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IK6 - Exams > Miscellaneous > Flashcards

Miscellaneous Flashcards

Images + tables from all specialities

1
Q

fill in the table

A
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2
Q

fill in the table provided with cause of peripheral neuropathy

A
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3
Q

How would you manage a pneumothorax?

A
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4
Q

fill in table with causes of hyponatraemia with assocaited fluid status

A
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5
Q

What acute events might a patient with sickle cell anaemia present with?

A
  • acute painful crisis
  • stroke
  • sequestration crises where RBC pool in the lungs of the spleen
    • lungs -> SOB, cough, fever
    • spleen -> exacerbated anaemia
  • gallstones, chronic cholecystitis
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6
Q

differentials for amenorrhoea

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Hypothalamus
  • Pituitary
  • Thyroid disorder (hypo or hyper)
  • PCOS
  • Ovarian failure
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7
Q

Fill in the table with the appropriate management for each sickle cell disease crisis

A
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8
Q

What visual field deficit would lesions in the corresponding areas cause?

A
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9
Q

fill in the table

A
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10
Q

fill in the table

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11
Q

Fill in the table with the conditions associated with these signs

A
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12
Q

Fill in the table with the conditions associated with these signs

A
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13
Q

Fill in the table with the conditions associated with these signs

A
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14
Q

What does this investigation show?

what is the sign called?

what kind of investigation is this?

A

Barium follow through

apple core lesion

colon adenocarcinoma (apple core suggests malignancy of the bowel)

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15
Q

What is this sign and what is the pathology?

A

foetus sign

caecal volvulus

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16
Q

what is this?

A

Large bowel obstruction

line across bowel are the haustra

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17
Q

what does this AXR show?

A

small bowel obstruction

the lines across the bowel are valvulae conniventes

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18
Q

What is this sign and what is the pathology?

A

coffee bean sign

sigmoid volvulus

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19
Q

What is the abnormality?

A

staghorn calculus

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20
Q

What is the sign? what pathologies might cause this sign?

A

thumbprinting

seen in colitis and mesenteric ischaemic due to mucosal thickening

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21
Q

what does this AXR show?

A

toxic mega colon

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22
Q

what are the clinical features of meniere’s disease?

A

recurrent episodes of tinnitus, paroxysmal vertigo and unilateral fluctuating hearing loss

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23
Q

what is the diagnostic test for BPPV?

A

Hallpikes test

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24
Q

what conditions are associated with PCOS?

A

obesity

dyslipidaemia

insulin resistance

type 2 diabetes

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25
Q

what is the presentation of renal cell carcinoma?

A

haematuria + flank pain + abdominal mass

+ FLAWS symptoms

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26
Q

how do you investigate renal artery stenosis

A

bloods: U&Es, aldosterone:renin ratio (>20)

duplex USS -> blood flow

renal USS to look at kidneys

gold standard = digital subtraction angiography

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27
Q

what is the presentation of a hydrocele?

A

painless scrotal swellling

fluid filled lump which may feel cystic, fluctuant, seperate from testes and can palpate above
transilluminates

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28
Q

what is the presentation of bladder cancer?

A

painless haematuria + FLAWs

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29
Q

what are the main causes of AKI?

A

acute tubular necrosis

sepsis (causes hypotension and therefore ischaemia)

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30
Q

what are the risk factors for bladder cancer?

A

smoking, aromatic amines, dye stuff, chrnoic cystitis, pelvic irritation, schistosomiasis

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31
Q

what stain on a kidney biopsy confirms amyloidosis?

A

positive congo red stain

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32
Q

what is the treatment of epididymitis and orchitis?

A

rest, analgesia, scrotal support, abstain from sex

if STD -> test partner
NSAIDs and empirical tx -> doxycycline for chlamydia, ceftraxiaxone for gonorrhoea
if severe admit the patient for IV therapy

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33
Q

what is the presentation of epididymitis/orchitis?

A

unilateral scrotal swelling with pain

+ dysuria
+ pain on walking
+ fevers

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34
Q

what organisms are commonly implicated in epididymitis/orchitis?

A

< 35 years -> STD chlamydia or gonorrhoea

> 35 years -> gram -ve such as e.coli or pseudomonas

most common viral is mumps

35
Q

what are the clinical features and signs of PCOS?

