
  • 250 NM cross country, with at least one leg being a straight line distance of 100 NM. (along airways/ATC routing, IAP at each airport, 3 kinds of IAPs)
  • Have a PPL or be working towards one
  • Valid medical
  • Read write speak understand english
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32
Q

What is required to be completed in the IFR training Cross Country flight?

A

FAR 141 Appx C

  • 250 NM total
  • One leg must be at least 100 NM
  • Must be along airways or ATC directed routing
  • IAP at each airport of landing
  • 3 Different kinds of IAPs
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33
Q

What are the general requirements for obtaining an IFR rating?

A

FAR 61.65 & FAR 141 Appx C

  • Read, write, speak English
  • Receive ground training (30hrs 141)
  • Receive logbook endorsement for test
  • Passed written test
  • Completed flight hour requirement (35hrs 141)
  • Completed 250 NM X country flight
  • Pass the Practical test
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34
Q

When is an IFR rating required?

A

FAR 61.3, 61.133, 91,135, 91.157

  1. When under an IFR flight plan
  2. When less than VFR mins
  3. When in Class A airspace
  4. Special VFR at night (sunset/sunrise)
  5. When carrying pax for hire on X country flights greater than 50 NM OR at Night
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35
Q

What are the 4 main ways the VOR check may be completed?

A
  1. VOT facility
  2. Certified Ground checkpoint
  3. Certified Air checkpoint
  4. Dual VOR check
36
Q

How is the VOR check done with a VOT?

A
  1. Find the VOT information in the C/S or with FSS
  2. In the air or on the ground the OBS should be CENTERED and read 0 FM, or 180 TO.
37
Q

How is the VOR check done at a certified Air checkpoint?

A
  1. Check the C/S for a suitable VOR checkpoint, air or ground.
  2. Follow the instructions (location and radials to be received)
  3. Error is +- 4 on the ground, & +- 6 in the air.
38
Q

How can a VOR check be done on a dual VOR system using a certified Air or Ground checkpoint?

A
  1. Check the CS for a suitable VOR checkpoint, air or ground
  2. Follow instructions (location & radials to be recieved)
39
Q

What acronym do we use to remember what information we must log after completing a VOR Check?

A

SLED

S - Signature
L - Location
E - Error amount
D - Date

40
Q

What must be done at the end of every VOR Check?

A

It must be logged (SLED)

S - Signature
L - Location
E - Error amount
D - Date

41
Q

What is a Microburst?

A

Microburst - A type of Wind Sheer resulting in an intense local downdraft that spreads outward at the surface in all directions, causing both vertical and horizontal wind sheer

42
Q

What can be said about the intensity of a Microburst?

A

CFI Notebook

Intensity
- Can produce downdrafts as strong as 6,000 FPM
- Surface winds can be as strong as 45kts resulting in a 90kt sheer from headwind to tailwind which occur within a few hundred ft of the ground

43
Q

What can be said about the duration a Microburst?

A

CFI Notebook

Duration
- Can last from 5 to 20 mins
- Winds usually keep intensifying for the first 5 mins

44
Q

What can be said about the dimensions of a Microburst?

A

CFI Notebook

Dimensions
- Up to 2.5 miles in diameter at the surface
- Less then 1 mile wide at the stem

45
Q

What would be the visual indications of a microburst (5)?

A

CFI Notebook

  1. Convective activity, they occur in about 5% of storms
  2. Heavy rain downdraft
  3. Virga
  4. If no rain is present, blowing dust is a sign
  5. Significant change between wind speeds at 2,000ft AGL and the surface
46
Q

What is the most severe type of Wind Shear?

A

Aviation Weather Handbook

  • A Microburst
47
Q

What are the different kinds of Wind Shear that could be encountered?

A

Performance Increasing
- Strong Headwind, or decreasing Tailwind

Performance Decreasing
- Strong Tailwind, or decreasing Headwind

48
Q

What could be expected when flying through a Performance Increasing Wind Shear?

A

Aviation Weather Handbook

  • An increase in Indicated Airspeed
  • Decrease in Groundspeed
  • Pitching up motion, due to the increased amount of Lift being produced
49
Q

What could be expected when flying through a Performance Decreasing Wind Shear?

