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IID & Immuno Flashcards

1
Q

Congenital syphilis skeletal abnormalities

A
  • demineralization of proximal medial tibia (Wimberger sign)
  • sawtooth metaphyseal serration (Wegener sign)
  • diaphyseal periosteal reaction with new bone formation
  • Irregular areas of rarefaction and increased density (moth-eaten appearance)
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2
Q

Small stippled epiphyses and cortical thickening

A

congenital hypothyroidism

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3
Q

osteopenia with callus formation and pseudo paralysis

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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4
Q

extensive bone resorption and generalized bone radiolucency.

A

Hyperparathyroidism

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5
Q

umbilical cord with blue and red stripes interspersed with white areas

A

subacute necrotizing funiculitis; congenital syphilis

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6
Q

HIV viral loads checkpoints for baby born to mother with well controlled HIV

A

<48 hours
14 to 21 days after birth
1 to 2 months of age
4 to 6 months of age.

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7
Q

GBS facts

A
  • encapsulated by a polysaccharide layer rich in sialic acid
  • catalase-negative, bacitracin resistant, and forms beta-hemolysin, a pore-forming toxin that destroys the host’s red blood cells resulting in hemolysis
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8
Q

Hutchinson triad

A
  1. Hutchinson teeth
  2. interstitial keratitis
  3. SNHL
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9
Q

common microbes isolated from peritoneal cultures in cases of spontaneous intestinal perforation.

A

Candida and coagulase-negative staphylococcus epidermidis

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10
Q

XR findings and timing of signs in osteomyelitis

A

Diagnosis may be apparent on XR by 7 to 10 days post-infection as evidenced by bony destruction, focal area of metaphyseal necrosis, and soft tissue swelling.
do skeletal survey to assess other bone invovement

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11
Q

Cytomegalovirus virus type

A

double-stranded herpes DNA virus passed via secretions, sexual
intercourse, blood products, transplacental, intrapartum or via breastmilk→ standard

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12
Q

Rubella type and precautions

A

RNA virus passed via respiratory secretions→ contact and respiratory
droplet

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13
Q

Listeria: type and precautions

A

gram-positive rod passed via unpasteurized milk and soft cheeses, uncooked meat
and unwashed raw vegetables→ standard

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14
Q

ParvoB19: type and precautions

A

single-stranded DNA passed via respiratory secretions, transplacental→
droplet

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15
Q

HSV type and precautions

A

double-stranded herpes DNA virus passed via contact with lesions, or
rarely transplacental→ contact

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16
Q

Toxo type and precautions

A

intracellular parasite passed by poorly cooked meat, cat feces or
transplacental→ standard

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17
Q

RSV type and precautions

A

RNA paramyxovirus passed by direct contact with secretions,
highly contagious→ contact

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18
Q

Varicella type and precautions

A

DNA herpes virus passed via respiratory droplets, contact with rash or transplacental→ airborne and contact

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19
Q

HIV type and precautions

A

RNA retrovirus passed via blood, sexual contact,
transplacental or via breastmilk→standard

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20
Q

TB type and precautions

A

slow-growing acid-fast bacillus

respiratory secretions
mucous membranes or skin
rarely hematogenous spread from an infected placenta or aspiration of infected amniotic fluid

airborne and contact

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21
Q

Risk of stillbirth

A

Listeria, Parvovirus B19, Syphilis, Malaria

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22
Q

CMV transmission via BM

A
  • CMV transmission via breast milk is more likely to occur among preterm infants
  • Freezing and pasteurization reduces CMV transmission
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23
Q

Toxoplasmosis Transmission and Severity

A

Transmission increases with GA
Severity decreases with GA

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24
Q

Treponema pallidum transmission and severity

A

Transmission can occur at any time
Severity increases with GA

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25
Q

Rubella transmission and severity

A

Transmission most likely in early and late pregnancy (U-shaped
distribution)
Severity decreases with GA

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26
Q

CMV transmission and severity

A

Transmission any time
Severity decreases with GA

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27
Q

Timing of HSV surface cultures in asymptomatic exposued in infant

A

12-24 hours after birth

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28
Q

When does IgG disappear?

