Inate and humoral immunity Flashcards

(167 cards)

1
Q

megakaryocytes (platelets) are not part of immune system, but participate in ___________

A

inflammation

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2
Q

what cells are NOT typically found in tissues

A

macrophages
dendritic cells
mast cells

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3
Q

Cytotoxic T cell

A

CD8- MHC1

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4
Q

Helper T

A

CD4- MHC2

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5
Q

cells in inmate humoral (extracellular immunity)

A

myeloid cells - neutrophils, macrophages, mast cells, eosinophils

non host epitopes- protein that is not part of our immune system, ex- on bacteria

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6
Q

changes over time based on what the body encounters

B-cells, antibodies, T-helper, APC’s

produce antibodies that are very specific- takes time

A

Adaptive humoral immunity

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7
Q

NK cells, MHC existence

A

innate- cell mediated immunity

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8
Q

cytotoxic t cells- if it sees an abnormal cell it kills it

A

cell mediated adaptive immunity

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9
Q

what cells are all over the body and wait for something to happen, they are responsible for the innate response

A

macrophages- they also recognize the possibility of bacteria

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10
Q

engulfs bacteria and releases CYTOKYNES

A

macrophages

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11
Q

Messenger among immune cells- innate inflammation

A

cytokines

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12
Q

cytokines trigger ________ that allow neutrophils that have been circulating blood to come and engulf bacteria

A

chemokynes

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13
Q

INFLAMMATION:

Cell injury or pathogenic invasion causes the activation of ________________ , __________ , __________ which activates the 1)____________, 2)____________, and 3)______________ responses

A

plasma systems, release of cellular products, mast cell degranulation

  1. compliment
  2. clotting
  3. Kinin
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14
Q

INFLAMMATION:

redness and heat

A

vasodilation

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15
Q

INFLAMMATION:

cellular infiltration

A

pus

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16
Q

INFLAMMATION:

thrombosis

A

clots

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17
Q

INFLAMMATION:

stimulation of nerve endings

A

pain

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18
Q

INFLAMMATION:

histamine release and chemotactic factors attract neutrophils + eosinophils

A

mast cell degranulation

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19
Q

INFLAMMATION:

prostaglandins, prostacyclins, leukotrienes and thromboxjnes

have inflammatory in immune functions

A

4 families of ecosinoids

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20
Q

removal of arachidonic acid + EPA from plasma membrane

A

Phosposlipase A2 - a biologic mediator synthesized from mast cells

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21
Q

converta arachidonic acid to prostaglandins, prostacyclins and thromboxane

A

Cyclooxygenase a biologic mediator synthesized from mast cells

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22
Q

blocked by steroids

A

phospholipase A2

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23
Q

blocked by COX-1 inhibitors - ASA, ibuprofen and selective cox II inhibitors like vioxx and celebrex

A

cyclooxygenase

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24
Q

what is the timeline of leucocyte infiltrates in inflammatory reactions such as ischemic necrosis/ infarction?

