IIIR3a Flashcards

1
Q

What is the dominant cell in most chronic inflammation?

A

Macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Type I allergic rxns typically occur via what immune response?

A

IgE-mediated reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Type II allergice rxns typically occur via what immune response?

A

Small molecules bind to self cell body, making it perceived as “foreign” by immune system. B-cells make IgG, complement system gets involved and phagocytosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the trades of Type III allergic rxns?

A

Foreign soluble proteins bind to IgG and it complexes. Then lodges in alveoli or vessels. Complement gets involved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the trades of Type IV allergic rxns?

A

Caused by CD4Th1 cells (a minority caused by CD8 cells). Lipid soluble molecules crosses PM, binds to protein, then weird peptides made when it is degraded. Delayed onset (1-3 days after exposure).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a prerequisite for Type I sensitivity?

A

IgE antibody is made when a person first encounters theA Ag.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does IgE bind to cells?

A

via FCepsilonRI, and it is a very tight association.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What makes a mast cell degranulate?

A

Cross-linking of FCepsilonRI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the function of histamine and heparin?

A
  1. toxic to parasites
  2. increase vascular permeability
  3. smooth muscle contraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does TNFalpha do?

A
  1. promotes inflammation
  2. stimulates cytokine production
  3. activates endothelium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do Tryptase, chymase, cathepsin G and carboxypeptidase to?

A

remodel connective tissue matrix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does IL-4 and IL-13 do?

A

increases Th2 cell response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does IL-3, IL-5 and GM-CSF do?

A

eosinophil activation and production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does TNF-alpha do?

A

promotes inflammation, causes cytokine production, activates endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does CCL3 do?

A

chemotactic for monocytes, macrophages and neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do leukotrienes C4, D4 and E4 do?

A

smooth muscle contraction, increase vascular permeability, mucus secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does PAF do?

A

chemotactic for leukocytes, amplifies production of lipid mediators, activates neutrophils, eosinophils and platelets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Must a mast cell be activated by only one type of Ag?

A

No. If FCERI is cross linked is all that matters. It can even have different FAB regions that bind different Ags.

19
Q

Which are stronger, leukotrienes of histamine?

A

Leukotrienes are about 100x stronger.

20
Q

What is the difference between zoonotic and arbovirus?

A
zoonotic = from animals
arbovirus = arthropod borne (ticks and mosquitos)
21
Q

What are 4 DNA viruses?

A
  1. adenovirus
  2. parvovirus
  3. small pox (variola)
  4. human papilloma virus
22
Q

What is special about B19 autonomous parvovirus?

A

infects cells of erythroid lineage.

23
Q

How many serotypes of variola are there?

24
Q

Where does variola carry out its lifecycle in the host cell?

25
What is E1A? How does it work?
The master regulator of adenovirus. E1A binds to Rb (host protein) and release E2f which is a TF for all of the viral proteins.
26
What are the master regulatory genes for HPV?
E6 and E7. If these are lost, like when the viral DNA enters the host genome, it can become cancerous.
27
All RNA viruses contain their own what?
replication machinery (RNA dependent RNA polymerase, reverse transcriptase)
28
What are 4 +strand RNA viruses?
1. picornovirus (polio, coxsackie, rhinovirus) 2. togavirus (rubella, equine encephalitis) 3. retroviruses 4. flaviviruses
29
What is a -strand RNA virus?
rhabdovirus (rabies)
30
Tell me about polio virus.
- 3 serotypes - non-envelope - part of enterovirus - fecal-oral - RNA virus
31
Tell me about echovirus.
- no envelope - asceptic meningitis - a type of enterovirus - RNA virus
32
tell me about coxsackie virus.
- human hosts (foot and mouth disease) - no vaccine and no drugs - a type of enterovirus - RNA virus
33
Tell me about reoviruses.
- Rotovirus - segmented dsRNA - no envelope - vaccine available and recommended by CDC - GI in small kids
34
Tell me about picornoviruses
Picornovirus (no envelope) -Enteroviruses (polio, echovirus, coxsackievirus) -rhinovirus all are RNA viruses
35
tell me about rhinovirus
- main cause of common cold - 100+ serotypes - bind to ICAM1 - RNA virus
36
Tell me about caliciviridae
- RNA virus - no envelope - norovirus, cause of epidemic GI issues, common on cruise ships
37
What does influenza virus block?
NS1 virulence factor blocks interferon production
38
How many types of influenza are there?
3: A, B, C | * C is rare and not associated with large outbreaks
39
What type of capsid does herpes have?
- icosahedral | - enveloped genome with linear dsDNA
40
Where are the three places that herpes A hides?
1. HSV1: neurons of trigeminal and cervical ganglion 2. HSV2: neurons of sacral ganglia 3. VZV: neurons and non-neurons of sensory ganglia, trigeminal and dorsal root ganglia
41
Where are two places that herpes B will hide?
CMV: monocytes, macs and endo cells | HHV-6/7: monocytes, CNS and salivary glands
42
Where are two places that herpes Gamma will hide?
1. EBV: memory B cells | 2. KSHV: B cells, vascular endo cells
43
What are the following herpes infections? 1. HSV1 2. HSV2 3. VZV 4. EBV 5. HHV6 6. KSHVHHV8
1. HSV1: herpes simplex (cold sores) 2. HSV2: genital herpes 3. VZV: herpes zoster (chickenpox) 4. EBV: infectious mononucleosis, lymphomas, laryngeal carcinoma 5. HHV6: roseola, exanthema subitum 6. KSHV/HHV8: Kaposi's sarcoma