A

9 months

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29
Q

When does IgG decrease

A

6 months

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30
Q

HIV positive mom breastfeeding concerns

A

Antiretroviral drugs have differential penetration in human milk, raising concerns about toxicity
to infants receiving breastmilk

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31
Q

Definitive rule out of HIV in infant born to HIV positive mother

A

1) 2+ negative HIV RNA or DNA ≥1 months age (1 ≥4 months)

2) 2+ negative HIV Ab test ≥6 months

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32
Q

When does IgA production begin in neonate

A

After birth

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33
Q

Osteomyelitis MC sites

A

METAPHYSIS
femur > humerus > tibia > radius > maxilla

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34
Q

Osteo treatment

A

21-42 days PCNase resistent penicillin, aminoglycoside or cephalosporin

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35
Q

septic arthritis treatment

A

2-6 weeks PCNase resistent penicillin and aminoglycoside

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36
Q

osteo prognosis

A

joint deformities if epiphyseal plate damage

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37
Q

septic arthritis prognosis

A

greater risk than osteo of permanent abnormality

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38
Q

omphalitis treatment

A

PCNase resistant - use methicillin/nafcillin/oxacillin
vanco if MRSA
gentamicin or cephalosporin
+ anaerobic if black periumbilical region

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39
Q

Meningitis spread

A

hematogenous

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40
Q

Duration of treatment for meningitis

A

10-14 days GBS
14-21 days Listeria
21+ days for GNR

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41
Q

if E.coli UTI consider what other disease

A

galactosemia

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42
Q

acute purulent conjunctivitis

A

s. aureus

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43
Q

N.gonorrhea conjunctivitis prevention and treatment

A

0.5% erythro preventino
treat with 3rd gen cephalosporin

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44
Q

Chlamydia treatment

A

no prevention
treat with 14 days PO erythromycin 20% require 2nd course

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45
Q

which is MCC conjunctivitis

A

chlamydiae

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46
Q

which conjunctivitis is more puruluent

A

gonorrhea

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47
Q

Chorioretinitis causes and differences

A

salt and pepper: syphillis, Rubella

yellow + white lesions: HSV, CMV

atrophic: toxo

fluffy white: candida

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48
Q

MCC serotype GBS

A

III

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49
Q

IAP effect on late onset GBS

A

none

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50
Q

GBS mortality EOS and LOS

A

5-10% and 2-6%

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51
Q

MCC serotype listeria EOS

A

serotype Ia and Ib

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52
Q

AF in listeria

A

chocolate colored

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53
Q

LOS

A

IVB

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54
Q

mortality of listeria

A

EOS 25% and late 15%

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55
Q

Syphillis placenta

A

large

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56
Q

Syphilis % symptomatic

A

33%

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57
Q

Nontreponemal screening tests

A

VDRL and RPR

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58
Q

Treponemal confirmatory tests

A

FTA-ABS, particle agglutination or enzyme immunoassay

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59
Q

how long do treponemal tests stay reactive

A

for life even after treatment

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60
Q

What disease leads to false positive treponemal test

A

Lyme disease with ANA positive; VDRL will show true negative

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61
Q

False positive non-treponemal tests

A

AI, TB, viral, endocarditis, passive maternal IgG

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62
Q

False negative non-treponemal tests

A

early primary, latent, late congenital or if prozone phenomenon (excess Abs prevent complexing - so dilute the sera)

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63
Q

when do you repeat a negative treponemal test if non-treponemal screening was positive

A

2-4 weeks

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64
Q

when to retreat infant with syphillis

A

if titers (obtained 2,4,6,12 mos) are increasing or persistent - LP and treat with PCN 10 days

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65
Q

Diagnosis media for gonorrhea

A

Thayer-Martin (rapid plating)

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66
Q

GC conjunctivitis requires emergent treatment bc

A

corneal ulceration or perforation

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67
Q

what is not seen on gram stain

A

chlamydia trachomatis

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68
Q

C.trach treatment

A

14 days PO erythromycin base or ethylsuccinate

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69
Q

untreated maternal chlamydia ppx for infant

A

none

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70
Q

untreated maternal gonorrhea ppx for infant

A

1 dose ceftriaxone

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71
Q

TB transmission congenital and postnatal

A

congenital:hematogenous and infected AF

postnatal: resp secretions or traumatized MM or skin

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72
Q

asymptomatic baby, active TB mom

what is testing plan?

