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Immunology Flashcards

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1
Q

Anakinra MOA

A

IL-1 receptor antagonist

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2
Q

Abatacept MOA

A

Functions as CTLA4, binds to CD80/86 to co-stimulate and down-regulate T-cells

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3
Q

Top 3 food allergens

A

Egg, peanut, milk

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4
Q

Type A drug rxns are…

A

Pharmacologic i.e. related to the action of the drug e.g. diarrhoea

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5
Q

Type B drug hypersensitivities are…

A

Immunologic

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6
Q

Type 1 Hypersensitivity is

A

IgE mediated

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7
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity is…

A

IgG to specific antigen

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8
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity is…

A

IgG immune complex deposition

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9
Q

Type 4 hypersensitivity is

A

T cell mediated

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10
Q

Three MOAs of delayed hypersensitivity reactions

A
  1. Drug is a hapten
  2. Drug is a prohapten
  3. Direct p-i
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11
Q

Anaphylaxis 3 definitions

A
  1. Skin OR angioedema + breathing OR circulation issues
  2. Suspected allergen PLUS 2 organ systems involved
  3. Known allergen and ANY organ
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12
Q

Three mechanisms of anaphylaxis

A
  1. IgE dependent
  2. IgE independent immunologic
  3. Non-immunologic direct mast cell activation e.g. physical, ETOH, opioids
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13
Q

Most specific test of anaphylaxis

A

Mast cell tryptase

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14
Q

HAE MOA

A

C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency

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15
Q

HAE inheritance/ mutation:

A

AD, SERPING1 mutation

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16
Q

GATA2 def

A

MonoMAC: monocytopaenia, B and NK cell lymphopaenia; MDS/AML, MAC/viral infections

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17
Q

Complement activating isotypes

A

IgM>IgG3>IgG1>IgG2

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18
Q

C3b, what is it

A

Opsonin, all phagocytes have a receptor

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19
Q

C3a and 5a

A

chemokines, all mast cells have receptors -> degranulate

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20
Q

C5b ->

A

MAC

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21
Q

What bacteria are most susceptible to MAC?

A

gram -ves as don’t have thick cell wall

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22
Q

C3 convertase inhibitors:

A

DAF (CD55) and MCP

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23
Q

MAC inhibitors:

A

CD59 (MAC-IP) and HRF

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24
Q

4 mechanisms for NK cells to recognise invaders:

A

Lack of MHC I; Increased activating factors; loss of inhibitory factors; ADCC via Fcgamma receptors

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25
NK cells kill via
Fas-L:Fas; perforin and granzymes
26
Receptors expressed by mature dendritic cell
CD80/86 and MHCII
27
On what chromosomes are HLA molecules?
Chromosome 6p
28
What cytokines induce Th1?
IFN-gamma and IL-12
29
What cytokines do Th1s produce?
TNF-alpha and IFN-gamma
30
Th1 gene
Tbet
31
Cytokine that induces Th2
IL-4
32
Cytokines produced by Th2
IL-4, IL-5, IL-13
33
Genes for Th2, there are 2!
GATA3/STAT6
34
Th17 cytokine inducers:
IL-1, IL-6, IL-23, TGF-beta
35
Treg cytokine inducers
TGF-beta, IL-10
36
Treg gene
FOXP3
37
Tregs express 3 markers on their cell surface, what are they?
CD4, CD25, CTLA4
38
Cytotoxic T cells won't become strong memory Cytotoxic T cells unless what is present?
Th1
39
B cell signal 1:
MHC:TCR
40
B cell signal 2:
CD40:CD40L
41
Deficiency of CD40/CD40L =
Hyper IgM syndrome, unable to class switch
42
T regs help B cells to..
class switch by expressing CD40L
43
What part of the Ab determines the isotype?
heavy chain
44
Where does IgA2 live?
mucous membranes
45
Quantities of each Immunoglobulin:
IgG>IgA>IgM>IgD>IgE
46
Is IgM high or low affinity/avidity?
Low affinity; but high avidity because has 10 binding sites- pentamer
47
Which immunoglobulins are high affinity?
IgG, IgA, IgE (all but IgM)
48
IgG does what with higher affinity?
opsonises, neutralises, activates complement and ADCC
49
SCID causing mutations
ADA, Common cytokine Gamma-R, RAG
50
Main abnormality in Di-George
no thymus
51
Difference between CVID and XLA
XLA won't have mature B cells on subsets
52
Rx of CGD
bactrim + antifungals + IFN-gamma + Anakinra -> SCT
53
2 tests for phagocyte function
NBT + DHR
54
Two CTLA4 assoc. genetic conditions
CHAI and LATAI CHAI- CTLA4 happloinsufficiency w. autoimmune infiltration. LATAI- LRBA deficiency w. Auto-ab, Treg defects, Autoimmunity
55
CGD most common infections
lymphadenitis, pneumonia, abscesses of skin/viscera
56
CGD is from an deficiency of what enzyme?
NADPH oxidase
57
ALPS inheritance/findings
Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome; AD; increased double -ve alpha-beta T cells in peripheral blood on flow; Defect in FAS
58
IPEX inheritance/ findings
Immune dysreg polyendocrinopathy X-linked; FOX-P3 defect so no Tregs
59
Autoimmune Polyglandular syndrome Type 1 defect/hallmarks:
AIRE gene; candida, Addison's hypoparathyroid
60
Complement activating factors
Properdin, B and C from monocytes
61
HAE rx options
FFP, plasma derived C1-inhibitor, Icatibant
62
Icatibant MOA
Bradykinin B2 receptor antagonist
63
Loss of which inhibitors gives aHUS?
Factor H, I and MCP
64
Inflammasome 2 signals for initiation
1. TLR -> NFkappaBEta -> pro-IL-1 beta | 2. DAMPs/PAMPs -> caspases to activate Il-1
65
CAPS defect/ inheritance/ syndromes
Defect in NLRP3/ AD/ Muckle-wells, NOMID, FCAS
66
CAPS mechanism
persistently activated DAMPL signalling pathways
67
Schnitzler's syndrome
IgM kappa paraprotein; neutrophilic urticaria rash; rx w. anakinra
68
Opsonins that augment microbial phagocytosis by neutrophils and macrophages; and one that isn't
C3b, CRP, IgG, MBL; NOT C5a
69
What innate cell expresses the most varied number of TLR and cytoplasmic receptors?
dendritic cells
70
Most common gene affected in XL CGD
CYBB
71
Most common genes in CVID
NFKB1 or 2
72
When testing for Ab response to vaccine what type of vaccination should be used?
Unconjugated polysaccharide

BPT Written (21 decks)

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