Infection Flashcards

(99 cards)

1
Q

If someone has a positive HBsAg (Hep B surface antigen), what does this indicate regarding Hep B infection?

A

They currently have an active infection

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2
Q

What are the aims of HIV treatment?

What does HIV treatment involve?
~ when is it started?

A

Aims of treatment:
• normal CD4 count
​• undetectable viral load

HIV treatment: cART
Treatment involves a combination of 3 of the below:
​• Protease inhibitors
​• Integrase inhibitors
​• Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
​• NNRTIs
~ treatment is started as soon as infection is confirmed regardless of their CD4/ viral load count!

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3
Q

If an infection isnt resolving, despite adequate treatment, what condition should you investigate for?

A

HIV

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4
Q

Explain the routes of transmission of each type of viral hepatitis:

A

A - faecal-oral route

B - bodily fluids / vertical transmission (mother-baby)

C - bodily fluids

  • *D -** bodily fluids
  • *** can only survive in patients who also have a Hep B infection ****

E - faecal-oral route

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5
Q

Name 4 antibiotics that are associated with C.difficile infection after their use:
C’s….

A

• Co-amoxiclav

  • Cephalosporins (eg, ceftriaxone)
  • Clindamycin
  • Ciprofloxacin
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6
Q

What antibiotic is 1st line to treat the first episode (presentation) of a clostridium difficile infection?

If C. diff returns post treatment, what antibiotic is recommended to treat the recurring infection?

A

10 days of oral Vancomycin

Oral fidaxomicin

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7
Q

What group of bacteria are the commonest (70%) cause of cellulitis?

What is the 1st line antibiotic to treat cellulitis because of the above bacteria?

IF the cellulitis is _hospital acquired_ (eg, from a cannula), what is the most likely causative organism then???

A
  • *Streptococcus**
  • (Staphlococci = 30%)*

1st line antibiotic: Flucloxacillin

Hospital acquired: Staph aureus (commonly MRSA!!)

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8
Q

What cells does HIV destroy?

What are the 3 ways that HIV can be tested for in someone?

What 2 things are used to monitor a HIV infection? (below what num. would be abnormal/ end stage disease?)

A

CD4 T helper cells

1) Antibody blood test - may appear negative until 3 months post exposure
2) PCR: p24 antigen - detects the HIV antigen in the blood
2) PCR: HIV RNA - detects the quantitiy of HIV in the blood (used to measure viral load)

Monitoring:
1) CD4 count
~ below 500 cells/mm3 = abnormal (deficient)
~ below 200 cells/mm3 = end stage disease (AIDs)
2) Viral load

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9
Q

What investigation is essential in order to diagnose meningitis in children?
~ What would be an absolute contraindictation to this?

A

Lumbar puncture
~ signs of raised ICP

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10
Q

In terms of blood results, viral hepatitis and autoimmune hepatitis will cause a raised AST & ALT +/- bilirubin. What other blood results allow you to distinguish between a viral or autoimmune cause of hepatitis?

A

Autoimmune hepatitis will always ha a raised IgG but a viral cause won’t.

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11
Q

Name the commonest 1. bacterial and 2 viral causative organisms of tonsillitis:

What would be the treatment of tonsillitis if it is caused by:

  • *1. bacteria
    2. virus**
A

Bacterial: strep throat = penicillin

Viral: epstein barr virus (aka, glandular fever) = supportive (analgesia & fluids)

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12
Q

What scoring system is used to assess the severity of a pneumonia?

A

CURB-65

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13
Q

What are the 6 components of sepsis 6?
~ state the order you would do these in

(take 3, give 3)

A

1) Give O2 if sats are below 94%
2) Take blood cultures
3) Give IV antibiotics
4) Fluid challenge (give IV fluids)
5) Measure blood lactate
6) Measure urine output

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14
Q

What bacteria is the commonest cause of a community acquired pneumonia?

What is the 1st line antibiotic used to treat a mild/moderate CAP? (if the patient has no allergies)

A

Strep pneumoniae

Oral amoxicillin

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15
Q

Which inflammatory marker would you expect to be elevated on a FBC if there is a:

  1. Bacterial cause of infection
  2. Viral cause of infection
A
  • Bacterial:* Raised neutrophils
  • Viral:* Raised lymphocytes
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16
Q

What are the 6 components of sepsis 6?
~ state the order you would do these in

(take 3, give 3)

A

1) Give O2 if sats are below 94%
2) Take blood cultures
3) Give IV antibiotics
4) Fluid challenge (give IV fluids)
5) Measure blood lactate
6) Measure urine output

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17
Q

If a pregnant woman is HIV positive, is she able to have a normal vaginal delivery?

