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TAS > Pharamacology > Flashcards

Pharamacology Flashcards

1
Q

Side effect of isoniazid

A

peripheral neuropathy 2nd to vit b 6 defieincy
clumsy and falls
agranulocytosis

need to give pyridoxine with treatment

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2
Q

side effect of ethambutol

A

visual changes
ocular toxicity

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3
Q

side effect of rifampicin

A

orange color pee
liver dysfunction

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4
Q

What is most likely complication from methylphenidate?

A

Loss of appetite

Sign medication is wearing off when appetite returns

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5
Q

Why are NSAIDs not recommened in pregnancy?

A

Reduce renal blood Flow in foetuses

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6
Q

How do montelukast’s work?

A

Leukotriene receptor antagonist

Reduces bronchoconstriction and inflammation

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7
Q

Mode of action for fusidic acid

A

Inhibits protein synthesis = bacteriostatic effect

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8
Q

mode of action of adenosine

A

Reduces conduction velocity inAVN

Work on A1 receptors

Breaks reentry circuit = asystole for few seconds

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9
Q

where do loop diuretics work?

A

Ascending limb of loop of Henle

Inhibits Na K Coco transporter

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10
Q

Name loop diuretics

A

Furosemide
Bumetanide

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11
Q

What can’t you use macrolide (clarithromycin) and statin together?

A

Macrolide CYP450 3AE inhibitor
Statin metabolised by CYP450 3AE - will become toxic, cause rhabdomyolysis

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12
Q

Most common side affect of ipratropium

A

Mydriasis

Anti-muscarinic

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13
Q

Oxybutyin MoA

A

muscarinic receptor antagonist - relaxation of bladder smooth muscle

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14
Q

How does salbutamol act in hyperkalemia

A

Shifts potassium from extracellular to intracellular compartment

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15
Q

Sodium valproate MoA

A

enhancing action of GABA which is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter

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16
Q

Carbmazepine MoA

A

sodium channel blocker

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17
Q

Which TB medication is a enzyme inducer?

A

Rifamapcin

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18
Q

Where is melatonin metabolised

A

Liver

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19
Q

What is melatonin’s MoA

A

binding to MT1 receptors in suprachiamastic nucleus of anterior hypothalamus and MT2 receptors in retina

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20
Q

Vigabatrin MoA

A

inhibits GABA break down - inhibits GABA transaminase - increases GABA levels

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21
Q

What is vigabatrin used for

A

infantile spasms

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22
Q

What does codeine get metabolised to ?

A

Morphine

Cross placenta and in breast milk

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23
Q

Side effect of ethambutol

A

Visual disturbance

Eye-thambutol

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24
Q

Side effect of isoniazid

A

Im-so-numb

peripheral neuorpathy

Need vit B6 Pyridoxine

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25
Q

What is fomepizol MoA

A

inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase

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26
Q

Warfarin MoA

A

inhibits synthesis of vit-k dependent clotting factors (2,7,9,10)
Inhibits production of protein C and S

27
Q

What adverse side effect is related to co-amoxiclav

A

cholestatic jaundice

28
Q

What is meropenam related to ?

A

transaminitis

29
Q

Dornase Alpha MoA

A

biosynthetic form of DNAse 1

Cleaves extracellular DNA –> this reduces sputum visosity

30
Q

What type of ABX is clindamycin

A

lincosamide

Inhibits protein synthesis

31
Q

What monoclonal antibody is used for chronic ITP

A

Rituximab

32
Q

When is palivizumab given

A

Pre-term babies chronic lung disease at risk of RSV

33
Q

What do you need to supplement orlistat (Weight lossing medication) with

A

vitamin d

34
Q

MoA of methylphenidate

A

inhibition of reuptake of dopamine and norpinephrine

35
Q

Rituximab MoA

A

monoclonal antibody direct against CD20 antigen on surface of B lymphocytes

36
Q

Other indications for Rituximab

A

SLE
Hogkin’s lymphoma
non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

37
Q

What is vabigatran ass. with

A

Visual field defects

38
Q

How does calcium rsoium work

A

cation exchange in colon

39
Q

MoA fexofenidine

A

H1 antagonist

2nd generation antihistamine
less sedation affect

40
Q

what is the bioavailability of PO morphine

A

50%

if converting IV to PO - need to multiple by 2

41
Q

What is reversible medication of heparin

A

protamine

42
Q

MoA of adalimumab

A

tumour necrosis factor alpha (TNF)- alpha inhibitor

43
Q

MoA of tacilizumab

A

inhibition of interleukin-6 receptors

44
Q

MoA of trimethoprim

A

competitive dihrydofolate reductase inhibitor

45
Q

MoA methotrexate

A

inhibits dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor

46
Q

MoA of trimethoprim

A

inhibits tertahyrodfic acid synethesis

47
Q

Gentamycin MoA

A

binding of 30s ribosome to inhibit bacterial synthesis

48
Q

Clarithryomycin MoA

A

binding of 50s ribosome to inhibit bacterial synthesis

49
Q

Coagulase negative staphylococcus

A

indwelling / long lines

gram +ve

50
Q

Enterococcus faecli

A

gram +VE cocci

UTi

51
Q

Azithryomycin mOa

A

BINDING to the 23 S recombinant rNA of the bacterial 50 S ribsosomal subunit to inhibit bacterial synthesis

52
Q

Metronidazole MoA

A

bactericidal agent

inhibits bacterial synthesis by helical DNA structure and strand breakage

53
Q

Ranitidine MoA

A

inhibition of H2 receptor

54
Q

Gaviscon MoA

A

Alginic acid reacts with gastric acid to form foam barrier

55
Q

Allopurinol MoA

A

metabolised in liver to active form - oxypurinol

inhibits enzyme xanthine disorder

56
Q

Calcium channel MoA

A

inhibition of calcium ion influx at L-type calcium channels

57
Q

Methylphenidate MoA

A

sodium-dependent dopamine transporter inhibitor

58
Q

Ondansetron MoA

A

serotonin-receptor antagonist

5-HT2 receptor antagonist

59
Q

Domperidone MoA

A

dopamine receptor antagonist

D2 and D3

60
Q

eTHOSUXIMADE mOa

A

T type calcium channel

Absence and. myoclonic

61
Q

Which AED act o sodium channels

A

carbamazepine
phenytoin

62
Q

Nifedipine and amlodipine Moa

A

L type of calcium channel

63
Q

Botulumin MoA

A

acetlycholinease

64
Q
A

TAS (18 decks)

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