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Organisms Flashcards

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1
Q

Molluscum contagiousum on histo

A

(Pox virus) Molluscum bodies with eosinophillic cytoplasmic inclusions

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2
Q

Oral thrush, interstitial pneumonia, and severe lymphopenia in a infant with a IVDU Mom who didn’t receive prenatal therapy

A

Vertical HIV transmission, give zidovudine (enzyme inhibitor drug, nucleoside analog)

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3
Q

C diff precautions in hospital

A

Wearing non-sterile gloves, gown, hand washing with soap and water

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4
Q

How to IgA proteases help bacteria?

A

Cleaves IgA at its hinge region—>facilitates bacterial adherence to mucosa

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5
Q

How is trichomonas diagnosed

A

Wet mount (saline microscopy), pH>4.5, thin yellow-green discharge, module trichomonads

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6
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma on colonoscopy

A

Reddish/violet flat maculopapular lesions or raised hemorrhagic nodules or polyploid masses

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7
Q

India ink stain for Cryptococcus shows ______

A

Round or oval budding yeast with a thick capsule

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8
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains with gamma hemolysis (no hemolysis)

A

Enterococcus

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9
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae shares antigens with human _____. So we can get anemia and it resolves when the immune response is over

A

RBCs (I-antigen)

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10
Q

Gram negative sepsis is caused by release of ____ from bacterial cells. ______ is the toxic component of (first blank)

A

LPS, lipid A

-Lipid A can cause sepsis from e.coli

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11
Q

What yeast shows pseudohyphae with blastoconida

A

CANDIDA

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12
Q

What yeast shows distinct broad based budding

A

blastomyces

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13
Q

What yeast shows spherules with endospores

A

Cocciodioes

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14
Q

parvovirus B19 replicates in which cells

A

erythrocytes in bone marrow

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15
Q

ETEC labile toxin has a similar toxin to what other organism that produces watery diarrhea

A

cholera toxin

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16
Q

H flu is a blood loving organism that needs X (hematin) and V(____) for growth.

A

NAD+, staph can provide this “satellite phenomenon”

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17
Q

chancre are in what stage of syphillis

A

primary

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18
Q

condolomata lata are in what stage of syphillis

A

secondary, that also has diffuse rash

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19
Q

gummas are in what stage of syphillis

A

tertirary, that also has tabes dorsalis and aortic arch invovlement

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20
Q

what growth medium has vancomycin, nystatin, colistin, and trimethoprim

A

thayer martin, selective media

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21
Q

fungi with septate hyphae and V shaped branching

A

aspergillus

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22
Q

Primary TB infection tends to infect the ______ lobe of the lung while reactivation affects the _______ lobe of the lung

A

lower (can see Ghon complex), upper

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23
Q

tertiary syphillis can lead to aortic aneurysm and this process starts from ________ endarteritis and obliteration–>inflammation, ischemia–>weakening of aortic adventitia

A

vasa vorum

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24
Q

__________ can cause erythema infectiosum in kids (face rash) and arthralgias in adults. The joint pain can resolve quickly with NSAIDS

