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Pathology I > Infectious Disease II > Flashcards

Infectious Disease II Flashcards

1
Q

what are bacteria pathogens

A
  • transient bacterial infections
  • localized infections
  • systemic infections
  • extracellular pathogens
  • intracellular pathogens
  • toxins
  • grow on media
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2
Q

what is the causative agent for TB

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

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3
Q

describe TB and the cells seen in the histology

A
  • pulmonary infection is most common
  • intracellular pathogen
  • granulomatous disease
  • epithelial histiocytes
  • multinucleated giant cells
  • lymphocytes
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4
Q

what is the prevalnce of TB

A
  • 1/3 of the world population infected
  • leading infectious cause of death after AIDS
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5
Q

what populations are susceptible to TB

A
  • homeless
  • malnourished
  • overcrowded
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6
Q

why are active TB cases increasing

A
  • HIV infection
    -immigration
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7
Q

what is infection

A

growth of the organism in a patient

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8
Q

what is active disease

A

destructive, symptomatic disease

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9
Q

how is TB spread

A

-droplet nuclei of 1-5 microns
- stay airborne for long periods of time
- reach the pulmonary alveoli

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10
Q

what is primary pulmonary TB

A
  • previously unexposed person
  • cell mediated immunity controls infection
  • fibrosis and calcification
  • viable organisms dormant in lesions - latent disease
  • may reactivate if immune defenses are lowered
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11
Q

what is seen in primary pulmonary TB

A

Gohn complex- parenchymal lung lesion and hilar nodal lesion

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12
Q

what type of mcirobe is TB

A

acid fast bacilli

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13
Q

how does mycobacterium TB intracellular pathogen cause virulence

A

TB cord factor- blocks fusion of phagosome with lysozome

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14
Q

what area in the oral cavity is susceptible to tuberculous ulcer

A

lateral border of the tongue

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15
Q

how is TB diagnosed

A
  • chest radiograph
  • sputum culture
  • molecular biologic tools
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16
Q

what is the treatment for TB

A

multi drug regimen
- isoniazid
- rifampin
- ethambuton
- streptomycin
- pyrazinimide
- rifabutin

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17
Q

what are the symptoms of active TB

A

-chronic cough
- hemoptysis
- weight loss
- night sweats
- fever

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18
Q

describe the mantoux tuberculin skin test: PPD test

A
  • type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction to protein from M TB
  • intracutaneous tuberculin injection
  • T cells sensitized by prior infection recruited to area
  • produces an area of induration
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19
Q

what does a positive tuberculin skin test indicate

A
  • individual has been infected
    -cell mediated hypersensitivity exists
  • does not indicate active disease
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20
Q

what is the bacillus calmette Guerin (BCG) vaccine

A
  • live attenuated strain of Mycobacterium bovis
  • caused positive PPD reaction
  • effectiveness uncertain
  • not used in US
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21
Q

what is scrofula

A
  • tuberculous lymphadenitis of neck
  • mycobacterium bovis infection from infected milk
  • pasteurization of milk
  • tuberculosis control for cattle
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22
Q

what is the causative agent of syphillis

A
  • treponema pallidum
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23
Q

describe syphillis

A
  • STD
  • sequentail clinical stages
  • years of latency
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24
Q

what are the 2 forms of syphillis

A
  • acquired syphilis- STD
  • congenital syphilis - in utero transmission
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25
Q

what are the clinical stages of untreated acquired syphilis and how long do each last

A
  • primary: 1 week to 3 months
  • secondary: 1-12 months
  • tertiary (late) : 1-30 years
26
Q

what is the lesion called in primary syphilis

A

chancre

27
Q

what are the lesions of secondary syphilis

A
  • skin rash (macular papillary rash)
  • mucous patch
  • condylomata lata - genital lesions
28
Q

what can happen in tertiary syphilis

A
  • most destructive stage
  • gumma
  • syphilitic glossitis
  • nervous system- neurosyphilis: tabes dorsalis
  • CVS: aneurysm of ascending aorta
29
Q

what would a biopsy of a gumma show

A

granulomatous inflammation

30
Q

which stage of syphilis is infectious

A

teritary - the gumma lesion

31
Q

what are the lesions of congenital syphilis

A
  • snuffles
  • saddle nose
  • rhagades
  • hutchinson’s incisors
  • mulberry molars
32
Q