If a pregnant woman is HIV positive, is she able to breastfeed?

What prophylaxis treatment is given to all babies born to HIV+ women?

A

Vaginal delivery: ONLY if her viral load is undetectable (< 50 copies/ ml) - otherwise C-section recommended

Breastfeeding: NO. Even if viral load is undetectable, HIV can be transmitted to baby through the breast milk!

Prophylaxis:
• Viral load is undetectable (< 50 copies/ ml) = 1x antiviral for 4 weeks
• Viral load is detectable (> 50 copies/ ml) = 3x antiviral for 4 weeks

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18
Q

Regarding Hepatitis B infection, what do the following biochemical markers mean/ indicate:

  1. HBsAg (Hep B surface antigen)
  2. HBeAg (Hep B E antigen)
  3. HBcAb (Hep B core antibodies)
    ~ IgM
    ~ IgG
  4. HBsAb (Hep B surface antibodies)
  5. HBV DNA (Hep B virus DNA)
A

1. HBsAg - indicates an active infection

2. HBeAg - marker of viral infection (so the acute phase of the disease when the virus is actively replicating)
~ the higher the HBeAg, the more infectious the person is ~

3. HBcAb - indicates a past or current infection
~ IgM version of HBcAb = active infection
~ IgG version of HBcAb = past infection (HBsAg will be negative)

4. HBsAb - indicates vaccination / past/ current infection

5. HBV DNA - viral load

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19
Q

To be classed as having neutropenic sepsis, the patient needs to have sepsis and a neutrophil count of what?

Name some medications that can cause neutropenia: (6)

A

Less than 1x109/L

  • Chemotherapy drugs
  • Clozapine (schizophrenia)
  • Carbimazole (hyperthyroidism)
  • Methotrexate (RA)
  • Sulfasalazine (RA)
  • Hydroxychloroquine (RA)
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20
Q

Name the antibiotic of choice for treating neutropenic sepsis:

A

Tazocin

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21
Q

What bacteria is the commonest cause of a community acquired pneumonia in:
1. healthy patients

  1. patients with cystic fibrosis (2)
A
  1. Strep pneumoniae
  2. CF: staph aureus/ pseudomonas aeruginosa
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22
Q

What bacteria is the commonest cause of a UTI?

~ is this a gram positive or gram negative bacteria?

A

E.coli

~ gram negative

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23
Q

Which 2 antibiotics are commonly used in the treatment of a lower UTI?

~ State which one is used 1st and 2nd line

Which of the above is commonly used in pregnancy?
~ when is it safe to use in pregnancy? (eg, which trimesters)

What medication is used in the remaining trimester of pregnancy when the above medication is no longer suitable?

A

1st line: trimethoprim

2nd line: nitrofurantoin
~ 1st & 2nd trimesters of pregnancy

Amoxicillin
~ used in 3rd trimester of pregnancy

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24
Q

Which antibiotic is used 1st line for the treatment of a lower UTI?

State the duration of antibiotic treatment of lower UTI in the following:
1. healthy women

  1. women that are immunosuppressed/ impaired kidney function
  2. men, pregnancy, catheter related UTI’s
A

