Immunology Flashcards

(62 cards)

1
Q

Increased activity of _____cells and ___cells is thought to be responsible for IL-2’s anti cancer effect

A

T, NK

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2
Q

Where is the complement region located on an immunoglobulin

A

By the hinge region

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3
Q

For T cells _____ selection occurs in the thymic medulla and is when T cells that bind with high affinity are destroyed

A

Negative

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4
Q

For T cells, _______ selection occurs in the thymic cortex

A

Positive

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5
Q

The binding of ____ to its ligand downregulates the immune response against tumor cells by inhibiting _____ T cells. Many cancers evade the immune system by upregulating this

A

PD-1, cytotoxic

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6
Q

AIDS dementia can be associated with ______ from significant cortical atrophy, which allows the ventricles to expand while maintaining normal pressure

A

hydrocephalus ex-vacuo

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7
Q

Il-___ induces the production of acute phase reactants

A

IL-6

-which can lead to high levels of fibrinogen—> inc ESR

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8
Q

HOX gene complex is critical for _______

A

craniocaudal positioning of the limbs

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9
Q

Acute cellular rejection most often occurs within weeks of transplantation due to sensitization of ____ T lymphocytes against ______ MHC antigens. Typically see mononuclear infiltrate. Prevent with what drugs?

A

host, donor, calcineurin inhibitors (cyclosporine, tacrolimus)

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10
Q

_____ T cell sensitization against ____ MHC antigens is seen in graft v.s host disease in which the host lacks competent ___ lymphocytes. ______ T lymphocytes attack ______ antigens that are recognized as foreign

A

Graft, host, T, graft, host

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11
Q

Preformed antibodies against graft ABO antigens cause ________ graft rejection

A

hyper acute, why we blood match donors

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12
Q

Which three cytokines are critical for maintaining granulomas

A

IL-12, IFN-gamma, TNFalpha

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13
Q

_____ is a major mediator in septic shock

A

TNF alpha

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14
Q

4 Factors that increase plasma renin:

A

low sodium intake, diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 blockers

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15
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome has anti____ antibodies

A

anti-SSA/SSB=antiRo

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16
Q

IL-8 signals what molecules and helps form pus

A

neutrophils

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17
Q

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency is from an absence in _____ which leads to persistent leukocytosis

A

CD18, recurrent skin and mucosal infections without purulence (makes pus)

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18
Q

_______ is characterized by thrombocytopenia, immunodeficiency, eczema. It is a defect in?

A

Wiskot Aldrich, cytoskeleton rearrangement

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19
Q

Deficiency of complement makes you more susceptible to what organisms

A

neisseria

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20
Q

Cachexia is mediated by what cytokine?

A

TNF-alpha

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21
Q

Granulomas in TB are mediated by which T cells

A

CD4+ to activate macrophages

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22
Q

What does Th1 do

A

Th1secretes INF-gamma, IL-2 to stimulate CD8+ cells

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23
Q

What does Th2 do

A

Th2 secrets IL-4 (activates IgE), IL5( activates eosinophils)

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24
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease results in a defect in producing ________ which leads to inc risk of infection of _______ positive organisms

A

NADPH oxidase, catalase

-Staph aureus, Noricardia, Aspergillus, Pseudomonas, Serratia, Brukholderia cepacia