A
  • mestrual irregularities (oligomenorrhoea or amenorrhoea)
  • dysfunctional uterine bleeding
  • infertility
  • hirsutism
  • male-pattern hair loss
  • acne
36
Q

what is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo and what are the signs?

A

vertigo lasting for a seconds-minutes in response to changing head position.

dizziness, vertigo, loss of balance, nausea/vomiting

37
Q

what are cataracts?

A

opacification of lens of the eye

38
Q

what is the presentation of cataracts?

A

gradual-onset painless loss of vision, glare when looking at bright light

vision may worsen in light

some may no longer need their reading glassess

  1. loss of red reflex
  2. hazy lens appearance
  3. reduced visual acuity
39
Q

what is glaucoma?

A

it is an optic neuropathy with a dield deficit which is usually associated with ocular hypertension (>21 mmHg)

40
Q

what are signs of glaucoma?

A

redness of eye + dilated pupil + cloudy cornea

41
Q

what are the features of acute closed angle glaucoma?

A

red eye

hazy cornea

loss of red reflex

fixed and dilated pupil

eye is tender and hard on palpation

cupped optic disc

visual field deficit

moderate raised intra ocular pressure

42
Q

How does primary open angle glaucoma present?

A

slow progressive loss of peripheral fields.

few signs. the optic disc may be cupped on fundoscopy

43
Q

What are the characteristics of alcohol dependence?

A

3 or more of:

  • withdrawal when they stop drinking
  • tolerance
  • compulsion to drink, difficulty controlling termination or levels of use
  • persistant desire to cut down or control use
  • time spent obtaining, using or recovering from alcohol
  • negect of other interests
  • continued use despite physical and psychological problems
44
Q

What is the maximum recommended alcohol intake?

in units

A

14 units a week

45
Q

What is the pathophysiology of alcohol withdrawal?

A

alcohol enhances inhibitory GABA and inhibits exictatoy glutamate neurotransmission

the body adapts by: reducing GABA receptors and upregulating glutamate receptors

stop drinking = overactivation of excitatory receptors

46
Q

What questions might you ask to initially screen for alcohol dependence?

A

CAGE questions

  • have you felt like you should cut down on drinking?
  • have you felt annoyed by people telling you to stop drinking:
  • have you ever felt guilty about how much you drink?
  • do you feel like you need a drink to way you up in the morning? (eye opener)
47
Q

What are the features of alcohol withdrawal?

A

nausea, sweating, tremor, restlessness, agitation, visual hallucinations, confusion, seizures

48
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for anxiety?

A
  • excessive anxiety + worry occuring more days than not for at least 6 months
  • difficult to control worry
  • associated with:
    • restlessness
    • easily fatigued
    • difficulty concentrating
    • irritability
    • muscle tension
    • sleep disturbance
49
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for depression?

A

at least 1 of the following:

  1. persistent sadness or low mood nearly every day
  2. loss of interests or pleasure in most activities

plus some of the following:

  • fatigue or loss of energy
  • worthlessness, excessive/inappropriate guilt
  • suicidal thoughts
  • diminished ability to think or concentrate
  • psychomotor agitation or retardation
  • insomnia
  • changes in appetite and/or weight loss

symptoms must have persisted for at least 2 weeks

50
Q

What assessment tools can be used to assess depression?

A

patient health questionnaire (PHQ-9)

hospital anxiety and depression scale (HAD)

Beck’s depression inventory

51
Q

What is pseudohyponatraemia?

A

a mildly low sodium due to hyperlipidaemia or hyperproteinaemia

52
Q

What is necrobiosis lipoidica?

A

shiny yellow skin patches usually over shins

DM complication

53
Q

What are the stages of HTN retinopathy?

A

stage I = silver wiring

stage II = silver wiring + arteriovenous nipping

stage III = silver wiring + arteriovenous nipping + flame haemorrhages + cotton wool exudates

stage IV = silver wiring + AV nipping + flame haemorrhages + cotton wool exudates + PAPILLOEDEMA

54
Q

what is stage I of HTN retinopathy?

A

silver wiring

55
Q

what is stage II of HTN retinopathy?

A

silver wiring + AV nipping

56
Q

what is stage III of HTN retinopathy?

A

silver wiring + AV nipping + flame haemorrhages + cotton wool exudates

57
Q

what is stage IV of HTN retinopathy?

A

silver wiring + AV nipping + flame haemorrhages + cotton wool exudates + papilloedema

58
Q

what are the stages of diabetic retinopathy?

A
  1. background = hard exudates + blot haemorrhages
  2. pre-proliferative = cotton wool spots, pre-retinal haemorrhages
  3. proliferative = new vessels forming
  4. maculopathy = any of the above occuring closer or on the macular threatening sight

higher risk for glaucoma, cataracts and transient visual loss

59
Q

What are causes of haemolytic anaemia?

A
60
Q

what are the causes of a true polycythaemia?

A
61
Q

What are the benign breast conditions?

A
  • fibroadenomas
  • fibrocystic changes
  • breast cyst
  • sclerosing adnosis
  • intraductal papilloma
  • duct ectasia
  • fat necrosis
  • periductal mastitis
62
Q

What are the features of duct ectasia?

A

yellow/green discharge

occurs due to central ducts become dilated with ductal secretions due to lactiferous duct blockage

63
Q

describe the triple assessment at the breast clinic

A
  1. examination
  2. imaging (< 35 USS, >35 mammogram 2 views
  3. cytology/histology of lump - FNA or excision biopsy
64
Q

what is the common causative organism of breast abscesses?

A

staphylococcus aureus

65
Q

what kind of breast abscesses tend to recur?

A

non-lactational

66
Q

what is the treatment for the 2 types of breast abscess?

A

lactational abcess = flucloxacillin

non-lactational abcess = flucloxacillin + metronidazole

  • only fluclox for lactation as mainly s. aureus
  • non-lactitional tx needs to cover s.aureus and anaerobes
67
Q

what are the direct consequences of HIV on the following organ systems ?

A
68
Q

what is the management of VZV infection?

A
69
Q

what is the test for BPPV?

A

hallpike manouevre

70
Q
A
71
Q

which row shows results indicative of primary, secondary or tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A
72
Q

describe the motor component of the GCS score.

A
73
Q

gram stain of streptococcus pneumoniae

A

gram +ve cocci chains

74
Q

gram stain of S. aureus

A

gram +ve cocci clusters

75
Q

gram stain of N. meningitides

A

gram -ve cocci

76
Q

life threatening differentials of syncope

A
  • PE
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • AAA
  • Aortic dissection
  • MI
  • SAH
  • Aortic stenosis
  • Arrhythmias - SVT/VF/VT or bradycardia or heart-block
77
Q

differentials for purpuric rash

A
  • infection - meningococcal septicaemia
  • IgA vasculitis (HSP)
  • small vessel vasculitis
  • lower platelet - ITP, etc
78
Q

what are the retroperitoneal organs?

A

SAD PUCKER

Suprarenal (adrenal) gland

Aorta/IVC

Duodenum (2nd and 3rd part)

Pancreas (except the tail)

Ureters

Colon (ascending and descending)

Kidneys

Oesophagus

Rectum

79
Q

what are the features of excess acetylcholine?

A

e.g. organophosphate poisoning

SLUD

  • salivation
  • lacrimation
  • urinary
  • defecation/diarrhoea
  • CVD - hypotension, bradycardia
  • small pupils
  • muscle fasciculation

management with atropine

80
Q

describe the cervical screening

A
  • every 3 years from 25-49
  • every 5 years from 50-64
81
Q

describe the breast screening program

A
  • invited from 50 - 70
  • every 3 years
82
Q

describe the bowel cancer screening program

A
  • home test screening kit every 2 years from 60-74
  • faecal immunochemistry test
83
Q

describe the AAA screening

A

1 off USS to men > 65

can refer women > 70 with RF (COPD, cerebrovascular/coronary/peripheral arterial disease, FHx, hyperlipidaemia, HTN, current or ex-smoker)

84
Q

causes of normal anion gap or hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

A
  • GI bicarb loss - diarrhoea, fistula
  • renal tubular acidosis
  • drugs - acetazolamide
  • ammonium chloride injection
  • addison’s disease

IK6 - Exams (24 decks)

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