1st line: trimethoprim

1. healthy women: 3 days

2. women that are immunosuppressed/ impaired kidney function: 5-10 days

3. men, pregnancy, catheter related UTI’s: 7 days

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25
Why is **nitrofurantoin** **avoided in the 3rd trimester** of pregnancy? Why is **trimethoprim** **avoided in the 1st & 2nd trimesters** of pregnancy?
**Nitrofurantoin:** it can cause haemolytic anaemia in the newborn **Trimethoprim:** it works by inhibiting folate production & fetus's need folate (*folate deficiency can cause neural tube defects*)
26
If **cellulitis** has a **golden-yellow crust**, which bacteria does this indicate as the cause of infection?
**Staph aureus**
27
What is the commonest bacteria that causes **cellulitis?** Name the 2nd commonest bacterial cause of cellulitis:
1: **Staph aureus** 2: Strep pyogenes (*group A strep*)
28
Name the commonest bacterial cause of **cellulitis**: Which **classification system** is used to assess the **severity of cellulitis**? ~ patient's in which class would require an **admission** to hospital? Name the **1st line** antibiotic used to treat **cellulitis**:
Staph aureus ``` **Eron classification** (class 1 - 4) ~ class 3 & 4 would require admission ``` **Flucloxacillin**
29
Name the commonest **bacterial cause** of tonsillitis: ~ what is the 2nd commonest cause? What is the **management** of a bacterial tonsillitis?
**Group A strep** (*strep pyogenes*) ~ 2nd commonest: strep pneumoniae **Penicillin V**
30
What is the **management** of a **viral** cause of **tonsillitis**? What is the **management** of a **bacterial** cause of **tonsillitis**? (*what if there is a penicillin allergy?*)
**Viral:** simple analgesia for pain & fever control (paracetamol & ibuprofen) + *worsening advice* **Bacterial: _Penicillin_ _V_** for **10** days *Penicillin allergy:* **_clarithromycin_** for **10** days
31
The commonest cause of **tonsillitis** is **viral** \> bacterial. Which 2 **criteria** are used to estimate the probability that tonsillitis is due to a **bacterial** infection? ~ list the **features within each criteria** ~ state the **score** needed in each criteria to consider **prescribing antibiotics**
_CENTOR:_ score of 3+ **Fever** over 38 degrees Tonsillar **exudates** **NO** cough **Tender** anterior cervical **lymph nodes** _Fever PAIN:_ score of 4+ **F**ever **P**urulent exudate **A**ttended within 3 days of the onset of symptoms **I**nflamed tonsils **_N_**_o_ cough/coryzal symptoms
32
What is **otitis media**? What is the **management** of otitis media? ~ how long does it usually take to resolve? If the infection **fails to resolve** with the above management, what would the **next step** in management be?
Infection of the **middle ear** **Supportive** management (*ibuprofen/ paracetamol*) ~ usually resolves within **3-7 days** Prescribe **amoxicillin** if supportive management fails
33
**Sinusitis** can be *bacterial* or *viral* but commonly **self-resolves without treatment**. How long does sinusitis usually last for before it self resolves? What is the **management of sinusitis** according to the NICE guidelines: 1. symptoms **less than 10 days** 2. no improvement of symptoms **after 10 days** 3. no improvement of symptoms **after 10 days &** ***likely*** **a bacterial** cause
2-3 weeks _Management:_ 1. symptoms **less than 10 days** ~ supportive treatment (*no antibiotics*) 2. no improvement of symptoms **after 10 days** ~ 2 weeks of **high dose steroid nasal** **spray** 3. no improvement of symptoms **after 10 days &** ***likely*** **a bacterial** cause ~ **penicillin V for 5 days** ~ *clarithromycin if allergic*
34
Which joint is the commonest joint to be affected by **septic arthritis?** Name the commonest organism to cause septic arthritis: ~ what would be the likely organism in **sexually active** people? Which **investigation** is required in suspected septic arthritis to make a definitive diagnosis?
**KNEE** **Staph aureus** ~ neisseria **gonorrhoea** **Joint aspirate** → gram staining, crystal microscopy, culture & antibiotic sensitivities
35
Name the 2 commonest causes of viral gastroenteritis in the UK: What are the typical symptoms of gastroenteritis? (3)
* Rotavirus * Norovirus Symptoms: ~ Nausea ~ Vomiting ~ Diarrhoea
36
**E.coli** is a cause of gastroenteritis. By which **route** is E.coli **spread**? The **Shiga toxin** is produced by which strain of E.coli? What **symptoms** does this strain of E.coli produce? (3) What **complication** is associated with the Shiga toxin?
Faecal-oral transmission **E.coli 0157** ~ abdominal cramps ~ **bloody diarrhoea** ~ vomiting **Haemolytic uraemic syndrome**