A

inh for 3-4 months then ppd
positive > reassess for TB
if no disease INH 9 months (12 if HIV)
negative > dc INH
repeat PPD q2-3mos for 1 year then yearly

isolate baby if mother noncompliant, respiratory symptoms or MDR

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73
Q

congenital TB treatment

what do you add if meningitis?

A

INH, RIF, pyrazinamide + aminoglycoside
+ CTX if meningitis
typically 9-12 months

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74
Q

C.botulinum affects what neurotransmitter

A

ACh release –> descending paralysis, ocular palsy, poor feeding

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75
Q

Dx botulinism

A

Stool toxin
EMG: incremental response at high fx, abnormal spontaneous activity, abundant & brief small amplitude AP

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76
Q

TX botulinism

A

human derived IV botulism Ig

NOT abx - aminoglycosides can increase NM blockade

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77
Q

C.tetani affects what neurotransmitter

A

blocks GABA and NMJ –> difficulty swallowing, rigidity, muscle spasms, fever, continuous crying, seizure, lockjaw

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78
Q

Tx C.tetani

A

tetanus Ig : neutralize circulating unbound toxin
PCN G 10-14 days
diazepam for muscle spasms

still need vaccine because disease does not confer immunity

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79
Q

Use of dexamethasone in H.influenzae

A

to prevent hearing loss in meningitis - give with or before first dose of antibiotics

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80
Q

most common strain of RSV

A

A

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81
Q

Infant > 2000 g what to do based on maternal hep B status

A

negative - hep B after birth

unknown - test mom ASAP, hep B to baby < 12 hours; 7 days await moms results

positive - hep B vax + HBIg < 12 hours

+2 more doses for all

Breastfeeding does not increase risk

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82
Q

Infant < 2000 g what to do based on maternal hep B status

A

negative - hep B when > 2000 g, 30 days or at dc whichever first

unknown - test mom ASAP, hep B vax < 12 hours; 12 hours to await moms results

positive - hep B vax + HBIg < 12 hours

+3 more doses (unless first given > 2000g then only 2 more)

Breastfeeding does not increase risk

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83
Q

maternal hep C positive

A

test neonate, NAAT at 1-2 months

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84
Q

ToRCH highest risk LBW

A

CMV

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85
Q

ToRCH highest risk HSM

A

CMV

86
Q

ToRCH highest risk jaundice

A

CMV

87
Q

ToRCH highest risk petechiae

A

CMV

88
Q

ToRCH highest risk CHD

A

Rubella (esp if <10 wk GA

89
Q

ToRCH highest risk cataracts

A

rubella

90
Q

ToRCH highest risk chorioretinitis

A

toxo

91
Q

ToRCH highest risk microcephaly

A

CMV

92
Q

ToRCH highest risk cerebral calcifications and locations

A

toxo cortical > CMV periventricular

93
Q

HIV subtypes

A

HIV 1: M (major), O (outlier), N (new)

HIV 2 milder

94
Q

PCP infection in HIV infants

A

at 3-6 months; radiographic diffuse alveolar infiltrative pneumonia

95
Q

Preferred test to diagnose HIV1 and what does timing of positivity tell us about method of transmission?

A

HIV1 DNA PCR
Positive < 2 days - in utero infection
Positive day 2-6 - intrapartum infection

96
Q

HIV positive mom when to test baby

A

< 48 hours
14-21 days
1-2 months
4-6 months

97
Q

a nonbreastfeeding baby is considered presumptive negative if

A

2 negative PCR > 2 weeks and > 4 weeks
1 negative PCR > 8 weeks
1 negative Ab > 6 months

98
Q

Zidovudine is what type of drug

A

nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitor

99
Q

Neviripine is what type of drug

A

non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

100
Q

How long should HIV exposed babies get bactrim?

A

start at 4-6 weeks and if determined negative can stop

continue 1 year if positive, longer if abnormal CD4 count

101
Q

Enterovirus diagnosis and management

A

reverse transcriptase PCR and culture of any body fluid
Tx IVIg if life threatening disease; pleconaril but not currently available

102
Q

difference betweem ampho b and liposomal ampho b

A

liposomal is less nephrotoxix

103
Q

candida may have resistance to which antifungal

A

fluconazole

104
Q

how does ampho b and fluconazole work

A

-ampho B binds sterols disrupting fungal cell wall synthesis
- fluconazole inhibits production of major component of fungal cell wall

105
Q

what is flucytosine used for?

