IM Cardio Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

What is the the treatment of choice for prinzmetal angina?(3)

A

calcium channel blockers and nitrates
advise to avoid known triggers, including smoking and stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

a 52-year-old woman presents to the ED complaining of recurrent episodes of chest pain. These episodes occur mostly at rest, typically in the early morning hours, and are described as a constricting sensation in her chest lasting for about 15 minutes. She denies any exertional component to her pain. Her past medical history is significant for migraine headaches but is otherwise unremarkable. She does not smoke and has no family history of coronary artery disease. On examination, her blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, heart rate is 70 bpm, and physical examination is normal. During one of her visits, she experiences an episode of chest pain, and an ECG performed at that time shows transient ST-segment elevation. Her troponin levels at this visit are positive. Coronary angiography is performed, revealing no significant fixed stenosis, but coronary artery spasm is provoked with intracoronary acetylcholine, confirming the diagnosis of

A

prinzmetal variant angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a 63-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of chest discomfort. He describes the discomfort as a pressure-like sensation in the center of his chest, typically occurring during his daily morning walks and resolving with rest or nitroglycerin. The discomfort lasts for about 3-5 minutes each time and is sometimes accompanied by shortness of breath. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, and he smokes ten cigarettes a day. His father had a myocardial infarction at the age of 55. On examination, his blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, heart rate is 78 bpm, and his cardiovascular examination is normal. An ECG shows no acute changes. Given his symptoms and risk factors, he undergoes a stress test, which reveals reversible ischemia in the anterior wall of the left ventricle. Coronary angiography is performed, showing 70% stenosis in the left anterior descending artery. The patient is diagnosed with stable angina and is started on aspirin, a statin, a beta-blocker, and a sublingual nitroglycerin for anginal episodes

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the treatment of choice for stable angina?

A

Asprin, Statin and a beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In patients with classic symptoms of angina, nuclear ____ is the most widely used test for diagnosis of ischemic heart disease.

A

Stress testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does stable angina differ from unstable angina?

A

it is Chest pain that is predictable and brought on by exertion, emotional stress, or cold weather. The pain typically resolves with rest or nitroglycerin.
No myocardial necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

True or False. In stable and unstable angina troponin is typically normal

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two types of NSTEMI’s?

A

Non-occluded coronary artery with myocardial necrosis
and
Subendocardial (not through the entire heart muscle wall)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Early wide, bizarre QRS complex greater than 0.12 seconds and no identifiable p wave

A

premature ventricular contraction (PVC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What ekg findings are consistent with PAC’s?

A

Abnormally shaped p wav

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What EKG findings are consistent with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

A

arrow complex tachycardia, no discernible p wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What EKG findings are consistent with Atrial Fibrillation?

A

Irregularly irregular rhythm with disorganized and irregular atrial activations and an absence of P waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What EKG findings are consistent with Atrial Flutter?

A

regular sawtooth, pattern and narrow qrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most appropriate inital management in a patinet with PVC’s?

A

Reassurance and lifestyle modifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a 45- year-old male admitted to the hospital because of several months of sudden onset of recurrent weakness accompanied by flushing of the face and dizzy spells. The patient also had recurrent spells of chest pain localized to the sternal area. The symptoms last for 10-15 seconds and sometimes 30 seconds to a minute and go away without treatment. During his stay in the ICU, the patient had similar symptoms several times, and the monitor showed long periods of asystole with no ventricular activity. This was associated with blood pressure drops, and the patient felt dizzy
Predominantly affecting older adults. DX?

A

Sick sinus syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is sick sinus syndrome / sinus node dysfunction?

A

dysfunction in the sinus node’s automaticity and impulse generationZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most common cause of sinus node dysfunction?

A

idiopathic SA node fibrosis, which may be accompanied by degeneration of lower elements of the conducting system.
other causes inclue drugs, excessive vagal tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What causes bradycardia tachycardia syndrome and how will it be treated?

A

The SA node is diseased and not responding properly. will likely need a permanent pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

50 percent of patients with sick sinus syndrome develop ___

A

alternating bradycardia and tachycardia also known as tachybrady syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is sinus arrest?

A

prolonged absence of sinus node activity (absent P waves) >3 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is first-line treatment for symptomatic bradyarrhythmias due to sick sinus syndrome (SSS)?

A

permanent pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How can you identify sinus arrhythmia on EKG?

A

Normal, minimal variations in the SA Node’s pacing rate in association with the phases of respiration. Heart rate frequently increases with inspiration, decreases with expiration
characterized by a phasic variation in the R-R interval on the ECG, which corresponds to the respiratory cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A 22-year-old woman presents for a routine check-up. During the examination, her heart rate is noted to increase during inspiration and decrease during expiration. This finding is most likely due to which of the following mechanisms?

