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Immuno Flashcards

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1
Q

Head and neck

A

cervical

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2
Q

Lungs

A

Hilar

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3
Q

Trachea and esophagus

A

Mediastinal

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4
Q

Upper limb, breast, skin above umbilicus

A

Axillary

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5
Q

Liver, stomach, spleen, pancreas, upper duodenum

A

Celiac

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6
Q

Lower duodenum, jejunum, ileum, colon to splenic flexure

A

Superior Mesenteric

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7
Q

Colon from splenic flexure to upper rectum

A

Inferior Mesenteric

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8
Q

Lower rectum to anal canal (above pectinate line), bladder, vagina (middle 3rd), prostate

A

Internal iliac

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9
Q

Testes, ovaries, kidneys, uterus

A

Para-aortic

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10
Q

Anal canal (below pectinate line), skin below umbilicus (except popliteal territory)

A

Superficial inguinal

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11
Q

Dorsolateral foot, posterior calf

A

Popliteal

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12
Q

Right side of the body above diaphragm (RUQ)

A

Right lymphatic duct

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13
Q

Everything except RUQ

A

Thoracic duct

- Into junction of L Subclavian and internal jugular veins

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14
Q

What are the SHiNE SKiS organisms?

A

Encapsulated organisms to which one is more susceptible post-splenectomy

(S)trep pneumo
(H) flu
(N)eisseria
(E) coli

(S)almonella
(K)lebsiella
Group B (S)trep

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15
Q

HLA A3 is associated with what disease?

A

Hemochromatosis

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16
Q

HLA B27 is associated with what disease?

A

Seronegtive arthropathies (PAIR)

  • Psoriatic arthritis
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
  • IBD
  • Reactive arthritis (Reiter’s syndrome)`
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17
Q

HLA DQ2/DQ8 is associated with what disease?

A

Celiac

DQ2 4, 6, 8! Don’t forget and gluten-ate!

Can’t go to DQ because lactose intolerance goes with CELIAC.

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18
Q

HLA DR2 is associated with what disease?

A

MS, hay fever, SLE, Goodpasture

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19
Q

HLA DR3 is associated with what disease?

A

DM1. SLE, Graves

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20
Q

HLA DR4 is associated with what disease?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis, DM1

There are 4 walls in a “rheum” (room).

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21
Q

HLA DR5 is associated with what disease?

A

Pernicious anemia > Vitamin B12 def.

Hashimoto thyroiditis

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22
Q

Anti-Ach

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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23
Q

