Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

fourth year > infectious diseases > Flashcards

infectious diseases Flashcards

(76 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

what causes mid/lower zone patchy consolidation, dry cough, confusion, hyponatraemia

A

legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

what bacteria causes gas gangrene

A

clostridium bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is HIV seroconversion

A

when a person first produces antibodies for HIV, presents as glandular fever type illness
- when a person goes from being HIV neg to HIV pos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when does HIV seroconversion happen

A

3-12 weeks after exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

adult dose of adrenaline

A

500mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

6-12 years dose of adrenaline

A

300mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how often can adrenaline be repeated, if necessary

A

every 5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mx necrotising fasciitis

A

urgent surgical debridement
IV antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

where should adrenaline be injected

A

the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is refractory anaphylaxis

A

respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite 2 doses of IM adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

most common affected site of necrotising fasciitis

A

the perineum
- fournier’s gangrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

causes of necrotising fasciitis

A

type 1 is caused by mixed anaerobes and aerobes (often occurs post-surgery in diabetics). This is the most common type

type 2 is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

most common cause of osteomyelitis

A

staph aureus
- except in sickle cell anaemia: salmonella species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mx osteomyelitis

A

flucloxacillin for 6 weeks
clindamycin if penicillin allergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what bug causes syphilis

A

treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does syphilis first present as

A

a painless ulcer (chancre)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

treatment of genital warts

A

multiple non-keratinised: topical podophyllum

solitary keratinised wart: cryotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which types of HPV cause genital warts

A

types 6 and 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

preggers and got chlamydia

A

azithromycin, erythromycin or amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

name some 3rd gen cephalosporins

A

ceftriaxone
cefotaxime
cefixime
ceftazidime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

antibiotics for brain abscess

A

IV 3rd gen cephalosporin (like ceftriaxone) and metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

presentation of measles

A

prodromal phase: irritable, conjunctivitis, fever

KOPLIK SPOTS: white spots
rash that starts behind ears then to whole body (maculopapular becomes blotchy and confluent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when is croup more common