A

Variation in vagal tone during the respiratory cycle = sinus arrythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What rhythm is described as Three or more consecutive VPBs, displaying a broad QRS complex tachyarrhythmia

A

Ventricular Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What rhythm is described as Erratic rhythm with no discernable waves (P, QRS, or T waves)?
Ventricular Fibrilllation
26
What rhythm is described as Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that appears to be twisting around a baseline
Torsades de pointes
27
While obtaining the medical history of a patient scheduled for internal cardiac defibrillator implantation, the patient suddenly becomes unresponsive and pulseless. Upon attaching a cardiac monitor, you observe a disorganized rhythm lacking any identifiable pattern. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Ventricular Fibrillation
28
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for ventricular fibrillation?
CPR and Immediate electrical cardioversion (defibrillation) is the most appropriate inital treatment for a patient presenting with this life threatening cardiac dysrhythmia followed by epinephrine and amiodarone
29
What EKG changes is a well known risk factor for the development for Torsades de Pointes?
Prolonged QT interval
30
What electrolyte abnormality is commonly associated with torsade de pointes
Hypokalemia or Hypomagnesium (think history of diuretic use)
31
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for a patien with Torsade de Pointes
INTRAVENOUS MAGNESIUM SULFATE is the treatment of chocie it prevents recurrence by decreasing the excitability of the myocardium and stabilizing the cardiac membrane
32
What is the MC type of Cardiomyopathy
Dilated Cardiomyopathy
33
Describe typical presentation and treatment for a patient with Dilated Cardiomyopathy s/s:(4) tx:(3)
PE: dyspnea, S3 gallop (the big 3 BIG BAGGY Ventricles), rales, JVD signs of left sided heart failure treatment: Ace inhibitors, diuretic and advise against alochol
34
what kind of heart failure is typically seen in dilated cardiomyopathy?
Systolic Heart Failure, weakening heart muscle a decreased ventricular contraction strength + dilation left ventricle; systolic heart failure
35
True or False. In dilated cardiomyopathy there will be enlargement and dilation of all four chambers
T
36
_____ is the most common cause of non-ischemic cardiomyopathies in the US.
chronic alcoholism
37
A 50-year-old male with history of alcohol abuse presents with complaint of worsening dyspnea. Physical examination reveals bibasilar rales, elevated jugular venous pressure, an S3 and lower extremity edema. Chest x-ray reveals pulmonary congestion and cardiomegaly. Electrocardiogram shows frequent ventricular ectopy. Echocardiogram shows left ventricular dilatation and an ejection fraction of 30%. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
38
What Physical exam findings are consisted with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy ( HOCM)(4)
sustained PMI bifid pulse S4 gallop; high pitched mid-systolic murmur at LLSB increased with Valsalva and standing (less blood in the chamber); decreased with squatting
39
What is the pathophysiology of Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
hypertrophic portion of septum; LV outflow tract narrowed - worse with Valsalva and standing
40
What treatment is recommended for Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
-No Alcohol -ACE-I -Diuretic
41
What treatment is recommended for HOCM?
Beta Blockers or Calicum channel blockers - surgical ablation of hypertrophied septum
42
What is the typical presentation of a patient with Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)
young athlete with positive family history sudden death of syncopal episode; inherited; SCREEN FAMILY S4 gallop; high pitched mid systolic murmur at LLSB
43
True or False Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy is diastolic heart failure
T
44
What is the typical presentation of a patient with restrictive cardiomyopathy?
right heart failure; a history of infiltrative process; diastolic heart failure; stiff heart muscle
45
What type of cardiomyopathy is often associated with Amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, hemochromatosis, scleroderma, fibrosis, cancer?
restrictive cardiomyopathy
46
Name common causes of dilated cardiomyopathy
ischemia (CAD, MI, arrhythmia), genetics, excess alcohol, postpartum, chemotherapy, endocrine disorders, viral infections, cocaine use, heavy metals
47
What imaging modality is use to definitively diagnose cardiomyopathy?
Echocardiography
48
What Chest X Ray findings are consistent with dilated cardiomyopathy?
CXR often shows a balloon-like heart - will show cardiomegaly and pulmonary congestion
49
What is the treatment of choice for Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
mnemonic A(anticoagulants) A (ace inhibitors) B(beta blockers) C (calicum channel blockers D(diuertics/digoxin) -digitalis may be useful to increase cardiac contractility
