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MRCPCH > Infection, Immunology and Allergy > Flashcards

Infection, Immunology and Allergy Flashcards

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1
Q

Who should receive prophylaxis for meningococcal disease?

A

Other household contacts only

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2
Q

Which condition is characterised by a triad of hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and erythroderma in the presence of raised IgE or peripheral eosinophil count?

A

Omenn Syndrome (an autosomal recessive form of severe combined immunodeficiency)

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3
Q

What is the treatment for Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

A

Ascorbic Acid

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4
Q

Chediak-Higashi syndrome is characterised by …

A

Increased susceptibility to infection
A mild bleeding diathesis
Partial oculocutaneous albinism
Progressive peripheral neuropathy
A tendency to develop a life-threatening lymphoma syndrome

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5
Q

Four days of prodromal illness with conjunctivitis and Koplik spots is pathognomonic of what?

A

Measles

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6
Q

Toxic shock syndrome is caused by which organisms?

A

Staph Aureus
Strep. pyogenes

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7
Q

Describe the features of possible underlying HIV infection in children?

A

Failure to thrive
Generalised lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly
Parotid gland enlargement
Persistent oral candidiasis
Chronic candida nappy rash
Recurrent otitis media
Chronic dermatitis
Chronic diarrhoea

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8
Q

Treatment of Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia?

A

Cotrimoxazole (21 days high dose)
Broad Spectrum Antibiotics (Cefuroxime)
Anti-TB medications

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9
Q

Rash spreading from the face down to the rest of the body?

A

Measles

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10
Q

Recurrent infections, consanguineous marriage and albinism

A

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

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11
Q

Name two live vaccinations?

A

BCG
MMR

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12
Q

Which groups of individuals are live vaccines contraindicated in?

A

Immunocompromised patients
Those on immunosuppressants
Those using corticosteroids

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13
Q

Which vaccination is contraindicated in a patient with previous anaphylaxis to eggs?

A

Tick-borne encephalitis
Yellow Fever

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14
Q

Investigation for C.difficile?

A

Toxin detection in stool sample

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15
Q

Mild intestinal symptoms and microcytic anaemia?

A

D. Latum

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16
Q

Hepatomegaly and microcytic anaemia with bloody diarrhoea?

A

Ameobic Abscess

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17
Q

Water foul smelling diarrhoea?

A

Giardia

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18
Q

Slapped cheek disease is caused by ??

A

Parvovirus B19

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19
Q

Which antibiotics treat mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

Erythromycin
Clarithromycin

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20
Q

Opportunistic infections in patients with HIV?

A

Cytomegalovirus Retinitis
Pneumocystis Pneumonia
Disseminated Mycobacterium Avium Complex
Oesophageal Candidiasis
Cryptococcal Meningitis
Chronic Cryptosporidium Enteritis

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21
Q

Causes of an absent thymus on CXR?

A

DiGeorge Syndrome (low calcium)
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (normal calcium)
Ataxia Telangiectasia (normal calcium)

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22
Q

Treatment of severe campylobacter jejuni?

A

Normally conservative management however if severe it should be treated with AZITHROMYCIN

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23
Q

What is the treatment of Shigella?

A

Ciprofloxacin

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24
Q

What is the antibiotic treatment of Giardia?