A
  1. immediate edema
  2. day one- neutrophils peak neurtrophilic infiltrates and congested blood vessels
  3. monocytes peak later, day 2, come into tissue and cover to macrophages to start repair
  4. repair process- repair damaged tissue with scar tissue
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25
Scar tissue in cardiac ischemia is ____________ and results in ____________.
non contractile loss of function
26
Initial steps of phagocytosis include adherence of neutrophils to the vessel wall (__________) retraction of ________________(vascular permeability), and movement of neutrophils through the vascular spaces (___________), the cells move up the gradient by ____________.
pavementing, endothelial cells, diapedesis,chemotactic factors
27
adherence of neutrophils is optimized by
antibody and opsonins
28
opsonins bid to
epitopes
29
engulfment into
phagocytotic vacuole or phagocyte
30
after a bacteria is engulfed the phagosomes are fused by...
lysosomes- which will produce reactive oxygen species hydrogen peroxide and superoxide to kill the microorganism
31
seconds to minutes- swelling vessel leakage, ENDOTHELIAL ADHESION INTEGRINS & SELECTINS
Initial cytokyne response
32
stops rolling neutrophils, first line of defense
initial cytokyne response
33
Histamine, kinins, leukotriens, prostaglandin, IL-1 snf TNF
initial cytokyne response
34
neutrophils that are stopped by damage, diapedesis, chemotaxis, send signals to more cells
cytokine response causing recruitment of cells
35
activation of leukocytes, lymphocyte growth, antibody synthesis
cytokyne response causing removal of debris
36
induce fibroblast growth and collagen production
cytokyne respons to promote regenteration and repair
37
granulocyte colony stimulating factor
cytokine response causing recruitment of cells
38
platelet derived growth factor (PDGF)
cytokyne respons to promote regenteration and repair
39
Fibroblast growth factor (FDG)
cytokyne respons to promote regenteration and repair
40
Tumor Necrosis factor TNF
is active in all four stages of cytokine involvement with inflammation
41
there results of chronic inflammation
1. angiogenesis 2. mononuclear cell infiltrate 3. SCAR formation
42
loss of function
fibrosis
43
mediators, neutrophil recruitment, swelling
acute inflamation
44
clearance of injurious stimuli, clearance of mediators and acute inflammation cells, replacement of injured cells, normal function
resolution
45
when b and t cells find an antigen
they are activated- clonal selection leads to clonal proliferation and expansion.
46
somatic hypermutation
activated b cells
47
produce free floating antibodies
b cells that become plasma cells
48
do NOT undergo somatic hypermutation
T-cells
49
____________ help ___________ to mature
helper T cells naive b cells
50
cytotoxic T cell
adaptive immunity
51
NK cells
Innate immunity
52
bone marrow, thymus
primary lymphoid tissue
53
lymph nodes
2ndarey lymphoid tissue - none in brain, kidneys or bones
54
lymph from brain drains to
cervical lymph nodes
55
Mucosal/ gut associate lymph tissues
MALT/GALT pyers patches ilium of small intestine tonsils and adenoids
56
BALT
in lungs, bronchial associated lymph tissue
57
antigenic determinants that B or T cell bind to
Epitopes - the more epitopes the more the chance of binding
58
antigen binding domain
variable region
59
determines antibody class
constant region
60
antibody most common in blood
IgG
61
only antibody that can cross placenta
IgG
62
all antibodies start as these
IgM or IgD
63
pentamer
IgM
64
monomer
IgD, IgE, IgG
65
antibody of allergies found tin tissues and bound to mast cells
IgE
66
causes allergic Rhinitis
IgE
67
secreted in GI tract, genital and urinary tract and respiratory tract
IgA
68
J chain
IgA
69
class switch
antibodies start as IgM and switch to IgE, IgG, IgA
70
the antibody variable binding region bind to and epitome in a specific ares, then epitope can be_________
present on your cells
71
has a receptor for a CONSTANT region
macrophages- for opsonization, they look for bacteria and viruses
72
parasites
eosinophils- worm too big , eosinophils degranulate and spill out enzymes
73
have one specific antibody antibody, if it becomes ACTIVATED, it will produce that antibody
b cells
74
takes deal and area that codes for that variable region and rearranges it/chops out parts
b cell recombination
75