50
What drug is contraindicated in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy ?
Digoxin
51
What are signs of left ventricular failure
exertional dyspnea, chronic nonproductive cough, fatigue, orthopnea, nocturnal dyspnea, nocturia , ejection fraction of 35%
52
what EF value is defined as HFrEF? = HF with reduced ejection fraction (previously called “systolic HF”)
EF ≤ 40% or “HF with reduced ejection fraction” (previously called “systolic HF”)
53
What EF value is defined as HrpEF ? = HF with preserved ejection fraction” (previously called “diastolic HF”)
EF ≥ 50%
54
What EF value is defined as HFmEF?
EF 41% to 49% or “HF with mildly reduced ejection fraction”
55
Describe NYHA functional class 1
no limitation of physical activity
56
Describe NYHA functional class 2
Slight limitation in physical activity, comfortable at rest
57
Describe NYHA functional class 3
marked physical limitations but comfortable at rest
58
Describe NYHA functional class 4
cant carry on physical activty, anginal syndrome at rest
59
What diagnostic lab studies may best assess heart failure?
BNP, EKG
60
What Chest X ray findings would clue you into heart failure?
KERLEY B LINES
61
what imaging is gold standard (best to assess size and function of chambers) in patients with heart failure ?
Echocardiography
62
WHat are the Three specific evidence-based beta-1 selective drugs that reduce the mortality for patients with heart failir
Carvedilol Metoprolol succinate (not tartate) Bisoprolol
63
Name the treatment of choice for patients with HF with reduced ejection fraction Hint: triple therapy
ACE Inhibitor (or Entresto) + βblocker + Aldosterone Antagonist (spironolactone)
64
What are the First line agents that can be used for heart failuire?
entresto (sacubitril/valsartan) ACEI and ARB (prils, sartans) Beta blockers ( carvedilol, bisoprolol, metoprolol succinate) Aldosterone antagonist (eplernone or spirnolactone) SGLT2 (canagliflozin, dapagliflozin) Diuertics alternatives: hydralazine plus isosorbide dinitrate
65
what kind of heart failure is a 60-year-old caucasian male with shortness of breath and fatigue on exertion. On physical exam, you note an S3 heart sound, crackles on pulmonary auscultation, and a displaced left apical impulse. He undergoes an echocardiogram and is found to have a dilated left ventricle and an ejection fraction of 35% experincing?.
Left ventricular failure
66
What kind of failure is a a 64-year-old male with a history of coronary artery disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type II diabetes with increasing shortness of breath and ankle swelling over the past month. On physical examination, you note jugular venous distention, increased hepatojugular reflex, and hepatomegaly. His lungs are clear to auscultation experincing?
RIght Heart failure Signs of right ventricular failure are fluid retention i.e. edema, hepatic congestion and possibly ascites.
67
What is the treatment of choice for coronary artery disease
Smoking cessation, lifestly modifications ( BP, LDL.HDL, obesity )
68
Name medications used as primary prevention for Cornoary artery disease
ASPRIN!!
69
Name medications used as secondary prevention for coronary artery disease
Asprin, B-Beta blockers, ACE-I/ ARB, statins if symptomatic Nitro
70
What is endocarditis?
Inflammation of the lining or valves of the heart caused by the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, typically introduced via dental or medical procedures in the mouth, intestinal tract or urinary tract
71
What is the typical presentation of a patient with endocarditis?
Fever and a new-onset heart murmur FROM JANE fever roth spots osler nodes mumru janeway lesions anemia nail-bed hemorrhage emboli
72
differentiate acute bacterial endocarditis from subacute bacterial endocarditis
acute bacterial endocarditis is an infection of normal valves with a virulent organism such as staph aureus subacute bacterial endocarditis. is an indolent infection of abnormal valves with less virulent organisms ie strep virivans
73
A 45-year-old man with no significant past medical history presents with sudden onset fever, chills, and dyspnea. Physical exam reveals a new holosystolic murmur at the apex and Janeway lesions on his palms. Blood cultures grow Gram-positive cocci in clusters.Which of the following is the most likely causative organism? A) Streptococcus viridans B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Enterococcus faecalis D) Streptococcus bovis
cute bacterial endocarditis typically affects normal valves and is caused by a highly virulent organism such as S. aureus.
74
A 30-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use presents with fever, pleuritic chest pain, and dyspnea. Exam reveals a new systolic murmur and multiple nodular lung infiltrates on chest X-ray. Blood cultures grow Gram-positive cocci in clusters.Which heart valve is most likely affected, and what is the most common causative organism? A) Aortic valve – Streptococcus viridans B) Mitral valve – Enterococcus faecalis C) Tricuspid valve – Staphylococcus aureus D) Pulmonic valve – Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Tricuspid valve - Staphylococcus aureus
