Immunologic Mechanisms Flashcards

(76 cards)

0
Q

what is a hapten

A

small molecule antigen requiring covalent linkage to a larger carrier to stimulate an immune response

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1
Q

What is the receptor for IL2?

A

CD25

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2
Q

what is a carrier protein

A

macromolecule to which a hapten is bound

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4
Q

what is an adjuvent

A

molecules that enhance the immune response

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5
Q

what is a superantigen

A

antigens that activate a large number of polyclonal T cells (bacterial toxin)

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6
Q

what are anchor residues

A

peptide side chains that bind in the peptide-binding cleft of MHC

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6
Q

Mutation for TAP (transports antigent to ER)

A

produces bare lymphocyte syndrome

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7
Q

deficiency of MHC class I or II causes what disease?

A

Bare lymphocyte syndrome

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8
Q

what is anergy

A

state of unresponsiveness to antigenic stimulation – weak signal, lack of costimulation

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9
Q

what is tolerance

A

unresponsiveness to antigen

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10
Q

what are tolerogens

A

antigens that induce tolerance

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11
Q

Tregs express these cellular markers

A

CD4, CD25 and FoxP3

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12
Q

what happens in those with an AIRE gene mutation

A

lymphocytes are not deleted or tolerized to endocrine related self-antigen. Causes APS

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13
Q

Tolerance is maintained by secretion of what

A

IL-10 and TGFβ

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14
Q

FoxP3 mutation leads to this disease

A

IPEX (immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy X-linked) syndrome

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15
Q

Characteristics of IPEX

A

watery diarrhea, eczema, endocrinopathy, immune dysregulation

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16
Q

what is the mutation in ALPS (autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome)

A

FAS or caspase 10

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17
Q

Characteristics of ALPS

A

lack of tolerance leads to autoimmunity; lymphocytes don’t die

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18
Q

Which IgG subclass has the shortest half life

A

IgG3

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19
Q

what is rheumatiod factor

A

antibody against Fc portion of IgG. Typically IgM

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20
Q

Which immunoglobulin fixes complement most efficiently

A

IgM

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21
Q

Somatic hypermutation leads to changes in what

A

variable region, not constant region

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22
Q

Class switching leads to changes in what

A

constant region, not variable region

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23
Q

How does alternative splicing change Ig

A

changes from transmembrane to secretary form

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24
XLPS (X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome) is due to a mutation in what
SAP (SLAM-associated protein)
25
Which TLR binds LPS
TLR4
26
Which TLRs are present in the intracellular compartment and implicated in HSV1 encephalitis
TLR 3, 7, 8, 9
27
Cyclosporine inhibits calcineurin and blocks NFAT activation by binding to what
cyclophilin
28
Gene 17q12-21 codes for
ORMDL3 - SNPs = increased asthma risk
29
Gene 5q22-32 codes for
CD14; LPS receptor - SNPs = increased and decreased risk of asthma and atopy
30
Gene 3p21-22 codes for
CCR5 chemokine receptor - SNPs = protection against non-atopic asthma
31
Gene Xp22 codes for
TLR 7 and 8 - SNPs = increased risk of all atopic disease
32
Gene 5q31 codes for
IL-13; SNP = increased risk of asthma, linked to response to montelukast
33
Gene ADRB2 codes for
Beta2-adrenergic receptor - SNP = decreased response to albuterol
34
Gene ADAM33 codes for
Type 1 Transmembrane protein - SNP = increased risk of asthma
35
Cytokines inducing IgG1 production; IgG1 fxn
IFNγ, IL-4; opsonization & complement fixation
36
Cytokines inducing IgG2 production; IgG2 fxn
IFNγ, TGFβ; Antipolysaccharide antibody
37
Cytokines inducing IgG3 production; IgG3 fxn
IFNγ; opsonization & complement fixation
38
Cytokines inducing IgG4 production; IgG4 fxn
IL-4, IL-13; Antipolysaccharide antibody
39
Cytokines inducing IgA production; IgA fxn
TGFβ, IL-5; mucosal immunity (IgA1 serum and respiratory, IgA2 GI)
40
IgM fxn
complement fixation; primary response
41
Cytokines inducing IgE production; IgE fxn
IL-4, IL-13; allergic response
42
Receptors on T cells for B7-1 (CD80) and B7-2 (CD86) and effect
CD28 (activation of naive cells) and CTLA4 (CD152 - tolerance)
43
Receptors on T cells for ICOS-L and effect
ICOS - costimulation of effector T cells
44
Receptors on T cells for CD40 and effect
CD40L - APC activation, germinal center dev., class switching
45
Receptors on T cells for PD-L1/PD-L2 and effect
PD-1 - negative regulation, cell death
46
NKT cells recognize what type of antigen, presented on what?
lipids on CD1
47
What is the function of Lck
T cell receptor signaling (tyrosine kinase) associated with CD4/CD8
48
Function of SAP (SLAM-associated protein)
Links SLAM to Fyn in T-cell signaling
49
What is the function of Fyn
T cell receptor signaling (tyrosine kinase) associated with CD3
50
binding sites for TCR on MHC I and II, respectively
α3 and β2
51
where are antigens loaded onto MHC class I?
endoplasmic reticulum
52
where are antigens loaded onto MHC class II?
Phagolysosome
53
which molecules are part of the Ig superfamily?
TCR, MHC, CD4, CD8, CD19, B7-1, B7-2, Fc receptors, KIR, VCAM-1
54
which Ig class has the highest total body concentration?
IgA
55
ZAP-70 deficiency results in what
T-, B+, NK+ SCID with no CD8 cells
56
CD21 on B cell function
enhances BCR signal by binding C3d
57
what are the CD molecules that make up the BCR complex?
CD21, CD19, CD81
58
function of IL-12
promotes differentiation of CD4 into TH1
59
function of IL-15
survival f memory CD8 T cells, NK cells and NK-T cells
60
function of IL-23
promotes differentiation and maintenance of T cells that product IL-17
61
function of TGFβ
inhibits T cell proliferation and effector functions
62
which chemokine receptor is associated with WHIM (warts, hypogam, infxn, myelokathexis) syndrome
CXCR4
63
Receptor for CCL5 (RANTES)
CCR 1,3,5
64
receptor for CCL11 (eotaxin)
CCR3
65
Receptor for CCL17 (TARC)
CCR4
66
Receptor for CXCL8 (IL-8)
CXCR 1,2
67
which integrin is important for gut homing by binding to MAdCAM?
α4β7
68
which complement is the most potent mediator of basophil and cutaneous mast cell degranulation?
C5a
69
which complement receptor is implicated in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?
CD55 (DAF); CD59
70
which complement deficiency is X-linked?
Properdin
71
which receptor facilitates transport of IgA across the epithelium in the gut?
Poly-Ig-receptor
72
Type of rejection associated with preformed ABO antibodies, HLA antibodies, and complement
hyperacute rejection
73
type of rejection involving non-complement fixing antibodies resulting in hemorrhage
Accelerated rejection
74
type of rejection T-cell and antibody mediated
Acute rejection
75
type of rejection leading to fibrosis and delayed type hypersensitivity in vessel walls, mediated by antibodies
Chronic rejection