__________ cells check to be sure B-Cell is not self reactive using __________.
nurse cells- if b cell responds they die= self reactive Negative selecton
76
have and antibody on surface, but have not found antigen
naieve b cells
77
every generation binds more specifically
somatic hypermutation
78
if a nurse cell throws self antigen at a b cell and it does not bind what is it?
it becomes an immunocompetent naive B cell via negative selection
79
Immunoglobulin used in parasitic infection
Pieces of dead worm bind to naive B cell Clonal selection, expansion and hyper proliferation Class switch to IgE- constant region can bind to MAST CELLS, next exposure MAST cell releases eosinophil chemotactic factors IgE Variable region will bind to another worm attract eosinophils and degrade worm
80
what generates the primary and secondary immune response
IgM is primary, then a class switch to IgG, next exposure IgG takes over MUCH quicker
81
secretory immune response
IgA
82
GALT________________ antigen passes through M cell (intestinal lumen) and presents to B and Helper t cells plasma cells produce ________________.
Peyers patches IgA that is secreted into the lumen to neutralize pathogens
83
before birth fetus relies on _____ for immune protection because they have NO _____________ . it protects the fetus from pathogens and toxins
Maternal IgG, Adaptive immune system
84
in the fetus, their do not have ___________, but the ____________ system is working
Adaptive immune system, Innate system is functional
85
what happens to fetal IgG after birth?
no longer receiving maternal IgG, and it slowly decline, the baby will begin to produce their ow IgG and it will develop its ADAPTIVE immune system with exposure to antigens
86
provides protection for GI tract bottle fed = more likely to get GI infections
IgG and IgA present in breast milk
87
location of TCR
always on the surface of t cell, never released/free floating, unlike antibodies
88
t cell antigen presentation
always on another cell always on an MHC
89
always present SELF antigen
MHC I
90
useful for virally infected cell
MHC I
91
Present to Cytotoxic CD 8 Cells
MHC I
92
kills the cell the antigen is presented on
Cytotoxoc CD8 cell, exception = herpes- cannot kill neurons
93
Present foreign antigen
MHC II
94
present to helper T
MHC II
95
if a macrophage ingests a necrotic cell and it is presented to a helper T what will happen?
the helper t will not react because the antigen is NOT FOREIGN
96
MHC are most important in ___________
Transplants 6 from mon and 6 from dad
97
HLA- A,B, C
MHC I
98
HLA- DP, DQ, DR
MHC II
99
protein cut up and presented on MHCII
endogeneous; cancerous virally infected
100
protein cut up and presented on MHC II
EXongenous: presented by professional APC
101
Professional APC that present to helper T cells
b cells macrophages dendritic cells
102
what activates the b cell?
b-cell presents to helper t and it says it is foreign, so the b cell starts to produce antibodies- Macrophage much more aggressive and phagocytotic
103
checkpoints to avoid autoimmune diseases
1. Nurse cells throw self antigen at b cells | 2. B-cell must present the antigen to T helper cells to be activated
104
undergoes BOTH positive and negative selection
T-cells
105
keep the ones that bind
positive selection must be interested
106
get rid on the ones that bind too much or too tightly
negative selection - can't be a stalker
107
placenta/fetus testes/ovaries eyes brain thymus
Immune privileged sites- T cells cant go here!
108
b-cells to undergo clonal expansion- find antigen enlarged with infection
Germinal center in cortex of lymph node
109
t cells undergo clonal expansion nearest to the infection site = first to respond and most swollen
Pericortical area, between cortex and medulla of lymph node
110
a dendritic cell will capture antigens in _________and then _________ to the ________ where it will present to __________cell.
tissues migrate lymph node naive helper t-cell
111
Check MHC and kills if anything is wrong
NK cells
112
NK cells are reluctant to kill
Neurons
113
Activate the T-Helper independent of TCR antigen specificity irreversibly bind Cause MASSIVE up regulation of immune response system wide
Super antigens which cause anaphylaxis
114
reaction of immune system worse than the problem it is fighting
hypersensitivity
115
IgE mediated
Type I hypersensitivity
116
Mast cells degranulate when they see antigen causing inflammation
Type I hypersensitivity