37
**Campylobacter jejuni** is a common cause of travellers diarrhoea. By which ways can the bacteria be **spread**? (3) What are the **symptoms** of a campylobacter infection? (4)
Transmission: * raw/ undercooked chicken * dirty water * unpasteurised milk Symptoms: * abdominal cramps * diarrhoea +/- **blood** * vomiting * **fever**
38
**Shigella** is a cause of gastroenteritis. By which route is the bacteria **spread**? What are the **symptoms** of a shigella infection? (3) What **toxin** can shigella produce? ~ what **complication** is associated with this toxin?
**Faecal-oral route** ~ *usually faeces contaminating food/water/swimming pools* Symptoms: * abdominal cramps * **blood diarrhoea** * **fever** **Shiga toxin** ~ haemolytic uraemic syndrome
39
**Salmonella** is a cause of gastroenteritis. By which ways can the bacteria be spread? (2) What are the **symptoms** of a salmonella infection? (3)
* Eating raw eggs/ poultry (chicken) * Food contaminated with infected faeces Symptoms: * **watery diarrhoea** +/- mucus/blood * abdominal pain * vomiting
40
**Bacillus cereus** is a gram positive rod that can cause gastroenteritis. How is this bacteria **spread**? ~ In an **SBA**, what **food** would indicate this infection? What are the **symptoms** associated with this infection? (3) How long does it usually take for symptoms to resolve?
Spread through **inadequately cooked food**. ~ *EXAMS: **fried rice** left out at room temperature* Symptoms: * abdominal cramps (after **5h** of ingestion) * vomiting (after **5h** of ingestion) * **watery diarrhoea** (after **8h** of ingestion) Symptoms resolve within **24hours**
41
**Giardiasis lamblia** is a **parasite** that causes gastroenteritis. What is the route of transmission of this parasite? Infection doesn't always cause symptoms, however if it does, what is the **symptom** that it causes? What is the **treatment** of this infection?
**Faecal-oral transmission** ~ commonly from animals, eg pets/ farmyards Symptom: **chronic diarrhoea** **Metronidazole**
42
Name the 2 commonest bacterial causes of **meningitis** in **adults & children:** Name the commonest cause of bacterial meningitis in **neonates:**
Adults & children: **~ neisseria meningitidis** ~ strep pneumoniae Neonates: ~ **group B strep**
43
List the typical symptoms of a **meningitis** infection: (7) If the meningococcus bacteria **enter the bloodstream**, what condition does this cause? ~ what other symptom would you see in this condition?
* neck stiffness * fever * vomiting * headache * photophobia * altered consciousness * seizures **Meningococcal septicaemia** ~ *non-blanching rash*
44
If you're working in **GP** and you see a **child** with suspected **meningitis + a** ***non-blanching rash***, how should you manage them? (2) Which investigations should be performed if someone presents to **hospital** with suspected **meningitis**? (3)
1. IM/ IV **benzylpenicillin stat** 2. **immediate** transfer to **hospital** * Blood cultures * lumbar puncture (for CSF) * meningococcal PCR (this looks for meningococcal DNA)
45
**Bacterial meningitis** is treated with an antibiotic regime ASAP. What **other medication** should be given to **children \>3 months**? ~ **why** is this medication given?
**Steroids** (*dexamethasone)* ~ **reduces** the severity of **hearing loss & neurological damage**
46
Name the 3 commonest causes of **viral meningitis**: If meningitis is suspected, what investigation should be performed?
* **Herpes simplex virus** * Enterovirus (*usually causes flu-like symptoms*) * Varicella zoster virus Lumbar puncture
47
You have the lumbar puncture results from a patient with suspected meningitis. From these results determine whether the likely cause is **bacterial** or **viral**: ~ explain why you think this Appearance of CSF: **cloudy** Protein: **3.2g/L** (normal = 0.2-0.4g/L) Glucose: **0.2** (normal = 0.6-0.8) WCC: **2400, neutrophils present**
**Bacterial** meningitis ~ CSF is cloudy ~ high protein, low glucose (bacteria use the glucose and produce protein) ~ **neutrophils** are produced in response to a **bacterial** infection
48
You have the lumbar puncture results from a patient with suspected meningitis. From these results determine whether the likely cause is **bacterial** or **viral**: ~ explain why you think this Appearance of CSF: **clear** Protein: **0.45g/L** (normal = 0.2-0.4g/L) Glucose: **0.6** (normal = 0.6-0.8) WCC: **1800, lympocytes present**