A

second agent to ampho b in fungal meningitis

106
Q

which fungal infection has an association with intralipid administration

A

malassezia; requires exogenous long chain fatty acids for growth

107
Q

what medication given to moms decreases transmission of toxo

A

spiromycin

108
Q

treatment of toxo in infants and duration

A

pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine for 1 year

folinic acid to prevent neutropenia from pyrimethamine

109
Q

vaccines contraindicated during pregnancy

A

live: MMR and varicella

110
Q

vaccines contraindicated in HIV babies

A

oral polio, bCG, MMR-varicella relatively

111
Q

components of breastmilk that are antibacterial

A

lactoferrin high; bacteriostatic
lactoperoxidase: low; requires hydrogen peroxide and thiocyanate for antibacterial effect

112
Q

contraindications to breastfeeding

A

HIV, TB, active abscess, HSV lesion on breast

relative: CMV, hep C

113
Q

Diagnosis medium for chlamydia

A

Giemsa stain

114
Q

Diagnosis medium for pertussis

A

Bordet-Gengou

115
Q

Diagnosis medium for pseudomonas

A

Oxidase-positive, catalase-positive

116
Q

Diagnosis medium for rubella

A

hemagglutination inhibition

117
Q

SE of amikacin

A

ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, NMJ blockade

118
Q

Consequence of clindamycin in NEC

A

post NEC stricture formation

119
Q

Erythromycin effect on other meds

A

aminophylline. : interferes with hepatic metabolism
carbamazepine, digoxin : increase effect
midazolam : decrease clearance

120
Q

What makes NMJ blockade by gentamicin worse?

A

hypermagnesemia

121
Q

Which antibiotics are bactericidal?

A

PCN/cephalosporins - PCN binding proteins needed for peptidoglycan of cell wall
aminoglycosides : 30S subunit of ribosomes to inhibit protein synthesis
vancomycin : inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis
Quinolones - inhibit DNA gyrase

122
Q

Which are bacteriostatic?

A

erythromycin/clindamycin - reversibly bind 50S of ribosomes
chloramphenicol
tetracycline - bind reversibly 30s of ribosomes
sulfonamides - inhibit folate synthesis

123
Q

T cell lymphopoeisis in utero timeline

A

8.5 wk: precursors in fetal liver
10 wk: thymus becomes lymphoid
11-12 wk: t cells from thymus to spleen/nodes
16-18 wk: hasalls bodies in thymus

124
Q

B cell lymphopoeisis embryology

A

8 wk: pre B cells in fetal liver
8-10wk: fetal bone marrow
18-22wk: liver, lung, kidney
30+ bone marrow only

125
Q

neutrophil functions

A

chemotaxis
phagocytosis
bacterial killing

126
Q

neonatal neutrophils

A

decreased migration
normal bacterial killing
longer neutrophilia after infection 3-4 hrs (compared to 1 hr adults)

127
Q

disorders of neutrophil chemotaxis

A

hyper-IgE (Job’s) - coarse facies, eczema, recurrent infections

128
Q

disorders of neutrophil adhesion

A

LAD (defect in B2 integrin), no pus, omphalitis

129
Q

disorders of neutrophil intracellular killing

A

myeloperoxidase deficiency - fungal infections
chediak-higashi - wbc inclusions, partial oculocutaneous albanism, abnormal degranulation
chronic granulomatous disease (XL) dysfunctional NADPH oxidase/phagocytosis impaired, abscesses and poor wound healing and granuloma formation

130
Q

disorders of decreased neutrophil production

A

Shwachmann-Diamond - AR, BM dysfunction, malabsorption with steatorrhea and FTT, myelodysplastic syndromes
Kostmann - AR, risk myelodysplastic
Reticular dysgenesis - lymphopenia, also with SNHL

131
Q

disorders of excessive neutrophil margination

A

pseudoneutropenia
endotoxemia
meds

132
Q

disorders of accelerated neutrophil usage or destruction

A

sepsis
chronic benign neutropenia
autoimmune or alloimmune neutropenia
Chediak higashi

133
Q

Functions of monocytes

A

chemotaxis
phagocytosis
bacterial killing
wound repair

134
Q

monocytes in neonates

A

decreased migration

135
Q

disorders of monocytes

A

LAD
histiocytosis
chediak higashi - defective chemotaxis
Wiskott-Aldrich
CGD

136
Q

Function of complement

A

opsonization
chemoattraction
inflammation
complement (Ag-Ab)
alternative (without Ab)

137
Q

Complement levels in neonates

when are they normal?