Anti-BM

A

Goodpasture’s

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24
Q

Anti-cardiolipin, lupus anticoagulant

A

SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome

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25
Anti-centromere
CREST
26
Anti-desmoglein
Pemphigus vulgaris
27
Anti-dsDNa, anti-Smith
SLE
28
Anti-glutamate decarboxylase
type 1 DM
29
Anti-hemidesmosome
Bullous pemphigoid
30
Anti-histone
Drug-induced lupus
31
Anti-Jo, anti-SRP, anti-M1-2
Polymyositis, dermatomyositis
32
Anti-microsomal, anti-thyroglobulin
Hashimoto thyroiditis
33
Anti-mitochondrial
Primary Bilary Cirrhosis
34
Anti-nuclear Antibodies (ANA)
SLE, nonspecific
35
Anti-Scl7- (Anti-DNA topoisomerase I)
Scleroderma (diffuse)
36
Anti-smooth muscle
Autoimmune hepatitis
37
Anti-SSA, anti-SSB (anti-Ro, Anti-la)
Sjogren's
38
Anti-TSH receptor
Graves
39
Anti-U1 RNP
Mixed connective tissue disease
40
c-ANCA (PR3)
GPA (Wegner's)
41
p-ANCA (MPO)
MPA, Churg-Strauss
42
IgA anti-endomysial, IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase
Celiac
43
Rheumatoid factor, anti-CCP
Rheumatoid arthritis
44
What cells are implicated in graft vs. host disease?
Donor CD4 and CD8 T cells vs. host MHC
45
What is the typical time frame in which graft vs. host disease occurs?
Within 1 wk of transplant
46
What inflammatory mediator induces cachexia/wasting syndrome?
TNF-a - Decreased appetite - Inhibits LPL - Increased insulin resistance
47
What is the function of endogenous IFN-a and -b?
Produced by host cells in response to virus Induce cells to make antiviral proteins that - Degrade intracellular mRNA - Impair protein synthesis
48
What are type I interferons?
IFN-a and IFN-b
49
What is a type II interferon?
INF-g
50
From what cell and what function: IL-1
Macros, Fever (& inflammatory cascade) HOT
51
From what cell and what function: IL-2
T cells, stimulates other T cells T
52
From what cell and what function: IL-3
T cells, stimulates bone marrow stem cells BONE
53
From what cell and what function: IL-4
Th2, IgE and IgG stEak
54
From what cell and what function: IL-5
Th2, IgA and eosinophils steAk
55
From what cell and what function: IL-6
Macros, acute phase reactants steaK
56
What cytokines are secreted by macrophages?
IL-1 and IL-6
57
What cytokines are secreted by T cells?
IL-2, 3, 4, 5
58
MoAbs: Anti-what? Treats what? Rituximab
anti-CD20, lymphoma | RIITA's Italian Ices in LCRBA R= rituximab; LEMon= LYMphoma
59
MoAbs: Anti-what? Treats what? Imatinib
bcr-abl TK, CML note: not a moab RIITA's Italian Ices in LCRBA (I= imatinib; ChiriMoya = CML)
60
MoAbs: Anti-what? Treats what? Infliximab
TNF-a, RA ankylosing spondylitis, Crohn's | RIITA's Italian inces in LCRBA I= infliximab; RAspberry = RA
61
MoAbs: Anti-what? Treats what? Trastuzumab
HER2/neu (Herceptin), breast cancer RIITA's Italian Ices in LCRBA (T= trastuzumab; BRambleberry = breast ca.)
62
MoAbs: Anti-what? Treats what? Abciximab
GPIIbIIIa, angioplasty in acute coronary syndrome | RIITA's Italian Ices in LCRBA A= abciximab; ApriCot = acute coronary
63
Live vaccination stimulates increased...from the duodenal mucosa?
IgA SERUM IgA and IgG are increased by live and killed vaccines
64
Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction is what kind of hst rxn?
Type II
65
What are the steps that produce acute hemolytic transfusion reaction?
- Antibodies against ABO - Anaplyatoxins: C3a and C5a > vasodilation & shock - MAC: C5b-9: complement mediated cell lysis
66
What are the 2 anti-inflammatory cytokines?
IL-10 and TGF-b | - Down-regulated cytokine production
67
What drugs cause DILE, drug induced lupus erythematosus?
"Main Qs (to determine DILE, are in the) HPI" - Minocycline - Quinidine - Hydralazine - Procainamide - Isoniazid Slow acetylators at high risk
68
ANA antibodies are seen in (SLE vs. DILE)
both
69
anti-ds DNA antibodies are seen in (SLE vs. DILE)
SLE
70
anti-histone antibodies are seen in (SLE vs. DILE)
DILE
71
What cytokines mediate the systemic inflammatory response?
IL-1: fever IL-6: acute phase reactants TNF-a: septic shock and cachexia
72
Describe the steps of Leukocyte Accumulation.
1. Margination 2. Rolling 3. Activation 4. Adhesion + crawling 5. Transmigration
73
What proteins are needed for Rolling?
L-selectin on neutros | E/P selectin on endothelium
74
What proteins are needed for Adhesion and Crawling?
Integrins, ICAM-1
75
What proteins are needed for Transmigration?
PECAM-1
76
What is positive selection of T cells?
T cells are positively selected if they have sufficient affinity for self-MHC Occurs in the cortex "Positive is self-confidence in your core"
77
What is negative selection of T cells?
T cells are negatively selected if they have too much affinity for self-MHC or self-Ag Occurs in the medulla
78
Absent B cell numbers No germinal center BUT, respond to Candida antigen Diagnosis?
Bruton agammaglobulinemia
79
What ist he defect in Bruton Agammaglobulinemia?
BTK (tyrosine kinase) signal transduction, which is important to maturation of B cells - X linked
80
What is the composition of MHC II
a and b chains held together by an invariant chain, which is degraded during antigen processing in macros and replaced by antigen
81
What is serum sickness?
Type III hst rxn to nonhuman proteins (like chimeric Abs) or nonhuman Igs (venom, antitoxin)
82
What are the sx of serum sickness?
Fever, pruritic skin rash, arthralgias, 7-10 days post exposure Fibrinoid necrosis
83
What are the lab findings in serum sickness?
Decreased C3 because of consumption (type III hst)
84
What is DRESS Syndrome?
Drug Reaction w Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms - 2 to 8 wks post high-risk drugs which include: - Anticonvulsants - Allopurinol - Sulfas - Antibiotics Fever, general LAD, facial edema, diffuse rash, and marked eos!
85
What cells mediate acute transplant rejection?
T cells (interstitial lymphocytosis)
86
What cells mediate chronic transplant rejection?
T cells, B cells, and antibodies | fibrotic, scant inflammatory cells
87
What is the fx of Calcineurin?
Activates IL-2 > increased T cells
88
What immunosuppressants block Calcineurin?
Tacrolimus and Cyclophosphamide | - Used post transplant

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