**Viral** meningitis ~ CSF is clear ~ **lymphocytes** are produced in response to a **viral** infection
49
The immune system releases neutrophils in response to what type of infection? (*bacterial/ viral*) The immune system releases lymphocytes in response to what type of infection? (*bacterial/ viral*)
Neutrophils = **bacterial** Lymphocytes = **viral**
50
What is the **commonest** long-term **complication** associated with **meningitis** infection?
Hearing loss
51
**TB** usually presents with chronic, slowly progressive symptoms. List some: (6) What is the management of **acute TB**? (*RIPE*) ~ state the common side effects
* Cough +/- haemoptysis * Fever/ night sweats * Weight loss * Fatigue * Erythema nodosum (nodules on shins) * Lymphaddenopathy **Management of acute TB:** **_R:_ Rifampicin (6 months)** S/E: red/ orange tears/ urine (secretions) **_I:_ Isoniazid (6 months)** S/E: peripheral neuropathy **_P:_ Pyrazinamide (2 months)** S/E: gout (causes high uric acid levels!) **_E:_ Ethambutol (2 months)** S/E: colour blindness
52
**TB** usually presents with chronic, slowly progressive symptoms. List some: (6) What is the management of **acute TB**? (*RIPE*) ~ state how long each medication should be taken for
* **Cough** +/- haemoptysis * Fever/ **night sweats** * **Weight loss** * Fatigue * Erythema nodosum (nodules on shins) * Lymphadenopathy **Management of acute TB:** **_R:_ Rifampicin** (6 months) **_I:_ Isoniazid** (6 months) **_P:_ Pyrazinamide** (2 months) **_E:_ Ethambutol** (2 months)
53
What is the management of **acute TB**? (*RIPE*) ~ state the common side effects
**_R:_ Rifampicin (6 months)** S/E: red/ orange tears/ urine (secretions) **_I:_ Isoniazid (6 months)** S/E: peripheral neuropathy **_P:_ Pyrazinamide (2 months)** S/E: gout (causes high uric acid levels!) **_E:_ Ethambutol (2 months)** S/E: colour blindness
54
What condition does the statement below indicate? *Sputum culture from a patient with a persistent cough grows acid-fast bacilli that stain red with Zeihl-Neelsen staining*
**TB**
55
If TB is suspected, which staining would be required from the list below? 1. Gram staining 2. Zeihl-neelsen staining 3. Flagella staining 4. Anaerobic staining What colour would the bacteria stain on the above staining?
**Zeihl-neelsen staining** ~ RED
56
What type of vaccine is the **TB vaccine**? What must someone have done prior to being allowed the TB vaccine?
**Live, attenuated** vaccine Mantoux test (*to see if they have had a previous infection*)
57
What **condition** does this **xray** show? (*be specific*) What is this condition?
**Disseminated miliary TB** TB infection that the **immune system is unable to control** (and thus it spreads everywhereeeeee)
58
What **condition** does this xray show? (*be specific*) **What** **features** can you see on this xray/ would you expect to see on an xray of someone with this condition? (3)
**Primary TB** * patchy consolidation * hilar lymphadenopahy * pleural effusions
59
What is the management of **acute TB**? (*RIPE*) ~ state the common side effects
**_R:_ Rifampicin (6 months)** S/E: red/ orange tears/ urine (secretions) **_I:_ Isoniazid (6 months)** S/E: peripheral neuropathy **_P:_ Pyrazinamide (2 months)** S/E: gout (causes high uric acid levels!) **_E:_ Ethambutol (2 months)** S/E: colour blindness
60
There are **4 different types/stages of TB infection,** name them and describe what each type is:
**Active** **TB** - current, active infection **Latent** **TB** - immune system manages to encapsulate the infection and thus stop progression of the disease **Secondary TB** - reactivation of *latent* TB (reactivation of a previous TB infection!) **Disseminated miliary** **TB** - occurs when the immune system is unable to control the infection and thus it spreads everywhere
61
Name the **3 sample types** that can be acquired for **TB cultures**:
* Sputum * Blood cultures * Lymph node aspiration/ biopsy
62
A **healthy patient** is found to have **latent TB** on routine testing, what **treatment** would they require?
**No treatment needed.** *Only patients at risk of reactivation (secondary TB) (eg immunocompromised) are treated*
63
A patient undergoing HIV anti-viral therapy is found to have **latent TB** on routine testing, what treatment would they require?
