Infection Flashcards

1
Q

What CT changes do you see in hepatitis encephalitis

A

Changes in temporal lobes

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2
Q

What infection is seen in people who keep snakes?

A

Salmonella

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3
Q

Which pathogen grows in 0-4 degrees?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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4
Q

What is the structure of a virus?

A

Core nucleic acid surround ed by protective protein coating known as the capsid
Capsid mediates the attachment of the virus to specific host cell receptors

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5
Q

Can viruses synthesis their own energy?

A

No - dependent on host cell to replicate

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6
Q

What is bacterial classification based on?

A

Gram reaction
Bacterial shape
Growth requirement
Presence of spores

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7
Q

What is the structure of bacteria?

A

Cytoplasm surrounded by cell wall
DNA is free within the cytoplasms as a single chromosome of circular dNA and plasmids

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8
Q

What does gram positive bacteria have?

A

Thick peptidoglycan layer with no outer membrane

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9
Q

What do gram negative bacteria have?

A

Thin peptidoglycan layer surrounded by an outer lipid membrane
Endotoxin on outer layer

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10
Q

Name beta-lacetam agents

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins - ceftriaxone, cefuroxime
Carbapenems - meropenam

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11
Q

Name examples of macrolide

A

Erythromycin
Azithryomycin
Clarithryomycin

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12
Q

Name example of tetracycline

A

Doxycycline

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13
Q

Name example of aminoglycosides

A

Gentamycin

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14
Q

Name example of glycopeptide

A

vancomycin
teicoplanin

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15
Q

Which ABX cause disruption of bacterial cell wall?

A

B-lactams
Glycopeptide

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16
Q

What Type of infections are B-lactams used for?

A

Gram positive

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17
Q

What can 3rd generation - cephalosporins the used for?

A

Gram positive and gram negative

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18
Q

What can glycopeptides be used for?

A

Gram positive

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19
Q

Which class of ABX inhibit protein synthesis?

A

Macrolides
Tetracyclines
Aminoglycosides
Clindaymycin

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20
Q

What are aminoglycosides good for?

A

gram negative

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21
Q

Which ABX cause inhibition of DNA replication?

A

Fluroquinolones - ciprofloxacin

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22
Q

What is the most common parasite to cause malaria ?

A

P.falciparum

Worldwide in sub and tropical areas

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23
Q

What are other parasites that cause malaria?

A

Plasmodium vivax - Asia, South America, some African
Plasmodium ovale- West africa, western pacific
Plasmodium malaria

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24
Q

What is released into the blood stream when an infected mosquito bites?

A

Sporozoites are released into blood stream and move to liver cells

25
Q

What do sporozoites involve in to?

A

Schizonts (mature sporozoites in liver)

26
Q

How does malaria spread in the body?

A

Schizonts rupture and release meroziotes
Meroziotes infect the blood and replicate
Red blood cells rupture and release more meroziotes into the system

27
Q

How long until malaria is present post visiting an infected country?

A

P.falciparum - 3 months (10-28 days)

P.vivax and P.ovale - 6 months - HYPOZOITES represent dormant stage in liver

28
Q

How many negative films are required to exclude malaria?

A

3 negative within 12-24 hours apart

29
Q

How is chronic granulomatous disease inherited

A

X linked disease

30
Q

What is the pathophysiology of chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Phagocytes lack the ability to produce microbicidal reactive oxygen species so bacteria aren’t killed or digested properly

Mainly catalase-positive bacteria

31
Q

When do you suspect CGD?

A

Recurrent pnuemonias
Lymhphadenitis
Hepatic / subcutaneous or other abscesses
Osteomyelitis at multiple sites

32
Q

Name catalase-positive bacteria

A

Stapylococcus, salmonella
Pseudomonas
Aspergillus
Canidida
Enterobacteriacae (E.coli, klebsiella, salmonella, serratia)

33
Q

How is CGD diagnosed?

A

Using DHR test

34
Q

What are symptoms of IgE mediated allergies?

A

Immediate
Urticaria
Angiooedema
upper resp. tract infection
anaphylaxis

35
Q

What are non IgE mediated reactions?

A

Usually delay - 72 hours post exposure
Bloody diarrhoea
Constipation
Colic prdominate

36
Q

How do you test for IgE mediated reactions?

A

skin-prick test
specific serum IgE testing

37
Q

How do you test for non-IgE mediated reactions?

A

dietary exclusion

38
Q

Pathophysiology of HIV

A

RNA retrovirus - enzyme reverse transcriptase
Enters CD4 lymphocytes (helper T cells) via fusion of viral cell membrane to host cell membrane
Migrates to lymphoid tissue and replicates
HIV transcribed into host dNA

39
Q

What secretes T.gondii oocysts

A

Excreted in cat feaces

40
Q

What are tachyzoites?

A

Active proliferating cause of T.gondii

41
Q

Neonatal toxoplasma infection features

A

Hydrocephalus
Microcephaly
Chorioretenitis
Intracranial calcifications

42
Q

TORCH

A

Toxoplasma gondii
Other agents - HIV, parvovirus, VZV
Rubella
CMV
Herpes simplex virus

43
Q

Characteristics of toxoplasma gondii

A

Intracranial calcifications
Inflammation of choroid and retina
Hydrocephalus

44
Q

Rubella characterised

A

Deafness
Rash
Cataracts
Heart defects

45
Q

Characteristics of CMV

A

Microcephaly
periventricular calculations
Chorioreteinitis

46
Q

HSV

A

Type 1 - oral herpes
HSV 2 - STI

47
Q

Congenital syphilis - What is the bacterium that causes it

A

Treponema pallidum

48
Q

Signs of congenital syphilis

A

Craniofacil malformation
Rash
Deadness

49
Q

What is most common vector for leishmaniasis

A

sand fly

50
Q

Stage 1 of early Lyme disease

A

erythema migrans

51
Q

Stage 2 - disseminated Lyme disease

A

Flu-like symptoms
Neurological disorders - facial nerve palsies
Myopericarditis

52
Q

Stage 3 - late manifestations of Lyme disease

A

arthritis
Acrodermatitis chronia atrophicans
Post lyme syndrome - fatigue

53
Q

Treatment of Lyme disease

A

doxycycline 21 days
amoxicillin if doxy not appropriate
azithromycin fo 17 days

54
Q

When can a HIV +ve mum breast feed

A

if viral load undetectable

top up formula feeds can’t be used

55
Q

When would you start treatment in a HIV +VE child

A

all children with confirmed HIV should be started on antiviral therapy irrespective of CD4 count

if child > 6 weeks and <12 months -start co-trimoxazole respective of Cd4 COUNT
1-4 years - only start co-trimoxazole if cd4 <15% or <500
5 years <15% or <200

56
Q

hereditary angioedema - C1 levels?

A

low c1 inhibitor

57
Q

What causes cat scratch disease

A

Bartonella henselae

58
Q

What type of hypersentiivty reaction is contact dermatitis

A

Type 4 -T lymphocytes reacting with a previous sensitised antigen