A

Metronidazole

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25
Greyish deposit on oropharynx/ pseudomembrane?
Diptheria
26
Management of Diptheria?
Antitoxin Penicillin Preparation for Intubation
27
Aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease is caused by?
Parvovirus B19
28
Treatment of Anaphylaxis is with?
1:1000 Adrenaline IM
29
What is the gold standard for diagnosis of malaria?
Thick and thin blood film
30
What do phagocyte function disorders typically present with?
Recurrent oral and cutaneous infection Lymphadenitis Chronic cough Poor wound healing Prolonged infections with poor response to abc
31
Presents with recurrent deep seated infections such as lymphadenitis or abscesses?
Chronic granulomatous disease
32
Which condition causes delayed separation of the umbilical cord?
Leucocyte Adhesion Deficiency (LAD-1)
33
Pharmacological management of PCP?
Co-Trimoxazole
34
Causative organism of Croup?
Parainfluenza
35
Causative organism of Slapped cheek/ erythema infectiosum?
Parvovirus B19
36
Causative organism of Scarlet Fever?
Group A strep
37
Lyme disease rash?
Erythema Migrans (bulls eye lesion)
38
Very high temperature, diarrhoea and macular rash?
Salmonella
39
Delayed separation of the umbilical cord after birth/
Leucocyte-Adhesion Defect
40
Coxsackie virus is an example of what type of virus?
Enterovirus
41
Outline the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity?
Type 1 - anaphylaxis Type 2 - Cell mediated Type 3 - Immune mediated Type 4 - Delayed hypersensitivity Type 5 - Autoantibodies that bind to the cell surface receptors (MG and Graves disease)
42
Outline the primary immunodeficiencies with eczema?
Wiskott Aldrich syndrome - immunodeficiency, thrombocytopenia and eczema Hyper IgE syndrome - skeletal abnormalities Chronic granulomatous disease - multiple, multisystemic granulomatous lesions Omenn syndrome - diarrhoea, hepatosplenomegaly, hypereosinophilia, erythroderma > eczema
43
What is Bartonella Henselae a cause of?
Cat scratch disease
44
What is Borrelia burgdorferi the causative organism of?
Lyme disease
45
What is a Ghon complex indicative of?
TB
46
What are the cells of adaptive immunity?
Helper T cells B cells Plasma cells Cytotoxic T cells
47
Which cells are responsible for antibody production?
B cells
48
What is the shape of e.coli?
Gram negative rods (catalase positive, oxidase negative)
49
What are the contraindications to MMR vaccination?
Severe immunosuppression Allergy to neomycin Children who have received another live vaccine by injection within 4 weeks Pregnancy should be avoided for at least 1 month following vaccination Immunoglobulin therapy within the past 3 months (there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present)
50
What is the Hutchinson triad - diagnostic criteria of syphilis?
Interstitial keratitis Hutchinson incisors 8th cranial nerve deafness
51
What is the structure of streptococcus pneumonia?
Gram positive cocci in chains
52
What are neutrophil polymorphs an indication of?
Acute inflammation
53
What are granulomas an indication of?
Chronic inflammation
54
Vaccination schedule in premature children?
Should be done according to their chronological age
55
What are the characteristic features of congenital rubella?
Sensorineural deafness Congenital cataracts
56
Describe the steps of acute inflammation?
Vasoconstriction Vasodilation Increased permeability of vessels Stasis of red blood cells Neutrophil margination
57
RNA is transcribed from DNA by which enzyme?
RNA polymerases
58
What is the exclusion period for hand, foot and mouth disease?
NO exclusion is needed
59
Describe a WCC?
Lymphocytes - viral in nature Neutrophils - bacterial in nature Eosinophils - fungal in nature Monocytes - protozoan in nature
60
Blood film post-splenectomy?
Howell-jolly bodies Heinz bodies Poikilocytes (target cells) Pappenheimer bodies Erythrocyte containing siderotic granules
61
Erythema ....?
Erythema migrans- Lyme disease Erythema multiforme- Herpes simplex, mycoplasma Erythema marginatum- Rheumatic fever Erythema nodosum- Crohns disease, streptococcal
62
Can cause hydros fetalis if contracted during pregnancy?
Parvovirus B19
63
What are the risk factors for developing active TB?
silicosis chronic renal failure HIV positive solid organ transplantation with immunosuppression intravenous drug use haematological malignancy anti-TNF treatment previous gastrectomy
64
Which infection can cause spontaneous splenic rupture?
EBV
65
What are the most common complications of mumps?
Orchitis (1 in 5) Pancreatitis (1 in 10)
66
Which cell types make up the innate immune system?
Neutrophils Basophils Mast cells Eosinophils Monocytes Macrophages Natural killer cells Dendritic cells
67
At what level does the spina cord end?
L1/L2
68
What are the contraindication to the rotavirus vaccination?
Hypersensitivity Severe combined immunodeficiency disease Intusseception
69
What is the risk period for chickenpox at delivery?
The risk period for neonates is those whose mother developed chickenpox within 5 days before or 2 days after delivery
70
Where are histamine receptors found?
CNS tissue, smooth muscle and endothelium Parietal cells in the stomach Central and peripheral nervous tissue Basophils
71
Drug causes of hepatic granulomas?
Allopurinol Sulphonamides

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