A

autumn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what causes croup

A

parainfluenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
presentation of croup
- barking cough - stridor (don't examine throat) - fever etc
25
Mx croup
single dose of oral dexamethasone
26
where does herpes simplex encephalitis usually affect
**temporal lobe** and inferior frontal - think about aphasia (temporal lobe seizures, aphasia)
27
Mx herpes simplex encephalitis
IV Aciclovir
28
features of herpes simplex encephalitis
- fever, headache etc - psychiatric symptoms - seizures - vomiting - focal features e.g. aphasia
29
what is dry gangrene caused by
chronic ischaemia, usually due to peripheral arterial disease - appears dry, shrivelled and blackened - painless due to nerve damage
30
what is wet gangrene
results from **sudden** lack of blood supply combined with bacterial infection - swollen, moist, stinky - rapid spread - systemic symptoms - severe pain | can lead to sepsis
31
presentation of gas gangrene
- severe pain and swelling - crepitus - rapid onset systemic symptoms URGENT MEDICAL INTERVENTION - high mortality
32
kaposi's sarcoma: cause and presentation
caused by HHV-8 presents as purple papules or plaques on the skin may ulcerate resp involvement may cause massive haemoptysis
33
what is ritonavir
potent inhibitor of the P450 system HIV drug
34
focal neuro lesions from HIV
toxoplasmosis: single or multiple ring enhancing lesions - mass effect primary CNS lymphoma: assoc with EBV, single or multiple homogenous enhancing lesions TB: much less common, single enhancing lesion
35
general neuro complications of HIV
encephalitis: due to CMV or HIV itself crytococcus: fungal infection of CNS progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy: widespread demyelination AIDS dementia complex
36
patients with CD4 count < 200
should receive Pneumocystis jiroveci penumonia prophylaxis
37
Ix for pneumocystis jiroveci
CXR - infiltrates exercise induced desaturation silver stain
38
Mx pneumocystis jiroveci
co-trimoxazole
39
HIV renal manifestation
nephrotic syndrome - give antiretroviral therapy
40
testing for HIV
combination tests (HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody) - if positive should be repeated
41
testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients post exposure
should be done at 4 weeks post exposure - if negative do again at 12 weeks
42
treatment of MRSA
vancomycin
43
Mx campylobacter
usually self limiting - if severe then clarithromycin
44
what's mycoplasma pneumoniae
cause of atypical pneumonia that often affects younger patients
45
what conditions is mycoplasma pneumoniae assoc with
- cold agglutins: haemolytic anaemia - erythema multiforme, nodosum - guillan barre and other neuro diseases - peri/myocarditis - ITP
46
diagnosis of mycoplasma
serology!! - positive cold agglutinin test: peripheral blood smear may show red blood cell agglutination
47
Mx mycoplasma pneumonia
doxycycline or erythromycin/clarithromycin
48
diagnosis of legionella pneumonia
urinary antigen
49
Mx legionella pneumonia
erythromycin/clarithromycin
50
most common cause of neutropenic sepsis
staph epidermis
51
Mx neutropenic sepsis
piperacillin with tazobactam
52
qSOFA for sepsis
>= 2 Respiratory rate > 22/min Altered mentation Systolic blood pressure < 100 mm Hg
53
sepsis 6
1. Administer oxygen: Aim to keep saturations > 94% (88-92% if at risk of CO2 retention e.g. COPD) 2. Take blood cultures 3. Give broad-spectrum antibiotics 4. Give intravenous fluid challenges NICE recommend a bolus of 500ml crystalloid over less than 15 minutes 5. Measure serum lactate 6. Measure accurate hourly urine output
54
septic arthritis Mx
flucloxacillin - for 4-6 weeks
55
TB Mx
2 months RIPE 4 months RI
56
rifampicin adverse effects
potent liver enzyme inducer hepatitis, orange secretions flu-like symptoms R = Red secretions
57
Isoniazid SE
- peripheral neuropathy (prevent with pyridoxine (vitamin B6)) - hepatitis - agranulocytosis - liver enzyme inducer
58
pyrazinamide SE
hyperuricaemia causing gout
59
ethambutol SE
optic neuritis E = Eyes
60
most common cause of endocarditis
staph aureus - particulalrly in PWIDs
61
which cause of endocarditis is due to poor dental hygiene
strep viridans
62
endocarditis after prosthetic valve surgery
staph epidermis
63
endocarditis and colorectal cancer
strep bovis
64
treatment of latent TB
3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin (for <35yrs if hepatotoxicity is a concern) 6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) (if interactions with rifamycins are a concern)
65
Mx shingles
antivirals < 72 hours (unless young patient with mild rash) - paracetamol + NSAIDs first lien - no response = amitriptyline - no response = corticosteroids (not in immunocompromised)
66
erythema infectiosum
slapped cheek syndrome - caused by parovirus B19
67
what is used to assess drug sensitivities in TB
sputum culture
68
what is gold standard investigation for TB
sputum culture
69
severe hepatitis in pregnant woman
hep E
70
features of primary syphilis
chancre - painless ulcer at the site of sexual contact local non-tender lymphadenopathy | often not seen in women
71
what is seen in secondary syphilis | 6-10 weeks after infection
* systemic symptoms: fevers, lymphadenopathy * rash on trunk, palms and soles * buccal 'snail track' ulcers (30%) * condylomata lata (painless, warty lesions on the genitalia )
72
what's seen in tertiary syphilis
- gummas (granulomatous lesions of the skin and bones) - ascending aortic aneurysms - general paralysis of the insane - tabes dorsalis - Argyll-Robertson pupil
73
Mx acute pyelonephritis
all patients should have a urine sample then antibiotics
74
clarithromycin or erythromycin during pregnancy
erythromycin
75

fourth year (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions