Infection and Immunology Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

what is the most common cause of candidiasis?

A

candida albicans

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2
Q

Risk factors for candidiasis infection?

A

Broad-spectrum antibiotics
immunocompromise - HIV, steroids (oral or inhaled)
DM

cushing’s
GI tract surgery
central line

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3
Q

What are the features of oral candidiasis?

A

common in neonates
a curd-like white patches on the mouth which can be REMOVED EASILY showing a red base

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4
Q

what are the features of oesophageal candidiasis?

A

dysphagia +/- pain on swallowing
white patches on OGD

it is an AIDS DEFINING ILLNESS

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5
Q

what does candidiasis of the skin look like?

A

sore + itchy
red, moist skin with ragged peeling edge
might have papules and pustules

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6
Q

Name an anti-fungal which might be used to treat candidiasis?

A

fluconazole

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7
Q

what is cellulitis?

A

it is an acute non-purulent spreading infection of the sub-cutaneous tissue

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8
Q

what are the most common causative organisms of cellulitis?

A
Streptococcus pyogenes 
staphylococcus aureus (beware of MRSA)
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9
Q

what is the cause of orbital cellulitis?

A

haemophilia influenzae

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10
Q

what are the RF for cellulitis?

A

skin break
poor hygiene
poor vascularisation of tissue

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11
Q

what is the cause of HSV encephalitis?

A

HSV 1 usually

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12
Q

What are the symptoms of HSV 1?

A

primary = usually asymptomatic. gingivostomatitis, pharyngitis, herpetic whitlow (finger lesion)
lymphadenopathy (tender)

secondary = perioral tingle -> vesicles -> ulcer + crust -> healed 8-10 days alter

may cause herpetic encephalitis

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13
Q

what are the symptoms of HSV 2?

A

painful blister/rash in genital, peri-genital or anal area
MACULOPAPULAR RASH

dysuria
fever
malaise
inguinal lymphadenopathy

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14
Q

how is HIV transmitted?

A

through exchange of bodily fluids

sexual intercourse, mother-to-child, needle sharing/stick injuries, blood transfusions, organ transplantations

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15
Q

what is the pathophysiology of HIV?

A

HIV enters CD4+ lymphocytes via GP120 receptors -> reverse transcriptase enables HIV genetic material to be added to host genome

cells produce more HIV -> dissemination -> cell death and eventual T cell depletion.

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16
Q

what are the three phases of HIV?

A
  1. seroconversion
  2. early/asymptomatic
  3. AIDS
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17
Q

what are the features of stage 1 of HIV?

A

self-limiting stage

fever, night sweats, general lymphadenopathy, sore throat

other: oral ulcers, rash, myalgia, headache, encephalitis, diarrhoea

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18
Q

what are the features of stage 2 of HIV?

A

early/asymptomatic

usually appear well, may have persistent lymphadenopathy, progressive minor symptoms (rash, weight loss, oral thrush)

19
Q

what are the features of stage 3 of HIV?

A

AIDS

secondary diseases due to immunodeficiency

20
Q

what are some of the secondary effects arising from the immunodeficiency caused by HIV?

A

bacterial infections, viral infections (CMV, HSV, VZV, HPV, EBV)

fungal infection - pneuomocystic jirovecii pneumonia, cryptococcus, candidiasis, aspergillosis

protozoal - toxoplasmosis

tumour - kaposi sarcoma, SCC, both lymphomas

21
Q

what kind of a virus is EBV?

A

a gamma-herpes virus (dsDNA)

22
Q

how is EBV transmitted?

A

it is found in pharyngeal secretions of an infected individual

close contact leads to spread (e.g. kissing, sharing eating utensils)

23
Q

what is the pathophysiology of EBV?

A

infection of epithelial cells in oropharynx -> infects B cells -> they disseminate the disease -> humoral and cellular immune response across the body -> primary infection ends but virus is latent in B cells

reactivation of latent virus in B cells after stress of immunosuppression

atypical lymphocytes can be detected on blood film

24
Q

what happens if patients with EBV are given ampicillin or amoxicillin?

A

develop a widespread maculopapular rash

25
what is the investigation to test for EBV?
heterophile antibody test
26
what would you expect from your investigations to confirm EBV?
+ve heterophile antibody test leucocytosis raised AST/ALT peripheral blood film showing abnormal leucocytes
27
what are the signs of EBV?
pyrexia cervical/generalised lymphadenopathy splenomegaly hepatomegaly erythematous + oedematous pharynx, exudate on tonsils jaundice in 5-10%
28
how do you manage EBV?
nsaids + paracetamol, bed rest avoid contact sport for 2/52 due to splenic rupture risk steroids for severe cases
29
what is the most severe form of malaria?
infection with plasmodium falciparum
30
briefly describe the life cycle of plasmodium
1. injection of sporozoites from FEMALE mosquite into blood 2. invasion + replicate in hepatocytes 3. re-enter blood and infect RBC 4. replicate in RBC developing ring forms 5. RBC rupture, release merozoites -\> infect more RBC 6. new mosquite bites and takes up gametocytes 7. gametocytes -\> sporozoites in mosquite gut -\> move to saliva ready to reinfect
31
what populations have a degree of innate immunity to malaria?
sickle cell trait G6PD Deficiency pyruvate kinase deficiency thalassaemia
32
What is the maximum incubation period for malaria?
up to a year need to establish patient travel history a year prior to presenting to healthcare professionals if suspecting malaria
33
what investigations are performed if you suspect malaria?
thick and thin blood film (thick for quantifying, thin to identify plasmodium species) bloods: FBC (haemolytic picture), LFTs, U&Es, ABG urinalysis for haematuria or proteinuria
34
what are the signs of malaria?
pyrexia anaemia (haemolytic) hepatosplenomegaly
35
what are the symptoms of malaria?
cyclical high fevers, flu-like symptoms (fatigue, muscle ache, abdo/back pain), sweating, shivering cold/rigors, nausea + vomiting, headache
36
how is VZV transmitted?
aerosol inhalation or direct contact with vesicular secretions
37
where is the dormant VZV found?
dorsal root ganglion
38
what are the features of primary VZV infection?
CHICKENPOX prodromal malaise, mild fever, intense itchy rash spreading affecting mainly face and trunk, vesicles weep + crust infections from 48 hrs before rash till vesicles have crusted (7-10 days) MACULOPAPULAR RASH, skin excoriation, mild fever
39
what are the features of secondary VZV infection?
tingling/hyperaesthesia in dermatomal distribution painful skin lesions + rash in dermatomal distribution vesicular maculopapular rash over a dermatome recovery 10-14 days
40
What is Ramsey-hunt syndrome?
VZV secondary infection in the geniculate ganglion causes zoster in ear and facial nerve palsy (LMN). vesicles may be visible behind the pinna of ear canal
41
what is the definition of sepsis?
Sepsis is life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by dysregulated host response to an infection.
42
what are the components of SIRS? (not needed for sepsis)
* 2 or more of: * Temperature \< 36 or \> 28 * Heart rate \> 90 bpm * RR \> 20 or PaCO2 \< 4.5 kPa or mechanically ventilated * WBC \< 4 or \> 11 or \> 10% immature forms
43
describe qSOFA
quick screening, \> 2 associated with high risk of mortality and requirement for ICU * RR \> 22 * altered mentation (GCS \< 15) * systolic BP \< 100mmHg