*This patient is immunocompromised so is at high risk of reactivation of TB (secondary TB), and thus would require treatment.* Treatment is either: * **Isoniazid** for **6** months OR * **Isoniazid** + **rifampicin** for **3** months
64
**Isoniazid** is a medication used in the management of **acute TB infection**. Name the **common side effect** associated with this medication: What **additional** **medication** is commonly prescribed alongside isoniazid to help **prevent this side effect?**
Isoniazid ~ **peripheral neuropathy** **Pyridoxine** (vitamin B6) helps reduce peripheral neuropathy
65
**How long after initiating treatment** should patients with active **TB** be **isolated** for?
2 weeks
66
**Rifampicin** is a medication used in the management of **acute TB infection**. Name the **commonest side effect** associated with rifampicin: Rifampicin can also **reduce the effectiveness of other medications**. Which medication in-particular should you let patients know about? (*eg, females*)
Rifampicin ~ **red/ orange secretions (urine/tears)** **COCP** effect is reduced by rifampicin
67
A patient recently started on **treatment for TB**. Since starting treatment, they've noticed **unusual sensations** in their fingertips and feet. Which medication is most likely to be implicated?
**Isoniazide**
68
A patient recently started on **treatment for TB**. Since starting treatment, they've noticed a **numb sensation** in their legs and feet. Which medication is most likely to be implicated?
**Isoniazide**
69
A patient recently started on **treatment for TB**. Since starting treatment, they've noticed that their **urine is bright orange**. Which medication is most likely to be implicated?
**Rifampicin**
70
A patient recently started on **treatment for TB**. Since starting treatment, they've noticed **difficulty recognising colours**. Which medication is most likely to be implicated?
**Ethambutol**
71
A patient recently started on **treatment for TB**. Since starting treatment, they've noticed that the base of their **big toe has become hot, swollen and painful**. What acute condition has this patient presented with? Which medication is most likely to be implicated?
**Pyrazinamide**
72
A patient recently started on **treatment for TB**. Since starting treatment, they've noticed **pain in their fingers**. O/E you note **gouty tophi** appearing in the DIP joints. Which medication is most likely to be impliacted?
**Pyrazinamide**
73
**Pneumocystitis jirovecii pneumonia** (PCP) is an **opportunistic** infection associated with which **condition**? What **medication** is given as prophylaxis to patients with the above condition to protect against this infection?
**AIDS** (*end stage HIV)* **Co-trimoxazole**
74
What is the range of a normal **CD4 count**?
500-1200 cells/mm3
75
**End stage HIV/AIDS** is defined as a CD4 count below what?
**200** cells/mm3
76
What **prophylaxis** is given to ALL **babies** born to **HIV+ve** mothers?
**Prophylaxis:** • Viral load is **undetectable** (\< 50 copies/ ml) = **1x** antiviral for 4 weeks (ART) • Viral load is **detectable** (\> 50 copies/ ml) = **3x** antiviral for 4 weeks (cART)
77
The **plasmodium** family of **protozoan parasites** cause what **infection**?
MALARIA
78
Malaria is spread through bites from what type of creature? (*be specific*)
**_Female_ anopheles mosquitoes**
79
From the options below, which type of plasmodium causes the **most severe type of malaria**? 1. Plasmodium ovale 2. Plasmodium malariae 3. Plasmodium falciparum 4. Plasmodium vivax
**Plasmodium falciparum**
80
From the options below, which type of plasmodium is the **commonest** cause of malaria in the **UK**? 1. Plasmodium ovale 2. Plasmodium malariae 3. Plasmodium falciparum 4. Plasmodium vivax
**Plasmodium falciparum**
81
What are the **3 signs** that you'll commonly see if someone has **malaria**?
* Pallor (due to anaemia) * Jaundice (high bilirubin due to the haemolytic anaemia) * Hepatosplenomegaly
82
If someone is presenting with features of **malaria**, what investigation should you do to confirm the diagnosis?
**Blood film** (*malaria blood film*)
83
A **malaria blood film** is required for a diagnosis of malaria. **How many** samples are needed to exclude a diagnosis of malaria? ~ what **timeframe** should these be taken at? Why is this?
**3 samples** are required over **3 consecutive days** Malaria has a 48h cycle of maturation in RBC until they rupture and malaria is released back into the blood - 3 samples over 3 days means that at least 1 sample will detect malaria!
84