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25
What 4 factors stimulate neutrophils
Leukotriene B4, 5-HETE, IL-8, C5a
26
nasal mucosal ulcerations are a problem in __________. Have antibodies to __________. __ ANCA is positive
wegener's (granulotomasis with polyangitis), neutrophils, c-ANCA
27
Someone with aslpenia is at inc risk for encapsulated organisms. Why?
spleen deals with systemic bacteria clearance
28
Poluysaccaride capsule vaccine provides a ___ cell response and conjugating with a toxoid protein creates and ___ and ___ cell response
capsule: only B cell conjugated: B and T cell
29
______ is an essential protein in the activation of IL-2 which promotes the growth and differentiation of T cells. Which two drugs block this
calcineurin | -cyclosporine, tacrolimus
30
Anaphylaxis leads to release of ____ and _____ cell degranulation and release of _______
mast, basophil, histamine and tryptase (mast cells)
31
high affinity IgE receptor binding depends on ________
receptor aggregation
32
Hyperacute rejection of an organ is ______ mediated and is a type ____ HSN reaction
antibody, 2 - preformed IgG antibodies - anti-ABO and anti-HLA
33
immediate hypersensitivity =type ___ HSN
1, think IgE and histamine
34
acute cellular rejection with lymphocytic interstitial infiltrate and endothelitis is ___ cell mediated
T cell
35
acute cellular rejection with neutrophilic infiltrate and necrotizing vasculitis is ___ cell mediated
B cell
36
Which cytokine mediates fever
IL-1
37
Which cytokine stimulates bone marrow
IL-3
38
What does IL-12 do
differentiation of T cells into Th1 cells and activates NK cells
39
Il-2 stimulates ____ cells
T cells Hot-T-bone-stEAK (1) (2)(3) (4)(5)(6)
40
graft v host disease can happen in __________ and ________ transplants
bone marrow, liver(organs rich in lymphocytes), skin, GI involvement
41
_____________ is the most common immunodeficiency and presents with recurrent sinopulmonary infections, GI infections, autoimmune disease, anaphylaxis during blood transfusions
IgA deficiency
42
interferon alpha and beta are produced by most human cells in response to ________. They help suppress viruses by ________
viral infections, halting protein synthesis in infected cells and promoting apoptosis
43
________ occurs when host proteins such as immunoglobulins or complement ind to foreign cells such as bacteria and coat the surface, enhancing phagocytosis. What are the two most important opsonins
IgG and C3b
44
IgA deficiency presents with _______ during blood transfusions
anaphylaxis
45
IgG has ___ gamma chains and ___ light chains, IgA has _____ alpha chains and _____ light chains, IgM has _____ mu chains and is a pentamer
2 and 2,2 and 4, 2
46
Differences between sirolimus and cyclosporine and tacrolimus
all inhibit IL-2 h/e sirolimus blocks mTOR and is less nephortoxic - tacrolimus blocks FK506 and is nephrotoxic - cyclosporine blocks cyclophillin and is nephrotoxic
47
Sjorjen's syndrome presents with _______ gland enlargement . Remember RA can coexist with other autoimmune disease. What antibodies
parotid | -anti SSA(Ro) and SSB (La)
48
Hashimoto's thyroiditis associated with anti ______ antibodies
antimicrosomal antibodies
49
serum sickness is a type _____ hypersensitivity
3 (immune complex deposition)
50
antibody rich secreting plasma cells are rich in what aspect of the cell
rough ER because this is the site of synthesis of secretory proteins
51
Drug eluting stents that contain sirolimus reduce __________ because this drug blocks ________
intimal hyperplasia, mTOR (blocks cycle between G1-->S phase)
52
If lack an IgG response-->
problems with antigen presentation
53
Within the dendritic cell, what protein must be degraded before the endocytose antigen is loaded onto the MHC molecule
the invariant chain, this in on the dendritic cell when it is in the ER (this prevents it from binding antigenic peptides within the ER)
54
What inhibits C3 and C5 convertase
decay accelerating factor (DAF)
55
What two things prevent inappropriate complement activation
DAF and C1 esterase inhibitor
56
What are 3 complement factors associated with anaphylaxis
C3a,4a,5a
57
What are two primary opsonins of bacteria?
C3b and IgG
58
C1 esterase deficiency leads to dec ____ levels in the blood
C4
59
Goodpastures is a type ____ HSN reaction
2
60
contact dermatitis is a type ____ HSN reaction
4
61
erythema multiforme is a type _____ reaction
4
62
IgG, IgE, IgA, IgE levels is WAS
dec to norm (IgG, IgM), inc IgE and IgA