what is hutchinson’s triad of congenital syphilis

A
  • blind- intersitial keratitis
  • deaf
  • dental anomalies
33
Q

what are the laboratory tests for syphilis

A
  • cant culture
  • can see with microscopy - dark field or fluorescence microscopy
  • serologic tests for syphilis: non treponemal tests - reagin- antibody to cardiolipin
  • treponemal tests- specific for T pallidum
34
Q

describe non- treponemal tests

A
  • VDRL - venereal disease research lab
  • RPR - rapid plasma reagin
35
Q

describe treponemal tests

A
  • FTA-ABS: fluorescent treponemal antigen absorption
  • MHA-TP - microhemagglutinin - treponema pallidum
36
Q

what type of infection is actinomycosis

A

bacterial

37
Q

what are the types of diseases caused by fungi and what area of body is affected

A
  • superficial: skin, hair, nails, dermatophytes
  • subcutaneous- dermis and subcutaneous tissue: sporotricosis
  • systemic- deep infections of internal organs: histoplasmosis
  • opportunistic- immunocompromised host: candidiasis
38
Q

what is mucormycosis

A

-fungal infection seen in immunocompromised patients
- possible to se granulomatous inflammation

39
Q

where is histoplasmosis prevalent and how is it transmitted

A
  • endemic to mississippi river valley
  • transmission by inhalation of spores from bird droppings or dust particles
40
Q

describe histoplasmosis infections

A
  • sub clinical infection usual
  • flu like syndrome
41
Q

describe histoplasmosis deep fungal infection of the lungs

A
  • inhalation of spores
  • phagocytosis
  • specific immunity
  • killing of organism
  • dystrophic calcification
42
Q

describe histoplasma capsulatum

A
  • dimorphic fungus- yeast at body temperature, mold in nature
43
Q

what percentage of the population is infected with histoplasmosis

A

80-90%

44
Q

what is the most common systemic fungal infection in the US

A

histoplasmosis

45
Q

who is affected by disseminated histoplasmosis and describe the lesions

A
  • elderly, debilitated, immunosuppressed, AIDS
  • spreads to extra pulmonary sites
  • adrenal lesions- addisons disease
  • oral lesions
46
Q

what is coccidioidomycosis and where is it found

A
  • deep fungal infection of the lungs
  • 40% develop respiratory symptoms
  • disseminated disease may occur
  • valley fever
  • found in southwestern US
  • granulomatous inflammation
47
Q

what are the clinical forms of oral candidiasis

A
  • pseudomembranous (thrush)
  • erythematous (atrophic)
  • hyperplastic
  • angular chelitis (perleche)
  • central papillary atrophy
48
Q

describe the appearance of acute pseudomembranous candidiasis

A

cottage cheese appearance
- when wiped off you will see erythematous base

49
Q

what is the tx for psuedomembranous candidiasis

A
  • fluconazole (diflucan) 100mg
  • two tabs on day one and one tab day 2-13
50
Q

what is atrophic candidiasis cultured on and why

A
  • sabauraud agar
  • has a low pH and gentamycin to inhibit bacterial growth
51
Q

what is the oral exfoliative cytology for diagnosis of fungal infections

A

candidal pseudohyphae

52
Q

what is erythematous candidiasis treated with

A

fluconazole (diflucan) 100mg
- two tabs on day one
one tab on days 2-13

53
Q

what is steroid inhaler candidiasis

A
  • happens when inhaler is held too close
  • opportunistic infection
54
Q

where is angular chelitis found

A
  • on corners of mouth only
  • seen in patients with loss of VDO
55
Q

what type of prescription is candidiasis treated with

A

antifungal

56
Q

what does hyperplastic candidiasis look like

A

leukoplakia but does not rub off

57
Q

what should you look for in a histology slide of candidiasis

A

sticks and circles

58
Q

what is another name for central papillary atrophy

A

median rhomboid glossitis

59
Q

where does median rhomboid glossitis appear

A

only in the midline of the dorsal tongue

60
Q

what is chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis due to

A

T cell defects

61
Q

describe candidiasis in HIV infections and what should you prescribe

A
  • can be red or white or mixed
  • all over the mouth prescribe systemic antifungla
  • if in one area of the mouth prescribe topical anti fungal
62
Q
A

Pathology I (24 decks)

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