Which of the below antimalarials is associated with **sunburn & rash associated with sun exposure:** 1. malarone 2. mefloquine 3. doxycycline
Doxycycline
85
What is the classical finding of secondary (reactivated) TB on a chest xray?
UPPER LOBE consolidation (*with cavitation = gas filled spaces*)
86
What is the treatment of **trichomonas vaginalis**?
Oral **metronidazole** for 5-7 days
87
What is the gold-standard investigation for assessing drug sensitivities in TB?
Sputum culture
88
A 20y/o woman comes in for review as 4 weeks ago she had acute cystitis and was treated with no complications. Urine culture showed no resistant or atypical organisms. She has a history of **recurrent lower UTIs** and is frustrated as she had **6 in the last year**, which has strained her new relationship. She tried cranberry juice and probiotics without benefit. An ultrasound you arranged of her abdomen revealed **no abnormality**. Her post-void volume was 25 ml. You review her behavioural and self-hygiene measures and find the only **identifiable trigger is sexual intercourse**. What is the next best action?
Prescribe prophylactic antibiotics to be taken *alongside* sexual intercourse (single-dose use)
89
An untreated **rabies** infection is usually always fatal. What is the management following an animal bite in an at-risk country in: 1. patient's *with* previous rabies immunisation 2. patient's *without* previous rabies immunisation
1. *With* previous rabies immunisation ~ wash the wound ~ give **2 further doses** of rabies **vaccine** 2. *Without* previous rabies immunisation ~ wash the wound ~ give **human rabies immunoglobulin + full course of vaccination**
90
A 24y/o recent **immigrant** from Albania presents to ED with **fever**, **headache** and **malaise**. Over the past 24 hours he has also developed **bilateral pain and swelling at the angle of the jaw**, which is made worse by **talking** or **chewing**. O/E: his pulse is 90/min, temperature 38.4ºC and bilateral palpable, **tender parotid glands.** What is the most likely diagnosis? What is the management of this condition?
**Mumps** Rest & analgesia (paracetamol for fever) ~ *notifiable disease!!!*
91
Name the 2 first line treatments of **genital warts**: ~ state when each treatment would be used
* **Topical podophyllum** (*topical antiviral*) ~ for multiple, non-keratinised warts * **Cryotherapy** ~ for single, keratinised warts
92
Toxic shock syndrome is caused by which group of bacteria? What rash is associated with this condition?
Staphylococcus Widespread erythematous rash with **desquamation** (the rash (affected skin) starts to peel off)
93
Which class of antibiotics can cause a **black, hairy tongue**? Name an example of an antibiotic in this class:
**Tetracycyclines** Eg, doxycycline
94
People who have been exposed to a patient with confirmed **bacterial meningitis** should be given prophylactic antibiotics. Which antibiotic is used 1st line?
**Ciprofloxacin**
95
If you see ‘acid-fast bacilli’ in a question, what condition should you be thinking of?
TB
96
A 28y/o woman presents to the GP 2 weeks after returning from a holiday **kayaking in a lake**. She reports feeling **exhausted** as she has been having ongoing **fatty diarrhoea** with **abdominal pain**, **bloating and flatulence**, all of which started while abroad, which appear **worse when she takes any dairy**. What is the most likely cause of her presentation? What is the biggest risk factor for contracting this condition? What is the treatment of this condition?
**Giardiasis** infection (*Giardia lamblia)* Swimming/drinking water from a **lake/river** Treatment: **metronidazole**
97
A classical finding of secondary TB on a chest xray is **upper lobe consolidation** **with cavitation** *(gas filled spaces*). What organism is known to colonise these gas filled spaces? What is the classical sign seen on a chest xray that would indicate colonisation by this organism?
**Aspergillus fumigatus →** forms an **aspergilloma** (a ball of fungus) **Crescent sign** is seen on a chest xray
98
Which STI is caused by *Treponema pallidum?*
Syphilis
99
Name the 2 features of a **primary syphilis infection**: How is syphilis transmitted? What is the 1st line treatment of **primary** syphilis?
* Local, non-tender lymphadenopathy * **Chancre** (a painless ulcer at the site of sexual contact) Through sexual intercourse A single dose of **IM benzathine benzylpenicillin**