A

Parvovirus B19

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25
Hyatid cysts in the liver are cause by _____ and what’s the reservoir. What happens if the cuts rupture in surgery
Ecchinococcus granulosus, dog/sheep, anaphylactic shock
26
________ has lead to decreased heaptocellular carcinoma in developed countries
Vaccinations -water sanitation prevents hep A/E
27
which stage of pneumonia: vascular dilation, alveolar exudate contains mostly bacteria
congestion (1st 24 hrs)
28
which stage of pneumonia: alveolar exudate contains erythrocytes, neutrophils, and fibrin
red hepatization (2-3 days)
29
which stage of pneumonia: RBCs disintegrate, alveolar exudate contains neutrophils and fibrin
gray hepatization (4-6 days)
30
which stage of pneumonia: enzymatic digestion of exudate
resolution
31
Acid fast staining is carried out by applying _______ to a smear then decolorizing with HCl
carbolfushcin | -use this for acid fast (mycobacteria, nocardia)
32
Staph food poisoning is caused by exotoxin formed ________ ingestion and causes _____ onset nausea/vomiting and resolves ______
prior to ingestion, rapid, quickly
33
CMV causes which itisus in what kinds of people. See what kinds of cells?
retinitis, esophagitis, colitis IMMUNOSUPPRESSED enlarged cells with intranuclear inclusions
34
someone who has a transplant is
IMMUNOSUPPRESSED
35
Difference between CMV and HSV esophagitis
Both have intranuclear inclusions but HSV: EOSINOPHILIC inclusions (punched out ulcers) CMV: cytoplasmic inclusions (linear ulcerations)
36
There are H flu strains without a capsule that can cause otitis media: true or false
true
37
Peptostreptococcus and fusobacterium so if see a lung nodule that means
aspiration | -could be associated with a seizure disorder, alcoholism
38
Major adaptive immune responses that prevent against influenza include anti-__________ antibodies
hemagglutin
39
An organism with a phospholipid containing particle is most likely an ______ virus
Enveloped
40
Listeria is not sensitive to ________ and treat with?
3rd gen cephalosporins, ampicillin | -it's facultative intracellular and spreads intracellulary
41
Herpetic gingivostomatosis is a severe vesicular ulcerative disease and indicates __________ infection
primary
42
viral bronchiolitis is commonly caused by _______ and presents with low grade fever, cough, tachypnea, and inc work of breathing
RSV | -typ in kids <2
43
Which cephalosporins and ahminoglycosides can treat psuedomonas
cefapime, ceftiazidine | cipro/levofloxacin
44
___________ can lead to diffuse red rash, red tongue, and grayish white exudates. Most serious complication is _________
scarlet fever, rheumatic fever
45
Hepatitis B stimulates CD___ cells to produce hepatocyte damage
CD8+
46
What are the 3 ordered steps to treating diphtheria
diphtheria antitoxin(passive immunization), penicillin or erythromycin, DPT vaccine (active immunization)
47
flu like febrile illness with marked myalgia and joint pain, , thrombocytopenia, shock, petechia
dengue fever | -can be infected by different serotypes
48
H flu's capsule is composed of
polyribosylribitol phosphate- this protects against phagocytosis
49
virulent mycobacteria grow as ________ cords
serpentine and if don't have this, can't be virulent
50
amatoxins are found in poisonous ________ and inhibit ________
mushrooms, RNA poly 2 so stop mRNA synthesis
51
Why is IgG not completely effective against Hep C antigen?
B/c of antigenic variation in the envelope glycoproteins
52
______ is characterized by an initial painless, small shallow genital ulcer and then weeks later you will see swollen, painful coalescing inguinal nodes. See intracytoplasmic chlamydial inclusion bodies
Lymphogrnauloma venereum caused by chlamydia
53
Infants born to moms with chronic Hepatitis B will have which positive in their labs. Maternal ______ and ______ are the strongest risk factors for infant infection
HBeAg | -maternal viral load, HBeAg
54
Staph aureus has protein A that does what?
cleaves Fc portion of IgG--->impaired complement activation, opsonization, and phagocytosis
55
common congenital eye complication of CMV
chorioretinitis
56
cholera causes rice water stool that looks like heat under microscope
mucus (from activated goblet cells) and intestinal epithelial cells
57
congenital CMV sx and see heterophiles NEGATIVE mononucleosis
periventricular calcifications, blueberry muffin rash, hepatosplenomegaly
58
fusobacteirum, bacteriodies are members of the _______ flora
oral
59
______ induced orchitis can lead to ________ atrophy and dec _______ production so tx with?
Mumps, Leydig cell. testosterone
60
construction worker with TMJ pain
think clostridium tetani from a rusty nail
61
Anti HBc IgG and HBsAg is present in ______ HBV infection
chronic
62
rickettsia type is the same as
prowasekii | -rash that spares hands and feet
63
What do dextran produced by strep viridians attach to
fibrin and platelets
64
What affects Crenshaw cells in the spinal cord
clostridium tetani
65
What affects the NMJ?
clostridium botulinum
66
Botulism _____ AcH release and cleaves ______ protein
inhibits, Snap25 (a SNARE protein)
67
amanita (poisonous mushroom) blocks?
RNA poly 2->mRNA synthesis

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