117
allergic rhinitis asthma anaphalaxis
Type I hypersensitivity- allergy auto and allo rare
118
Free and antigen Bound and fixed antibody
Type I hypersensitivity
119
Mast cells and basophils have antibody attached
Type I hypersensitivity
120
antigen must come to immune cells
Type I hypersensitivity
121
IgG mediated hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity Type III hypersensitivity
122
Antigen always FIXED on intrinsic tissues Antibody free and binds to our cells to cause immune response
Type II hypersensitivity
123
Self reactive B- Cells are a key feature
Type II hypersensitivity- autoimmune diseases
124
Blood transfusion reaction- blood type mismatch, recipient immune cells attack donor blood resulting in hemolysis
Type II hypersensitivity - alloimunity
125
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
Type II hypersensitivity
126
Rh - MOM with Rh+ FETUS, mom makes IgG (Anti Rh+ antibodies) Baby born with ANEMIA because RBC's are destroyed by fetal immune system
Hemolytic disease of the newborn- alloimunity
127
Graves disease
Type II hypersensitivity - autoimmune
128
antibody binds to TSH receptors Produce lots of T3 and T4
Graves disease
129
Myasthenia Gravis
Type II hypersensitivity - autoimmune
130
antibody binds to Ach receptor on muscle and destroys receptors
Myasthenia Gravis
131
Rheumatic fever
Type II hypersensitivity- antibodies against heart and CNS
132
Exongenous or Endogenous FREE antigen FREE antibody
Type III hypersensitivity
133
formation of free immune complexes
Type III hypersensitivity
134
found in circulation or tissue fluids
Type III hypersensitivity
135
immune complexes result from
phagocytes not able to keep up with destruction of immune complexes
136
when immune complexes start sticking to vessels the cause
vascular damage
137
Systemic lupus Erythematous
Type III hypersensitivity - autoimmune
138
Necrotizing vasculitis
Type III hypersensitivity - autoimmune
139
serum sickness- antigen in blood that host reacts with
Type III hypersensitivity - aloimmune
140
T cell mediated hypersensitivity three types- cytotoxic, helper T1 and T2
Type IV hypersensitivity
141
transplant rejection- body rejects foreign tissue
Type IV hypersensitivity - Alloimunity
142
hashimotos thyroiditis
Type IV hypersensitivity - Autoimmune
143
type I diabetes- kills pancreatic beta cells that price insulin
Type IV hypersensitivity - autoimmune
144
Poison ivy
Type IV hypersensitivity - Allergy
145
allergens, foods, pollen
environment
146
self antigen
autoimmune
147
another person, transplants, blood products, pregnant, animal, toxin
alloimunity
148
wheat allergy
Type III hypersensitivity- allergy
149
Hyperacute graft rejection
Type II hypersensitivity - alloimunity
150
need environmental trigger + genetic predisposition (wrong HLA)
Autoimmune disease
151
type III hypersensitivity, butterfly rash, anti-nuclear antibodies against DNA, cell damage and necrosis, immune complexes, vasculitis, kidney failure is a high risk
Systemic lupus Erythemotosus
152
environmental trigger for lupus
UV radiation - IgG
153
lymph nodes completely empty
SCID
154
lymph node with no germinal centers
X-linked -agammaglobulinemia
155
lymph node with empty inner cortex- t cells absent
Digeorge syndrime
156
SCID, Agammaglobulinemia, Digeorge syndrome
primary lymphoid (B and T cells) immunodeficiency
157
Chronic granulomatous disease
primary meyloind immunodeficiency
158
No B or T cells adenasine deaminase
SCID
159
without immunoglobulin in blood No B-cells = No immunoglobulins Cellular reaction but no humoral reaction
X-linked agammaglobulinemia
160
No thymus = NO T-cell development during development of pharyngeal arches- also have facial deformities because that develops with pharyngeal arch
DiGeorges Dyndrome
161
Infects CD4
HIV
162
drug that prevents virus from entering CD4 cell
entrance inhibitoe
163
stops all reverse transcriptase, will not effect us because we do not have
Revers transcriptase inhibitor
164
prevents intigration of viral DNA with our DNA
integrase inhibitor
165
inhibit HIV proteases but not our own
protease inhibitors
166
HIV causes a loss of __________ cells, central to activating _________ cells
CD4 and helper activating B cells
167
can't make oxidative burst to make hydrogen peroxide to kill bacteria. phagocyte cannot kill bacteria lots of bacterial infections, no effect on viral infections
Chronic granulotomas disease