A

decreased especially in preterm
normal levels at 3-6 months

138
Q

Disorders of complements

A

early components C1-C4 deficiency (C2 most common) –> risk of pneumococcal infections and collagen vascular disease
late C5-C9 –> risk of neisseria
hereditary angioedema (AD) absence of esterase inhibitor, recurrent swelling
leiner syndrome - generalized erythematous desquamative dermatitis, FTT, diarrhea, C5 abnormality

139
Q

mediators of vasodilation

A

histamine, prostaglandin, NO, bradykinin

140
Q

mediators of vascular permeability

A

histamine, complement, bradykinin, leukotrienes, NO

141
Q

mediators of leukocyte adhesion

A

cytokines (IL1, TNFa)
complement
eicosanoids (Pgs, leukotrienes)
selectins

142
Q

mediators of chemotaxis

A
  • chemokines
  • complement
  • eicosanoids (PG, leukotriene)
143
Q

mediators of fever

A

IL1, TNFa, PGs

144
Q

Mediators of tissue necrosis

A

neutrophillic granules, free radicals

145
Q

Mediators of platelet aggregation

A

eicosanoids (PGs, leukotrienes)

146
Q

T cells in neonates

A

decreased T cell function
»decreased cytotoxicity
»decreased participation in delayed type hypersensitivity and B cell differentiation

147
Q

Disorders of T cells

A

SCID
ADA deficiency
Ataxia - telangiectasia
DiGeorge
Wiskott Aldrich - XL, thromboycytopenia, eczema, recurrent infections
chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

148
Q

B cells in neonates

A

poor antibody response to infection

149
Q

Disorders of B cells

A

XL agammaglobulinemia
XL hyper IgM- perirectal or oral abscesses
Selective IgA or IgG deficiency
Job’s syndrome - IgE
CVID

150
Q

when does infant start producing IgG

A

6 months

151
Q

when does neonatal reach 75% of adult level IgM

A

1 year

152
Q

when does neonate start making IgA

A

after birth

153
Q

when does neonate start making IgM

A

in utero - fetal 6 months

154
Q

disadvantages of umbilical cord stem cells

A

limited cell number
slower neutrophil engraftment –> longer hospitalization
slower immune reconstitution –> increased risk of viral infections

155
Q

test for Ab mediated immunity

A

quantitative Ig levels
isohemagglutanin titers
Ab response to vaccines

156
Q

test for cell mediated immunity

A

total t cells and subset cd4/cd8
delayed type hypersensitivity skin tests (mumps, candida, tetanus)

157
Q

test for phagocytosis

A

quantitative nitroblue tetrazolium test (NBT)

158
Q

test for complement

A

total hemolytic complement (CH50)
quantitative complement levels

159
Q

test for CGD

A

NBT - cannot produce superoxide; normally turns colorless liquid blue but will remain clear in CGD

160
Q

test for t cell receptor excision circles

A

SCID or DiGeorge

161
Q

Role of spleen

A
  • synthesis Ab against carb
  • clears microbes
  • site of IgM & complement production
  • maturation of Abs
  • support T cell proliferation
  • scavenges damaged or senescent RBCs & platelets
  • recycles iron from hemoglobin for hematopoeisis
162
Q

asymptomatic negative testing baby but HSV exposure management

A

acylovir IV 10 days

163
Q

encapsulated bacteria

A

H. flu, N. men, S. typhi, S.pneumo

164
Q

Disorders of asplenia

A

Ivermark - AR, dextrocardia or a right-sided aortic arch
Pearson BM failure
Stormorken STIM1 gene, AD, thyrombocytopenia, dyslexia, myosis, myopathy
Smith-Meyers-Fineman (XL), cryptorchidism, and severe NDI

165
Q

Treatment for SNHL CMV

A

6 months valganciclovir

166
Q

MCC EOS order

A

Group B Streptococcus, Staphylococcus Aureus, Escherichia Coli, Listeria

167
Q

MCC complication of toxo

A

chorioretinitis

168
Q

White spots on the umbilical cord and amniotic membranes

A

candidal chorioamnionitis

169
Q

Vesiculobullous mucocutaneous lesions

A

syphillis

170
Q

highest risk GA for congenital VZV aquisition

A

16-20

171
Q

mevalonate kinase gene mutation chr 12q24

A

hyperIg D syndrome

172
Q

what do antibodies bind to in alloimmune neonatal neutropenia

A

HNA1a MCC, HNA1b or HNA2a

173
Q

What does deficiency in adenosine deaminase lead to?