A

Aviation Weather Handbook

  • Loss of Indicated Airspeed
  • Increase in Groundspeed
  • Pitching down motion, due to decreased Lift produced
50
Q

Which loading scenario is worse, a more Forward CG, or an Aft CG?

A

An Aft CG is preferable because:
- Much more fuel efficient
- Lower stall speed

51
Q

What are the characteristics of a Forward CG?

A

Pros:
- More Longitudinal stability
- Good stall recovery
Cons:
- Higher Stall speed (higher AOA to fly straight and level because tail-down force adds weight)
- Less fuel efficient (more drag due to higher AOA and large tail-down force)
- Longer T/O roll
- Higher Vr speed
- Difficult to flare the landing

52
Q

What are the characteristics of an Aft CG?

A

Pros:
- Much more fuel efficient (less drag)
- Lower Stall Speed (lower AOA)
- Shorter T/O roll
- Lower Vr speed
Cons:
- Less Longitudinal stability
- Bad stall recover

53
Q

What might a planes flight path through a microburst look like?

A

Boldmethod

  • As the plane reaches the outside of the microburst it will experience a strong headwind, which causes an increase in lift and a climb
  • As the plane reaches the middle or downdraft portion of the microburst, the aircraft will begin to sink
  • As the plane reaches the other side of the microburst, it will experience a strong tailwind and a further tendency to sink
54
Q

Why is a higher AOA required when an aircraft is loaded with a more Forward CG?

A

PHAK

  • This is because more tail downforce is needed to counteract the nose down tendency of a forwardly loaded CG, the extra tail downforce essentially adds ‘weight’ to the aircraft which requires more Lift to be produced (higher AOA) to maintain straight and level flight.
55
Q

What is a SIGMET issued for?

A

AIM 7-1-6

Severe weather NOT associated with a thunderstorm such as…

Remember: SADCAT
S - Severe Icing or Turbulence
A - Ash (volcanic)
D - Dust or Sandstorms reducing vis below VFR, (3 SM)
CAT - Clear Air Turbulence

56
Q

How long is a SIGMET valid for?

A

AIM 7-1-6

4 hrs

57
Q

What is a Convective SIGMET issued for?

A

AIM 7-1-6

Severe Thunderstorms (embedded, squall line, producing heavy precip) due to..

  • Winds 50 kts or more
  • Hail 3/4 inch or more
  • Tornados

**Any Convective SIGMET implies SEVERE icing, turbulence and LLWS

58
Q

How long is a Convective SIGMET valid for ?

A

AIM 7-1-6

Up to 2 hrs.

59
Q

How long are AIRMETS valid for?

A

AIM 7-1-6

Issued on a scheduled basis every 6 HRS

60
Q

What is an AIRMET T issued for?

A

AIM 7-1-6

  1. Moderate Turbulence
  2. LLWS (non-convective)
  3. Winds greater than 30 kts at the surface
61
Q

What is an AIRMET Z issued for?

A

AIM 7-1-6

  1. Moderate Icing
  2. Freezing levels
62
Q

What is VFR?

A

AIM 7-1-7

Viz = More than 5 SM
Ceil = More than 3,000 ft

63
Q

What is MVFR

A

AIM 7-1-7

Viz = 3-5 SM
Ceil = 1,000 to 3,000 ft

*Full range is inclusive

64
Q

What is IFR?

A

AIM 7-1-7

Viz = 1 to less than 3 SM
Ceil = 500 to less than 1,000 ft

65
Q

What is LIFR?

A

AIM 7-1-7

Viz = Less than 1 SM
Ceil = Less than 500ft

66
Q

PIREP Reporting conditions: Trace Ice

A

AIM 7-1-19

  1. Ice is barely noticeable
  2. Less than 1/4 inch accumulation per hour
67
Q

PIREP Reporting conditions: Light Ice

A

AIM 7-1-19

  1. Occasional cycling of deicing systems required
  2. 1/4 to 1 inch accumulation per hour
68
Q

PIREP Reporting conditions: Moderate Ice

A

AIM 7-1-19

  1. Frequent cycling of deicing systems required
  2. 1 to 3 inches accumulation per hour
69
Q

PIREP Reporting Conditions: Severe Ice

A

AIM 7-1-19

  1. Deicing systems cannot keep up with rate of accumulation
  2. More than 3 inch accumulation per hour
70
Q

PIREP Reporting Conditions: Light Turbulence

A

AIM 7-1-21

  1. Momentary slight changes in Altitude or Attitude
  2. Slight pressing against seat belts or small object movement

**Any turbulence NOT associated with altitude or attitude changes is called CHOP: Light, Moderate, Severe, Extreme.

71
Q

PIREP Reporting Conditions: Moderate Turbulence

A

AIM 7-1-21

  1. Significant changes in Altitude, Attitude, OR variations in AIRSPEED. Yet aircraft remains in positive control at all times
  2. Significant pressing against seat belts, or loose objects becoming dislodged.