75
A 68-year-old man presents three months after aortic valve replacement with fever and malaise. Blood cultures reveal Gram-positive cocci in clusters that are coagulase-negative.Which of the following is the most likely causative organism? A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Streptococcus viridans C) Staphylococcus epidermidis D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis Prosthetic valve endocarditis occurring within the first 12 months is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis, a coagulase-negative Staph species that colonizes implanted medical device
76
Duke criteria for endocarditis?
2 major criteria OR 1 major, 3 minor OR 5 minor
77
What major components make up the duke criteria for endocarditis?
Major criteria: 1. 2 postitive blood cultures drawn 12 hours apart showing (S. aureus, S. viridans, S. bovis) 2. Evidence for vegetation on ECHO 3. New regurgitant murmur
78
What are the minor components that make up the duke criteria for endocarditis?
1. Predisposing factor 2. Fever 3. Immunologic phenomenon (glomerulonephritis) 4. Embolism/vascular phenomenon (janeway lesions, osler nodes, roth spots 5. Microbiological evidence that doesn't meet major criteria
79
these are tender, painful bumps on the fingertips and toes. They are also caused by emboli that lodge in small blood vessels in the skin.
Osler nodes (remember “O” for “ouchy”) seen in endocarditis
80
hese are small, non-tender, painless bumps on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. They are caused by emboli (small pieces of bacteria) that lodge in small blood vessels in the skin.
Janeway Lesions seen in endocartidits
81
what are roth spots?
These are small, round hemorrhages (bleeding) in the retina. They are caused by emboli that damage the blood vessels in the retina.
82
Name the empiric treatment of choice for endocarditis?
IV vancomycin or ampicillin/sulbactam PLUS aminoglycoside(-mycin)
83
In patients with Prosthetic valves what is the emperic treatment of choice for endocarditis ?
IV vancomycin or ampicillin/sulbactam PLUS aminoglycoside(-mycin) + RIFAMPIN
84
What antibiotic should be given to hIgh-Risk patients for endocarditis prophylaxis for procedures:
Amoxicillin - 2 g 30-60 minutes before the procedure Mark as complete
85
What is the clincal presentation of a patient with Aortic Stenosis ? HINT : ASH
Angina Syncope Heart Failure: Increaded BNP, cardiomegaly
86
What will an Aortic Stenosis murmur sound on ausltation
Harsh systolic ejection crescendo-decrescendo heard at the right upper sternal border with radiation to neck and apex
87
What will a Aortic regurgitation murmur sound like?
soft high pitched, blowing, crescendo-decrescendo along left sternal border; loud leaning forward/squatting
88
How would you describe a mitral stenosis murmur ?
oft high pitched, blowing, crescendo-decrescendo along left sternal border; loud leaning forward/squatting Leaflets of aorta don’t close during diastole → blood
89
Name the murmur described as diastolic low-pitched decrescendo rumbling with an opening snap heart best at the apex with pt. lying lateral decubitus position
mitral stenosis
90
WHat are the most common causes of mitral regurgitation?
CAD, HTN, MVP, rheumatic, heart valve infection; apical S3 = volume overload on the ventric
91
what is the most common cause of mitral stenosis ?
rheumatic heart disease
92
what is the typical characteristic of a mitral stenosis murmur ?
OPENING SNAP MICROSOFT IS AN OPERATING SYSTEM
93
midsystolic ejection click heard best at the apex is characteristic of what murmur?
Mitral Valve Prolapse
94
high-pitched holosystolic murmur at LLSB radiates to the sternum and increases with inspiration
Tricuspid regurgitation
95
widely split S2; early pulmonic ejection sound; RVH harsh, loud, medium pitched systolic murmur heard best at 2nd/3rd left intercostal space that may increase with inspiration is characteristic of what murmur?
Pulmonary Stenosis
96
Pulmonary vascular Intravenous drug use Acute Tricuspid valve Staphylococcus aureus
right sided endocarditis
97
Acquired valvular disease, congenital heart disease Acute or subacute Mitral valve Viridans streptococci, S. aureus
left side endocarditis
98
What heart vavle is most commonly affected in cases of bacterial endocaridits
The mitral Valve
99
What is Dressler Syndrome?
also known a postmyocardial infarction syndrome, is a pericarditis usually seen one to two weeks after an actue myocardial infarction or cardiac procedure
100
what are signs and symptoms of dressler syndrome
pleuritic chest pain relieved when leaning forward, a pericardial friction rub, and tachycardia. Fever and leukocytosis are associated with the inflammatory response seen