A

excess toxic metabolites in lymphoid cells leading to apoptosis in BM and thymus precursors

174
Q

What does defect in Jak3 do?

A

failure of development and differentiation of T cells in thymus

175
Q

What does defect in Rag1 or 2 lead to?

A

failure of Tcell receptor development

176
Q

How do defects in DNA repair enzymes effect Tcell function?

A

failure of receptor development

177
Q

How do defects in MHCII effect Tcell function?

A

inappropriate survival signals leading to death

178
Q

22q11.2 deletion effect on t cellls

A

lymphopenia secondary to abnormal thymus development

179
Q

Forkhead box N1 deletion effect on t cells

A

lymphopenia secondary to abnormal thymus development

180
Q

symptoms of primary infantile lupus

A

MC glomerulonephritis
others pneumonitis, pulmonary hemorrhage, nephrotic syndrome

181
Q

How does maternal ANA lead to fetal heart block?

A

maternal Abs bind to fetal cardiomyocytes leading to macrophage attraction and fibrosis

182
Q

symptoms of neonatal lupus

A

rash
thrombocytopenia
cholestasis

183
Q

causes of drug induced neutropenia

A

decreased production, increased destruction, increased margination

184
Q

lab findings in mevalonic aciduria

A

elevated CRP

185
Q

subsets of B-cell subtypes and function

A

Follicular B2 adaptive response against thymus dependent antigens; create high affinity antibodies

B1 peritoneal and pleural; thymus independent: low affinity antibodies predominant in fetus, esp CD5+

marginal zone B spleen, thymus independent and low affinity

186
Q

meds that decrease chemotaxis

A

theophylline, magnesium, indomethacin

187
Q

meds that increase chemotaxis

A

GCSF, GM-CSF

188
Q

rate of mortality with invasive Candida

A

20%

189
Q

rate of NDI in invasive Candida <1000g

A

60%

190
Q

first abnormality on XR with osteomyelitis

A

soft tissue swelling

191
Q

rate of EOS in VLBW

A

10/1000

192
Q

route of HCV acquisition

A

intrauterine and intrapartum

193
Q

treatment for routine varicella and severe varicella in pregnant mothers

A

PO in routine and IV in severe; acyclovir

194
Q

nutritional roles of intestinal micobes

A

increase genes:
absorb carbs and lipids
synthesize biotin, folate, vit K
fermentation

195
Q

which common bacteria penetrate BBB the transcellar route?

A

GBS, e.coli, listeria

196
Q

skull osteomyelitis MCC

A

e coli

197
Q

SIRS

A

Sense abnormal temps
eIther increased or decreased HR
Respiration abnormal
Some abnormal cells

198
Q

MC symptom congenital syphillis

A

hepatomegaly

199
Q

MC symptom congenital TB

A

HSM

200
Q

risk of the different types of maternally acquire HCV

A

20% acute resolving
50% chronic asymptomatic
30% chronic active infection

201
Q

infection with highest mortality

A

pseudomonas

202
Q

food most related to listeria outbreaks

A

soft cheese

203
Q

risk of LOS in VLBW

A

20%

204
Q

bacterial vs viral meningitis CSF markers

A

bacteria has higher lipocalin2, lactate, CRP in CSF

205
Q

neonatal TB acquisition

A

fetal rare bc hard to cross placenta
acquired from household contacts

206
Q

MC presentation of invasive candida infection

A

endocarditis (15%)

207
Q

MCC neonatal neutropenia

A

pregnancy induced hypertension

208
Q

MC manifestation neonatal SLE

A

thrombocytopenia

209
Q

incidence of invasive candidiasis in 24 week GA

A

20%

210
Q

highest sensitivity and specificity for LOS

A

IL6 +/- CRP/procal

211
Q

time to total intestinal reconstitution

A

5days

212
Q

MC manifestation of LOS from listeria

A

meningitis

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