**Any turbulence NOT associated with altitude or attitude changes is called CHOP: Light, Moderate, Severe, Extreme.

72
Q

PIREP Reporting Conditions: Severe Turbulence

A

AIM 7-1-21

  1. Large abrupt changes in Altitude, Attitude, OR AIRSPEED, MOMENTARY loss of control
  2. Violent pressure against seatbelts, or objects are tossed about

**Any turbulence NOT associated with altitude or attitude changes is called CHOP: Light, Moderate, Severe, Extreme.

73
Q

PIREP Reporting conditions: Extreme Turbulence

A

AIM 7-1-21

  1. Aircraft is impossible to control
  2. Aircraft damage may occur
74
Q

What are the 3 most commonly used Transponder types?

A

Pilot Institute

Mode A
- Only provide interrogation
- Only input and output is a 4 digit code

Mode C
- Allows for altitude encoding for ATCs use

Mode S
- Altitude, Airspeed, heading encoding for ATC
- Information from other aircraft
- TIS-B & FIS-B

75
Q

What is the purpose of the MON?

A

Minimum Operational Network
- To allow aircraft to be able to land under IFR anywhere within 100 NM during a GPS outage without the need for DME or ADF.

  1. A MON airport will be within 100 NM of any aircraft and land with an ILS, LOC, or VOR approach
  2. VOR to VOR navigation from 5,000 FT AGL and above
76
Q

Describe the characteristics of the Outer Marker Beacon

A

Color: Blue
Distance: 4-7 nm from RWY
Sound: - - - -
Denotes: GS intercept (FAF)

77
Q

Describe the characteristics of the Middle Marker Beacon

A

Color: Amber/Yellow
Distance: 3,500ft from RWY
Sound: . - . - . -
Denotes: DA on Cat 1 aprchs

78
Q

Describe the characteristics of the Inner Marker Beacon

A

Color: White
Distanc: NA
Sound: . . . . .
Denotes: DH on Cat 2/3 aprchs

79
Q

Describe the difference between the lengths of a Precision and Non-precision Approach Lighting System, and why this is useful to know

A

Precision
- 2,500 to 3,000ft long

Non-Precision
- 1,400 to 1,500ft long

**This is useful because it can be used to estimate visibility conditions

80
Q

What 4 BASIC things are needed to fly IFR?

A
  1. IFR rated aircraft
  2. IFR rated pilot
  3. IFR flight plan
  4. ATC clearance
81
Q

What additional equipment is required to enter Class B airspace specifically under IFR?

A

FAR 91.131

An operable VOR system OR an operable and suitable RNAV system

82
Q

What are the 3 fundamentals of instrument flight?

A

Remember: CIA (in order)
1. C - Cross check
2. I - Instrument interpretation
3. A - Aircraft Control

83
Q

What are the Position Reporting items required in a non-radar situation?

A

AIM 5-2-3
“A-PTA-TEN-R”
A - Aircraft ID
P - Position
T - Time
A - Altitude

T - Type of flight plan
E - ETA & Name of next fix
N - Name only of next fix after that
R - Remarks

84
Q

Under what conditions should a missed approach be executed?

A
  1. At MDA/DA without RWY environment in sight
  2. Unable to make a normal landing (passing VDP)
  3. Unstable Approach
  4. Losing sight of the RWY environment
  5. When ATC tells you
85
Q

What are the 3 most common errors in instrument flying?

A

Remember: FOE

F - Fixation
O - Omission
E - Emphasis

86
Q

When may hazardous wind shear be expected

A
  1. Low level temperature inversions
  2. Frontal zones (storms)
  3. Clear Air Turbulence

Instrument Certificate (DA 40NG) (23 decks)

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